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Emt 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale for eyes

A

spontaneous eye opening = 4 points
• eye opening in response to speech = 3 points
• eye opening in response to pain stimuli = 2 points
• no eye opening = 1 point

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2
Q

GSC scale for verbal ?

A

responding with an oriented conversation
= 5 points
• responding with confused conversation = 4 points
• responding with inappropriate words = 3 points
• responding with incomprehensible sounds
= 2 points
• not responding verbally = 1 point

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3
Q

GSc scale for motor

A

Obey commands -6
Moves to pain - 5
Flex to withdraw from pain- 4
Abnormal flexing-3
Adnirmal extension-2
No response- 1

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4
Q

Sympathomimetics are central nervous system stimulants that mimic the effects of the sympathetic drug examples

A

Fight or flight examples : cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), methamphetamine, and caffeine.

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5
Q

Heroin, fentanyl, and Oxycodone are

A

Opioids

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6
Q

What shock , often life-threatening ALLERGIC reaction to an antigen to which the body has become hypersensitive.

A

Anaphylactic shock

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7
Q

Signs of anaphylaxis include

A

itchy skin or a raised, red skin rash.
swollen eyes, lips, hands and feet.
feeling lightheaded or faint.
swelling of the mouth, throat or tongue, which can cause breathing and swallowing difficulties.
wheezing.
abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting.
collapse and unconsciousness.

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8
Q

What shock is a condition that prevents blood and oxygen from getting to your organs.

A

Obstructive shock

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9
Q

tension pneumothorax, pericardial tamponade, restrictive cardiomyopathy, constrictive pericarditis. Examples of what shock

A

Obstruction

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10
Q

a combination of both primary and secondary injuries that lead to loss of sympathetic tone and thus unopposed parasympathetic response driven by the vagus nerve. Consequently, patients suffer from instability in blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature regulation. Is what shock

A

Neurological shock

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11
Q

result from other explosive products (such as heat and light) and from exposure to toxic substances from fuels, metals, and gases that can cause burns, blindness, and inhalation injuries.

A

Quaternary blast injuries

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12
Q

Primary blast vs secondary blast injury

A

P- result from the high pressures, or blast overpressure, created by explosions
S- result when strong blast winds behind the pressure front propel fragments and debris against the body and cause blunt force and penetrating injuries

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13
Q

result from individuals being thrown by the blast wind

A

Tertiary blast injuries

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14
Q

when the blood flow through the cerebral arteries is blocked. Is what kind of stoke

A

ischemic 80 % of pp have

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15
Q

occurs when a blood vessel ruptures and causes increased pressure in the brain from the accumulated blood is what kind of stroke

A

hemorrhagic

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16
Q

ThrombolitiC is

A

A med that dissolving a major clot quickly

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17
Q

a legal principle that allows a person to take certain actions in an emergency situation free from recrimination.

A

The emergency doctrine

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18
Q

legal documents that provide instructions for medical care and only go into effect if you cannot communicate your own wishes

A

Advance doctrine

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19
Q

brief stroke-like attack that, despite resolving within minutes to hours, still requires immediate medical attention to distinguish from an actual stroke.

A

Transient ischemic attack

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20
Q

A condition in which the liquid portion of the blood (plasma) is too low.
Causes include vomiting, diarrhea, and excessive bleeding. This can lead to shock, a life-threatening condition in which the organs aren’t getting enough blood or oxygen.

A

Hypovolemia

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21
Q

Sunken fontanels most likely indicate

A

Hypovolemia

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22
Q

increasing vasomotor tone means

A

(constricting blood vessels)

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23
Q

Difficulty swallowing, drooling, and a bolt upright position indicate

A

epiglottitis.

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24
Q

A potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when the tissue protecting the windpipe becomes inflamed

A

Epiglottitis

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25
Q

The process by which air leaves the lungs is considered

A

Passive

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26
Q

Sudden onset of abdominal pain in a sexually active female should always be assumed as an

A

ectopic pregnancy,

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27
Q

Cushing triad regarding ICP

P + R goes ?
bP goes ?

A

Pulse and respiration down

Systolic blood pressure up

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28
Q

Cushing’s triad regarding shock

P + R goes ?
bP goes ?

A

Bp down
Pulse and resp up

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29
Q

characterized by agitation, aggression, acute distress and sudden death, often in the pre-hospital care setting.

A

Agitated delirium

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30
Q

Least injured part of spine

A

thoracic region

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31
Q

lumbar region is frequently injured while

A

Lifting and moving

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32
Q

What is rarely injured since is comprised of other bones that makes up the strong pelvic girdle.

A

sacral region

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33
Q

What burn typically includes redness, severe pain, and blisters.

A

Partial thickness

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34
Q

What burn would not include blisters

A

Superficial

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35
Q

What burn would be charred, dry, and white.

A

Full thickness

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36
Q

What burn goes to the bone

A

4th degree

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37
Q

Blunt trauma, with or without associated rib fractures, and incidents such as unrestrained head-on motor vehicle accidents, falls, and altercations involving laterally directed blow cause

A

Tension pneumothorax

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38
Q

Wheezing =

A

Asthma

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39
Q

Bronchiolitis is seen more frequently in younger patients, typically less than

A

2

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40
Q

a common complication following intubation and usually results from the direct pressure and the inflammatory reaction triggered by the endotracheal tube on surfaces of contact.

