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Emt Flashcards

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1
Q

Epistaxes

A

Noseblood

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2
Q

Hypoxia

A

Low level of oxygen in blood .

Early signs of hypoxia are anxiety, confusion, and restlessness;

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3
Q

Paradoxical

A

Opposite of what a drug is expected to do

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4
Q

Flail chest

A

Chest wall doesn’t have bony continuity with the rest of rib cage

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5
Q

Pulmonary edema

A

Wet lungs

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6
Q

Pulmonary contusion

A

Bruised lungs

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7
Q

tension pneumothorax

A

occurs when air accumulates between the chest wall and the lung and increases pressure in the chest, reducing the amount of blood returned to the heart.

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8
Q

cerebrovascular accident CVA

A

Stroke

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9
Q

Ventricular tachycardia VTACH

A

Rapid heart beat

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10
Q

Compartment syndrome

A

A painful and dangerous condition caused by pressure buildup from internal bleeding or swelling of tissues.

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11
Q

Hemorrhagic shock

A

a form of hypovolemic shock in which severe blood loss leads to inadequate oxygen delivery at the cellular level.

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12
Q

Evisceration

A

Open abdominal wound were organs are protruding

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13
Q

Apnea

A

Stops breathing during sleep

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14
Q

How long should you scrub your hands b4 washing

A

20 seconds

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15
Q

Solid organs can bleed more than others which are they

A

Splen, liver , diaphragm, kidneys, and pancreas

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16
Q

Deoxygenated blood flows from the body to the right atrium via ?

A

Superior and inferior vena cava

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17
Q

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventrem to the lungs via?

A

Pulmonary arteries

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18
Q

Oxygenated blood returns to the lungs via left ventrium via

A

Pulmonary veins

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19
Q

Oxygenated blood is pumped from the left ventricle to the body via

A

Aorta

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20
Q

Mallory Weiss syndrome

A

Partial tear of esophagus frequently causes upper G.I. bleed

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21
Q

Chokelithiasis

A

Presence of stones in gall bladder

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22
Q

APGAR SCORE is for who and what does it mean

A

Assess status of newborn
A- appearance
P-paluse
G- grimace (irration)
A- muscle tone
R- respiration

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23
Q

Myocardial infarction

A

Heart attack

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24
Q

Plavix pre hospital

A

Blood thinners

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25
Q

Heparin

A

Strong blood thinner used in hospitals

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26
Q

Trachea divides into two main bronchi at the atomomical point known as

A

Carina

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27
Q

Carotic cartilage is a firm Ridge forming the lower part of

A

Larynx

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28
Q

Pharynx is the area between the

A

Mouth and epiglottis

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29
Q

Thin leaf like structure that folds the glottis to prevent ?

A

Food from entering the trachea

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30
Q

Ami

A

Acute myocardial in fracture

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31
Q

Sharp pain that worsens with inspiration

A

Ami

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32
Q

syncopal episode

A

Fainting or passing out

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33
Q

Nuchal cord

A

Belco cord being wrapped around babies head and multiple loops

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34
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Air leaking in the space between the chest and the lungs

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35
Q

How many bones are in a foot?

A

26

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36
Q

Costovertebral Angle tenderness

A

Pain resulting from the 12th rib and spine causing pain in kidney

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37
Q

How often should vital signs be taken on a patient who requires airway mngt

A

5 mins

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38
Q

Stable. Patient should have her vitals checked how often

A

15 minutes

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39
Q

If an acute myocardial fracture is untreated 90% of affected mile cardio in fracture will die within what time frame

A

3-6 hours
Some cells start to die within 30 minutes , after two hours, half the cells die

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40
Q

How long can the brain go without before, receiving in reversible damage

A

4/6 mins

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41
Q

Barotrama

A

Injury to your body because of changes in barometric (air) or water pressure.
Ex. Going up in airplane

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42
Q

Hypercapnia

A

Too much carbon dioxide in your blood

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43
Q

Gastric detention

A

Enlargement of the stomach

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44
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

is a network of nerves that relaxes your body after periods of stress or danger slows the body down and causes bradycardia

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45
Q

Jugular vein, distention

A

Bulging of a major van in the neck key symptom of heart failure

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46
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

Inadequate heart function

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47
Q

Septic shock

A

A widespread infection causing organ failure and dangerously low blood pressure.

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48
Q

Neurological shock

A

Damage to the cervical spine

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49
Q

Naloxone

A

Reverse the effect of opioid overdose

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50
Q

Infant from 1-12 months what is preferred method of defibrillation

A

Manual

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51
Q

3rd part of stage of labor

A

Delivered the placenta

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52
Q

1st stage of labor / 2nd

A

1st - cervix is fully dilated
2nd - delivery of baby

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53
Q

Max dose of nitro

A

3

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54
Q

Early signs of respiratory distress in child

A

Agitation

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55
Q

Respiratory rates :
1-12 monts, toddler 1-3, preschool 4-5,
School aged 6-12,adolescent 12-16

A

Infant 30-60
Toddler24-40
Preschool22-34
School aged 18-30
Adolescent 12-16

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56
Q

Strider

A

High pitch crowning sounds heard during inhalation high in thoat

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57
Q

Rhonchi

A

Low pitch heard during exhale suggest mucus in lungs

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58
Q

Wheezing

A

High pitched whistling sound heard on exhale. Suggesting obstruction or narrowing of lower throat

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59
Q

Crackles

A

Are wet , heard inhale and exhale presence of fluid in lungs

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60
Q

How long after birth will a newborn breath spontaneously

A

15-30 secs

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61
Q

What is unlawfully placing a person in fear of harm

A

Assault

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62
Q

For a Pt. With a stemi AHA MNGT guideline includes ?

A

12 lead ekg in 10 mins
Rapid transport
Begin pci in 90 mins

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63
Q

AMi can be damaged in how many mins

A

Acute myocardial infarction heart can be damage in 30 mins

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64
Q

What is responsible for carrying oxygenated blood away from heart

A

Aorta

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65
Q

What provides oxygenated blood to the heart

A

Coronary arteries they are branches from aorta .

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66
Q

Difference b/tw corotid, cerebral and femoral artery

A

COr- supply blood to head located in neck
Cer-blood to brain in skull
F- supply’s blood to lower extremities in thigh

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67
Q

Kounis syndrome

A

Acute coronary syndrome caused by allergic reaction or a sting immune reaction Chest pain relating to blow blood pressure

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68
Q

Most common antidepressants

A

Prozac, Paxil, Zoloft , celexa

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69
Q

Diff between bag val mask, non rebirther and nasal cannula regarding oxygen to Pt.

A

Bag- 100% 15 lit
Non- 95 10-15 lit
And- 24-44 1-6 lit

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70
Q

Tachycardia

A

Rapid heart beat

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71
Q

Hypotension

A

Low blood pressure

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72
Q

Hemiparesis

A

Unable to move one side of the body

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73
Q

Dysphasia

A

Difficulty swallowing

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74
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Low blood sugar

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75
Q

Size of king lt airway by color

A

Yellow size 3 for 4-5 ft pp
Red size 4 for 5-6ft tall
Purple size 5 for 6+ ft tall
White size 1 for pt. 5-12 kg

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76
Q

Average length of first stage of pregnancy in primigravide Pt.

A

12-18 hours

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77
Q

Ischemia

A

Not enough blood flow to an organ or part of the body exp heart

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78