A

laryngeal edema.

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41
Q

Bronchoconstriction is a common problem associated with

A

asphyxiation

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42
Q

The upper aspect of a pediatric trachea is what shape

A

Funnel

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43
Q

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is a system used to rapidly identify

A

Stoke you asses face , arms and speech

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44
Q

Pain and a pulsatile mass indicate an

A

aortic aneurism.

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45
Q

oBstruction typically presents with waxing and waning pain.

A

Bowel

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46
Q

Altered mental status is a contraindication to the administration of

A

Charcoal

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47
Q

Bulging neck veins is a sign that the heart is

A

Not pumping effectively

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48
Q

EMT should expect the pulse ox to continuously what during a seizure

A

Drop

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49
Q

frequent urination and weight loss point to

A

hyperglycemia.

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50
Q

Beta what ?? effect causes bronchiole smooth muscle relaxation.
Beta what ?? results in stimulation of the heart to increase its activity, and Alpha 1 and Alpha 2 work in concert with each other to help regulate vascular smooth muscle tone

A

2.
1.

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51
Q

Commotio cordis occurs when

A

powerful blunt force interrupts the normal depolarization of the heart. Causing heart attack ( scene more in young athletes

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52
Q

Increased work of breathing, cyanosis, and an altered mental status indicate of what is failing

A

respiratory failure

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53
Q

cyanosis is more commonly associated with

A

Respiratory disorders

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54
Q

slurred speech and difficulty walking identify the possibility of

A

Acute stroke

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55
Q

nerve that controls the function of the diaphragm is the

A

phrenic nerve.

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56
Q

glossopharyngeal nerve controls

A

tastes and facial sensation.

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57
Q

The abducens controls

A

Movement of eyes

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58
Q

What causes the flow of blood to the alveoli to be blocked.

A

Pulmonary embolism

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59
Q

Lung collapse would indicate

A

pneumothorax.

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60
Q

Ruptured alveoli would indicate

A

traumatic asphyxia.

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61
Q

Oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the left …. , passes through the ……. and then is pumped out to the body by the left……

A

atria, mitral valve, ventricle

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62
Q

Provocation refers to what, if anything,

A

Makes the pain worst

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63
Q

abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) what kind of pain

A

Tearing pain

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64
Q

Crushing pain may be caused my

A

Heart attack

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65
Q

What is a high-pitched course whistling sound occurs during expiration

A

Wheezing

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66
Q

A high-pitched, whistling sound most often heard while taking in a breath.

A

Stridor ( tracheal or laryngeal obstruction.)

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67
Q

low-pitched sounds similar to snores, usually indicating secretions in the airway, and are often cleared by coughing1.

A

Rhonchi

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68
Q

Small, clicking, bubbling, rattling sounds in the lungs

A

Rales

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69
Q

The trachea is connected to the larynx via ?

A

Cricoid cartilage

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70
Q

What position is the best position to place a non responsive patient that is breathing

A

Recovery

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71
Q

Largest portion of the nasal cavity

A

The respiratory region

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72
Q

Ssri (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitiors) are for

A

Anti-depressants, therefore depression, and anxiety

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73
Q

How many pulmonary veins in person have

A

4 they receive oxygenated blood from the lungs and deliver left atrium

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74
Q

What shock is a from blood loss or excessive fluid loss.

A

Hypovolaemic

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75
Q

What shock is when the HEART is unable to circulate enough blood volume to maintain adequate tissue perfusion.

A

Cardiogenic shock

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76
Q

What shock is caused by an obstruction in the cardiovascular system.

A

Obstructive shock

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77
Q

What shock occurs due to poor distribution of blood to the tissues, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion. This kind of shock is seen in spinal, septic, and anaphylactic shock.

A

Distributive shock

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78
Q

Any objective evidence of disease, such as rash, or cough Is considered a ?
Changes in normal functions such as stomachache , lower back pain, which are recognized by the person experience them is a

A

Sign / symptom

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79
Q

A condition where shortness of breath is scene when lying down often scene with pp with heart failure

A

Orthopnea

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80
Q

Vetch with have a heart rate of ?

A

150-220 implapable pulse

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81
Q

Common cause of acute abdomen ?

A

Gallstones

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82
Q

Having to much carbon dioxide in the blood is ?

A

Hypercapnia

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83
Q

A tearing pain in the back is a common way a patient with an

A

abdominal aortic aneurysm will describe it

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84
Q

The carotid arteries help perfuse the

A

Brain

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85
Q

The pulmonary artery brings deoxygenated blood to the

A

Lungs

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86
Q

START triage begins by asking patients to than….

A

Get up and walk , Next, respirations are assessed and if the patient is not breathing, the airway is opened. Pulse is then assessed, followed by mental status.

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87
Q

Primary prevention strategies are designed to prevent

A

illness or injuries (e.g. helmet safety classes).

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88
Q

Secondary prevention strategies are designed to

A

monitor and prevent progression of diseases already present, as in this example of hypertension.

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89
Q

Health screenings are designed to

A

determine if a disease state exists in a population of people,

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90
Q

Baroreceptors are special

A

“pressure receptors” in the large blood vessels of the body that detect blood pressure.

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91
Q

With a posterior hip dislocation the leg is commonly

A

rotated inward, the hip is flexed, and the knee is bent. foot of the injured leg may be hanging loose.

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92
Q

With an anterior hip dislocation the lower part of the leg is

A

rotated outward and the hip usually is flexed.

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93
Q

hip fracture, the foot on the injured side usually

A

turns outward.

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94
Q

a femur fracture (closed), the leg may appear to be

A

shortened as a result of muscle contractions.

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95
Q

An open wound should be

A

bandaged prior to applying a splint.

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96
Q

There are three types of organs in the abdomen -

A

solid, hollow, and vascular.

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97
Q

When a solid organ is damaged, there is usually what kind of pain

A

Full or discussed

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98
Q

hollow organs are damaged, they typically spill there contents into ?

A

their contents into the abdomen.

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99
Q

If a patient cannot move from the shoulders down, the suspected spinal cord injury is likely in the

A

low cervical region.

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100
Q

spinal shock typically does not have what kind of pulse rate

A

tachycardic pulse rate.

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101
Q

Class III hemorrhage is said to occur when the patient has lost

A

30-40 %
Glass 1-2 bp okay
4 - very low

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102
Q

The most likely cause is the beta blockers the patient is taking for

A

hypertension/ high blood presser meds end in (lol)

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103
Q

Between the two pleural linings (parietal and visceral), there is a

A

“potential space” created by the negative intrapleural pressure.

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104
Q

An oropharyngeal airway in a pediatric patient is placed by using

A

tongue depressor and inserted straight in. This is different than the adult procedure of inserting it upside down and rotating it into place.

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105
Q

Low blood pressure in anaphylaxis is caused primarily by

A

dilation of blood vessels and uncontrolled vascular tone.

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106
Q

The main cause of altered mental status in hyperglycemia is the

A

the massive fluid shift that robs brain cells of precious water.

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107
Q

Croup is a common infection that affects the

A

Upper airways

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108
Q

The barking cough is most likely caused by

A

edema below the vocal cords.

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109
Q

Stridor in this anaphylactic patient most likely represents

A

Swelling in airways

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110
Q

Secretions typically cause

A

Gurgling

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111
Q

The trauma lethal triad consists of H,C, A

A

hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis.

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112
Q

Coagulopathy

A

called a bleeding disorder) is a condition in which the blood’s ability to coagulate (form clots) is impaired. This condition can cause a tendency toward prolonged or excessive bleeding (bleeding diathesis), which may occur spontaneously or following an injury or medical and dental procedures

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113
Q

acidosis.

A

Build up of acid in blood stream

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114
Q

coronary arteries are branches from the

A

Branches for aorta

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115
Q

There are three classifications of pneumothorax:

A

Primary: No readily apparent cause and a lack of significant underlying lung disease.
• Secondary: Related to an underlying lung disease such as COPD (Chronic
Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) or tuberculosis.
• Traumatic: Result of a traumatic injury.
Based on the information provided, traumatic pneumothorax seems most likely.

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116
Q

Tension pneumothorax results from

A

progressive increase of air within the pleural space, usually due to a lung laceration which allows air to escape into the pleural space but not to return. The classic signs of tension pneumothorax are a deviation of the trachea away from the side with the tension, an increased percussion note, and a hyper-expanded chest that moves little with respiration.

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117
Q

causes sedation/ unconsciousness, bradypnea, cyanosis, hypotension, and pinpoint pupils.

A

Opioid overdose

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118
Q

Hemodialysis is removing

A

toxins and waste by filtering them through a dialysis machine. This is usually done 2 - 3 times per week at a dialysis center.

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119
Q

Peritoneal dialysis is done in the

A

home by infusing dialysis solution through a catheter into the peritoneum where it absorbs waste material, toxins and excess fluid.

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120
Q

List 4 signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy.

A

Missed menstrual cycle
Abdominal pain
Vaginal bleeding
Rapid pulse and blood pressure (signs of shock/late signs)

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121
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition that occurs during

A

pregnancy involving severe nausea and vomiting. This usually results in weight loss, dehydration and electrolyte disturbances.

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122
Q

A fistula connects

A

arterial and venous blood flow in an extremity. It is used to connect the patient to a dialysis machine.
You should not take a blood pressure on an arm with a fistula.

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123
Q

ischemic stroke is caused by

A

Blot cloth

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124
Q

hemorrhagic stroke is caused by

A

blood vessel that ruptures and bleeds into the brain tissue. This stroke may present with a severe headache.
SHOW QUESTION

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125
Q

McBurney’s Point

A

1/3 of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. It is the rough location of the appendix in the body.

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126
Q

Syncope

A

Fainting, or a sudden temporary loss of consciousness.

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127
Q

Naloxone is indicated in opiate overdose. This includes

A

heroin, fentanyl, methadone and prescription narcotic medications (e.g. Oxycontin, oxycodone).

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128
Q

Ascites is a build-up of

A

fluid in the abdominal cavity. This may appear as distention or bulging.

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129
Q

Beta blockers (e.g. atenolol, metoprolol)do what

A

Slow heart rate

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130
Q

hyperglycemic patient may have what kind of breathe

A

Fruity smell breath

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131
Q

End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) is

A

failure of the kidneys so that they can no longer remove waste and regulate fluid balance in the body. Patients with ESRD require dialysis.

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132
Q

Left sided heart failure causes

A

Pulmonary edema

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133
Q

Right sided heart failure results in

A

fluid accumulation in the body’s dependent areas (e.g. ankles and abdomen).

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134
Q

Right sided heart failure results in

A

fluid accumulation in the body’s dependent areas (e.g. ankles and abdomen).

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135
Q

Tonic refers to a period of

A

muscle rigidity.

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136
Q

Clonic refers to the

A

violent muscle spasms and jerking or shaking seen in seizures.

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137
Q

Tonic/clonic seizures are a type

A

generalized seizure.

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138
Q

Atelectasis is the collapse of part or all of

A

A lung

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139
Q

If the newborn’s pulse is less than 100 you will provide ventilations at a rate of

A

40 - 60 minute.

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140
Q

You will provide chest compressions at a rate of

A

120/minute if the heart rate is less than 60 per minute.

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141
Q

Polyuria

A

excessive urine production

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142
Q

Polydipsia

A

excessive thirst

143
Q

Polyphagia

A

excessive hunger

144
Q

-paresis

A

Weakness

145
Q

-plegia

A

paralysis

146
Q

Diazepam (Valium) and Rohypnol (flunitrazepam a.k.a. “roofies”) are

A

benzodiazepines. will not be reversed by naloxone.

147
Q

Orthostatic hypotension occurs when a patient moves from a

A

recumbent or sitting position to a standing position.

148
Q

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis are the most common conditions that make up

A

Copd

149
Q

As a result of hypoxia the pulse and respiratory rate will

A

Increase

150
Q

Ventricular fibrillation is a

A

Pulseless , chaotic, disorganized rhythm that does not cause compression of the heart’s chambers.

151
Q

Ventricular tachycardia is a

A

rapid but organized heart rate which prevents the ventricles from filling enough between beats to allow for the blood flow to meet the demands of the body.

152
Q

Atrial fibrillation is when the atria beat in

A

disorganized fashion but a pulse is still present.

153
Q

Emphysema is a disease that dramatically reduces the

A

surface area for gas exchange when the alveolar walls break down and the lungs eventually lose elasticity. This causes air trapping and a barrel chest appearance.

154
Q

Cardiac tamponade also called pericardial tamponade

A

Compression of the heart due to pericardial effusion (the build-up of pericardial fluid in the sac around the heart).[2] Onset may be rapid or gradual.[2] Symptoms typically include those of obstructive shock including shortness of breath, weakness, lightheadedness, and cough

155
Q

Pulmonary edema is often caused by

A

congestive heart failure.

Mild to extreme breathing difficulty can occur. Cough, chest pain, and fatigue are other symptoms.

156
Q

What are the symptoms of pulmonary contusion?

A

Dyspnea (troubled or painful breathing)
• Hypoxemia (deficiency of oxygen in the blood - due to obstructed or malfunctioning lungs)
• Hemoptysis (blood in lungs/expectoration (coughing up) of blood)
• Tachypnea (Rapid, shallow breathing)

157
Q

Pulmonary contusion occurs by

A

rapid deceleration when the moving chest strikes a fixed object

158
Q

“narcotic” simply means

A

Sleep induced

159
Q

Aspirin prevent platelets from

A

(clumping together). Aspirin can prevent heart attacks as well as slow the progression of a heart attack in progress.

160
Q

Pneumothorax is air around or outside

A

lung. It may result from chest trauma, excess pressure on the lungs or a lung disease, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, cystic fibrosis, tuberculosis or whooping

161
Q

The response to a severe allergic reaction includes the signs and symptoms of shock. You will find an what about P and BP

A

increased pulse rate and as the anaphylactic reaction worsens, the blood pressure will decrease.

162
Q

Anemia is an abnormally low

A

Red blood cells

163
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Treats low blood pressure and heart failure

164
Q

ATROPINE (A troe peen) can help treat many conditions. This medicine is used

A

reduce saliva and fluid in the respiratory tract during surgery.

165
Q

Beclomethasone is used to help control the symptoms

A

asthma and improve breathing.

166
Q

Asystole

A

when your heart’s electrical system fails entirely, which causes your heart to stop pumping. It is also known as
“flat-line” or “flat-lining” because of how your heart’s electrical activity appears as a flat line on an electrocardiogram.

167
Q

Taking too little insulin will result in

A

hyperglycemia–not hypoglycemia.

168
Q

tort

A

civil wrongdoing or proceeding (as opposed to criminal

169
Q

jejunum is the middle section of

A

Small intestines

170
Q

mandible.

A

Lower part of jaw

171
Q

maxilla.

A

Upper part of jaw

172
Q

“superior” means

A

Towards head

173
Q

“lateral” is to the side, away from

A

The midline of body

174
Q

“Distal” refers to farther away from the

A

Torso

175
Q

“anterior”

A

Front of body

176
Q

-otomy is a suffix that means to

A

Cut into

177
Q

The venturi mask can deliver a targeted concentration of ?? Used with what ??

A

30% used with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

178
Q

Pulse oximetry readings can be greatly affected when a patient’s extremities are subiect to

A

Cold

179
Q

The AVPU scale

A

(Alert, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive)

180
Q

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale does not include

A

grip strength. It does include checking for arm drift, facial asymmetry and slurred speech.

181
Q

Oxygen saturation readings from 95 - 91 indicate ??Below 91% is considered significant??

A

mild hypoxia. Significant hypoxia

182
Q

crepitation.

A

sound of broken bone ends rubbing together is called

183
Q

In shock the pulse and respirations both

A

Increase This is an attempt to increase cardiac output and maximize the amount of circulating oxygen.

184
Q

Hypovolemia

A

Low blood volume

185
Q

Paradoxical motion occurs when a

A

flail segment of the chest wall moves opposite of the remainder of the chest during breathing.

186
Q

Cardiac tamponade happens when

A

fluid sac around your heart fills with too much blood or other fluid and puts pressure on your heart. This prevents your heart’s chambers from filling properly.

187
Q

In the case of eviscerations, do not attempt to replace organs back inside the body. Instead,

A

cover all exposed abdominal contents with moist, sterile towels and cover with an occlusive dressing. The intestines, liver, spleen, and stomach are commonly involved in eviscerations.

188
Q

A significant sign of a cardiac tamponade is

A

hypotension.
The pulse pressure would narrow, not widen.

189
Q

Rule of 9 for burns
Arms worth for burns
Chest
Ads
Legs

A

9% arm
Chest 9 , abs 9 , each leg 18

190
Q

Hemothorax

A

collection of blood in the space between the chest wall and the lung

191
Q

How does a hemothorax happen?

A

the most common cause of hemothorax is trauma. Penetrating injuries of the lungs, heart, great vessels, or chest wall THINK FILLED WITH BLOOD

192
Q

When air leaks into this space, it’s called a

A

pneumothorax;

193
Q

whereas when blood fills this space, it’s called a

A

hemothorax.

194
Q

The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best. It is composed of three parameters:

A

It is composed of three parameters: best eye response (E), best verbal response (V), and best motor response (M). The components of the GCS should be recorded individually;

195
Q

The appearance of coffee ground-like blood indicates that

A

blood is partially digested.

196
Q

Distributive shock is caused by a loss

A

vascular tone. The blood volume stays relatively consistent

197
Q

three main types of distributive shock are
S, A, N

A

septic shock, anaphylactic shock, and neurogenic shock. Septic shock refers to the condition where an
infection causes the individual’s blood pressure to drop to a dangerously low level.

198
Q

Examples of obstructive shock include

A

acute pericardial tamponade, tension pneumothorax, pulmonary or systemic hypertension, and congenital or acquired outflow obstructions.

199
Q

Tendons connect muscle

A

Bone

200
Q

Ligaments connect bone

A

Bone

201
Q

increase in vascular tone (constricting the vessels) results in an increase in

A

diastolic blood pressure.

202
Q

Insulin is created in the

A

Pancreas

203
Q

Urticaria

A

Hives

204
Q

Types of hallucinations?

A

LSD, mushrooms Peyton, ketamine, dmt

205
Q

DiaphoresiS

A

Sweating

206
Q

Epiglottitis happens when the

A

epiglottis — a small cartilage “lid” that covers the windpipe — swells. The swelling blocks the flow of air into the lungs.

207
Q

An enlargement of the aorta, the main blood vessel that delivers blood to the body, at the level of the abdomen.

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm AAA

208
Q

photophobia

A

abnormal sensitivity to light, especially of the eyes

209
Q

AHA guidelines indicate that a patient found not breathing and without signs of life should first receive a

A

pulse check.
This is the C - A - B approach.

210
Q

Right atrium pumps to the right ventricle via the ?? want kind of blood ?

A

Tricuspid value , deoxygenated blood..

211
Q

Right ventricular pump’s deoxygenated blood through which value to where ?

A

pulmonary semilunar value to the pulmonary arteries (left/right lung) to oxygenate the blood

212
Q

Pulmonary artery means that it’s moving blood

A

Away from
The heart to the lungs

213
Q

From the left lung blood travels back to
The heart by ?

A

Pulmonary veins to the left atrium

214
Q

From
The left atrium blood is going to go through what value to what part of the heart ?

A

Mitral value to the left ventical

215
Q

Left ventricle than passes oxegened blood to what value to where

A

Aortic semilunar value to the aorta

216
Q

What does the aorta do with the oxygenated blood?

A

Pumps it to the body

217
Q

Coronary arteries, bring oxygenated blood to

A

The heart

218
Q

Coronary arteries get blocked what happens

A

Heart attack

219
Q

After the aorta oxygenates, the upper body deoxygenated blood returns to the right atrium via, lower body is the ?

A

Superior vena cava ^
Inferior vena cava, Lower body

220
Q

During, what cellular division of the fetus is most rapid and most susceptible to malformation due to poor maternal habits.

A

the embryonic stage

221
Q

Bulging neck veins is a sign that the heart is not

A

Pumping right

222
Q

Flat veins would be observed in a severe

A

anaphylactic reaction.

223
Q

Pre-eclampsia

A

A potentially dangerous pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure.
Pre-eclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy

224
Q

The pneumatic anti-shock garment (PASG) can be used quickly and effectively to immobilize

A

Pelvis

225
Q

Decreasing blood pressure is a late sign of

A

shock that indicates this patient is decompensating.

226
Q

Rapid pulse and increased respiratory rate are usually an indication that the patient is in what kind of shock

A

compensated shock.

227
Q

Shock from a tension pneumothorax is obstructive in nature. shock is not seen until the heart is ?

A

Is compressed by presser in the plural space

228
Q

According to current American Heart Association standards for ventilation assistance for a patient who is not breathing but still has spontaneous circulation, the appropriate rate of ventilations should be

A

10-12 per min

229
Q

Blood loss is a clear indication for administertion of what ?

A

Oxygen administration

230
Q

Agitated delirium occurs in a small number of patients who exhibit abnormal

A

agitation and combativeness, particularly when being restrained. Respiratory arrest is unusual but can occur.

231
Q

the result of damage to the left side of the heart, blood backs up into the?? This may be auscultated as?

A

Lungs , crackles or rales in the lungs.

232
Q

When the right side of the heart is in failure and not pumping properly, then fluid backs up in

A

abdomen, lower extremities (pedal edema), and lower back (sacral edema).

233
Q

The START Triage System uses the “RPM” mnemonic to help identify the specific assessment parameters used to classify patients. What does that stand for

A

respiratory status, perfusion status, and mental status.

234
Q

Inhalation is accomplished by creating

A

negative pressure in the chest.

235
Q

Exhalation is accomplished by

A

raising internal chest pressures.

236
Q

A myocardial infarction is caused by a

A

blockage in the coronary arteries.

237
Q

pulmonary embolism involved arteries of the

A

Lungs

238
Q

A deep vein thrombosis usually occurs in the

A

veins of the leg.

239
Q

cerebral vascular accident occurs in the arteries of the

A

Brain

240
Q

Alpha 1 and Alpha 2 work in concert with each other to help regulate

A

vascular smooth muscle tone (causing constriction).

241
Q

Neurogenic shock is the result of uncontrolled dilation of

A

blood vessels due to nerve paralysis (sometimes caused by spinal-cord injury). In neurogenic shock, blood pools and blood pressure drops because the affected part of the body can no longer provide vascular resistance.

242
Q

nitroglycerin does what to arteries

A

Dilates

243
Q

A patient on a ventilator should be ventilated immediately, using a

A

Bvm

244
Q

pulmonary embolism causes the flow of blood to the alveoli to be

A

Blocked

245
Q

Lung collapse would indicate a

A

pneumothorax.

246
Q

Ruptured alveoli would indicate traumatic

A

asphyxia.

247
Q

With young children, it is best to assess from the

A

outside and work your way in. In this manner, you can gain trust before violating intimate space.

248
Q

Anaerobic metabolism is caused by a deficit of

A

Oxegan

249
Q

To help assist your paramedic partner when intubating, you may be requested to apply

A

cricoid pressure.

250
Q

The reason for an occlusive dressing is to prevent the movement of

A

air through the wound.

251
Q

Open soft tissue injuries to the thigh, lower abdomen, and face can all be treated with

A

conventional pressure, sterile dressings, and appropriate bandaging.

252
Q

Off-line medical direction is

A

standing orders issued by the medical director that allow EMTs to give certain medications or perform certain procedures.

253
Q

signs of shock ?

A

(rapid pulse, pale, cool skin and significant injury).

254
Q

The most accurate method to determine rate in an irregular pulse is to count it over

A

A full min

255
Q

hemodynamics?

A

relating to the flow of blood within the organs and tissues of the body.

256
Q

most important concern associated with the external facial burns?

A

The potential for upper airway edema

257
Q

child exposed to a deploying airbag is at risk for

A

Head and neck injuries

258
Q

lethargic

A

A state of weariness that involves diminished energy, mental capacity, and motivation.

259
Q

A rotated foot in the context of hip pain typically indicates

A

femur fracture at the level of the hip joint.

260
Q

Increased intrathoracic pressure can limit cardiac

A

filling and decrease cardiac output.

261
Q

The beta-blockers keep pulse rate from

A

Rising

262
Q

High-velocity weapons such as a

A

Rifle cause cavitation

263
Q

low-velocity weapons and do not cause cavitation.

A

Arrows, crossbow bolts, and knives

264
Q

Put a seizure pt in what position

A

Recovery

265
Q

Chemical agents may be used in a liquid state to cause

A

burning and damage to the body,

266
Q

The recommended standard for oxygen flow to a pocket face mask is

A

15 liters

267
Q

JD would be unlikely with

A

internal bleeding or a ruptured spleen.

268
Q

spinal shock typically does not have a what pulse rate

A

Tachycardia

269
Q

when a vascular organ is damaged, there may what kind of pain ?

A

sharp pain but the patient will display signs of internal hemorrhage.

270
Q

Dark-tarry stools, known as

A

“melena”a common finding in a patient with a Gl bleed.

271
Q

hemoptysis is the coughing up of

A

Red blood which usually originates in the respiratory system, not the gastrointestinal system.

272
Q

The primary phase of a blast (also known as the pressure wave), damages hollow gas containing organs of the body such as the

A

lungs, Gl system, inner ears, and sinuses.

273
Q

In many cases a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) will not produce a

A

palpable pulse.

274
Q

Delayed capillary refill is most likely caused by vasoconstriction of

A

peripheral blood vessels.

275
Q

The rule of nines states that a child’s

A

back represents 18% of his body surface area. The front and back of both legs each represent 7%, and both a child’s anterior and posterior torso would represent 36%. The upper back of an adult would represent 9%.

276
Q

slowing respiratory rate in combination with a decline in mental status is an indication of

A

respiratory failure.

277
Q

The first intervention (in all but the cardiac arrest patient) is to

A

secure the airway.

278
Q

An epidural hematoma is nearly always the result of a temporal bone fracture from

A

blow to the side of the head.

279
Q

subdural hematoma usually occurs after

A

falls or injuries involving strong deceleration forces.
They are more common than epidural hematomas and may or may not be associated with skull fractures.

280
Q

If stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system will cause

A

bradycardia and a decreased force of heart contraction.

281
Q

sympathetic nervous system is involved in the fight-or-flight response. If stimulated, the sympathetic nervous system will release epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing

A

constriction of blood vessels; pale, cool, and clammy skin; tachycardia; increased force of heart contraction; hypotension;
bronchodilation; and restlessness or agitation.

282
Q

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients who have a systolic blood pressure below

A

100 mmH, patients with a head injury, patients who have taken erectile dysfunction medications within the previous 48 hours, and patients who have already taken their maximum dose

283
Q

Negligence is the failure to provide

A

care that a person with similar training would provide in the same or a similar situation.

284
Q

unlawful placement of a person in fear of immediate bodily harm is ?

A

Assault

285
Q

unlawful touching of a person, including providing emergency care without
consent.

A

Battery

286
Q

SOAP stands for

A

subjective, objective, assessment, and patient care.

287
Q

An objective statement or finding (sign) can be

A

seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured.

288
Q

Referred pain is perceived at a location

A

other than the site of the painful stimulus/ origin.

289
Q

Vesicular breath sounds are considered

A

normal and do not indicate any form of respiratory inadequacy, distress, or failure.

290
Q

Adventitious breath sounds, nasal flaring, and inadequate chest expansion are all indicators of

A

inadequate breathing.

291
Q

dysphagia?

A

difficulty swallowing or eating, depending on the context.

292
Q

For a responsive infant who is choking, perform the following steps:

A

Hold the infant facedown with the body resting on your forearm, supporting the jaw and face with your hand. Keep the head lower than the rest of the body.
2. Deliver 5 back blows between the shoulder blades, using the heel of your hand.
3. Place your free hand behind the infant’s head and turn the infant face-up on your other arm, keeping the head lower than the rest of the body.
4. Give 5 quick chest thrusts in the same location and manner as the chest compressions; using 2 fingers on the lower part of the sternum.
5. Check the airway- if you can see a foreign body, then remove it. Do not perform blind finger sweeps. If you cannot see the object, repeat the cycle as many times as needed.
6. If the infant becomes unresponsive, begin CPR.

293
Q

Aphasia is

A

loss of the ability to understand or express speech.

294
Q

Agnosia

A

an inability to speak effectively when asked to name or describe an object.

295
Q

Dysarthria

A

difficulty speaking caused by brain damage or brain changes from pathological conditions.

296
Q

Aphagia

A

inability to swallow.

297
Q

the iliac arteries supply blood to

A

groin, pelvis, and legs. As the iliac arteries continue to progress inferiorly, they become the femoral arteries.

298
Q

THREAT Means

A

Threat suppression
• Hemorrhage control
• Rapid Extrication to safety
• Assessment by medical providers
• Transport to definitive care

299
Q

Active rewarming is used for patients with

A

severe hypothermia

300
Q

The symptoms of cardiac tamponade are referred to as Beck’s triad:

A

bilateral distended jugular veins, narrowing pulse pressure (i.e., a small difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure), and muffled heart sounds.
Altered mental status is common.

301
Q

Somnolence

A

(drowsiness) is not a common sign of AMI.

302
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when a pregnant patient

A

lies supine and the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. The blood return to the heart is decreased, resulting in subsequent hypotension. Because of this risk, any patient in the third trimester of pregnancy should be positioned on the left side during transport. The condition can cause pallor, tachycardia, sweating, nausea, and dizziness.

303
Q

Epinephrine via metered-dose inhaler can cause

A

tachycardia, hypertension, and restlessness.

304
Q

Bradypnea is an ominous sign of impending

A

respiratory arrest in a pediatric patient.
Bradycardia also affects pediatric patients with impending cardiopulmonary arrest.
Red flags are respiratory rates below 20
breaths/minute for children younger than 6 years of age and below 12 breaths/minute for older children.

305
Q

Strong central pulses are a good indication that a child is not

A

hypotensive and their blood pressure is adequate.

306
Q

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system will produce

A

constricted blood vessels causing pale, cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; increased force of heart contraction; and bronchodilation).

307
Q

Pulmonary edema is the most common reason for

A

Cpap administration.

308
Q

CpAP is indicated for patients experiencing respiratory distress (e.g., from

A

COPD, asthma, or pneumonia).

309
Q

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), bronchiolitis, and pneumonia are considered high or low respiratory infections

A

Lower airway

310
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a disease that affects the

A

Lower airways and is caused by genetic factors, not an infection.

311
Q

bleeding is dark red and flows steadily from a wound.

A

Venous

312
Q

bleeding is dark red and oozes steadily but slowly from wounds.

A

Capillary

313
Q

The suctioning unit should have at least

A

300 mg

314
Q

the most common sign of cardiac compromise in a geriatric female patient is

A

Weakness

315
Q

JVD is usually a sign of

A

heart failure, which often involves high blood pressure.

316
Q

airway swelling and systemic hypotension is alpha what ??

A

1
2

317
Q

bronchoconstriction affects beta ?

A

2

318
Q

Beta ?? effect of epi causes an increase in cardiac heart rate and force of contraction which may be detrimental should the patient not be oxygenating the myocardium well.

A

1

319
Q

Larynx =

A

Apples apple

320
Q

The most serious complication resulting from a large abrasion is

A

Infections

321
Q

Decreasing blood pressure is a late sign of shock that indicates this patient is

A

Decomposing

322
Q

Rapid pulse and increased respiratory rate are usually an indication that the patient is in what shock

A

Compensate shock

323
Q

Cardiac tissue is perfused by the

A

Coronary arteries

324
Q

The START criteria for non-ambulatory patients assess respiration, pulse, and mental status.
Those who have a respiratory rate of < 10 or > 30, a pulse of > 100, or altered mental status are tagged as

A

Red or immediately

325
Q

The tooth should be rinsed immediately with

A

A lot of water

326
Q

The risk of internal bleeding is much greater with an injury to what kind of organs

A

Solid

327
Q

Tachycardia and normal blood pressure can occur in what shock.

A

psychogenic

328
Q

Bradycardia, hypotension, and possible neck injury are common in what shock.

A

neurogenic

329
Q

what shock may cause itching, a rash, vascular dilation, and/or generalized edema; it can progress rapidly and cause death.

A

Anaphylactic

330
Q

Nitroglycerin is highly beneficial when used for patients with

A

Pulmonary edema

331
Q

hypertensive emergency is defined as systolic blood pressure greater than

A

180 mmhg

332
Q

Cool, clammy skin is a sign of

A

Low blood pressure

333
Q

Cool, moist skin is a sign of

A

Hypoglycemia

334
Q

Whenever there is any kind of fluid (blood, vomit, heavy secretions, etc) in the airway of the spontaneously breathing patient, it will create a what sound ?

A

Gargling

335
Q

What sounds are from severe blockage of the airway at the level of the vocal cords.

A

Stridor

336
Q

What sounds are consistent with the tongue that has fallen into the posterior pharynx and is blocking the airway.

A

sonorous

337
Q

“a reduced amount of blood flow” usually when ischemia develops ?

A

Hypropfusion

338
Q

transient ischemic event symptoms will go away

A

Fast

339
Q

Flushed skin is often an indication of

A

Heat overexposure

340
Q

Heat stock temp and sweating

A

106 or above and stop sweating

341
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate way to remedy a documentation error?

A

Draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial and date the error, and add the correct information

342
Q

The sniffing position indicates that a patient, typically a child, is having

A

Difficulty breathing

343
Q

Unstable angina is often a sign of an impending

A

Heart attack

344
Q

A valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering

A

epiglottis

345
Q

accumulation of sugar in the bloodstream due to a lack of insulin.

A

Hyperglycemia

346
Q

spinal shock typically does not have a pulse rate.

A

tachycardic

347
Q

JVD indicate a

A

tension pneumothorax.

348
Q

A rotated foot in the context of hip pain typically indicates a

A

Femur fracture

349
Q

Posturing would be a sign of

A

Brain injury

350
Q

The beta-blockers keep what from increasing.

A

pulse rate

351
Q

The patient’s altered mental status and inadequate breathing would prevent the use of ?? Go with requiring moving

A

Stair chair, Reeves

352
Q

What causes the flow of blood to the alveoli to be blocked.

A

Pulmonary embolism

353
Q

Placenta previa occurs during the what trimester

A

3

354
Q

What is caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries.

A

myocardial infarction

Emt (9 decks)

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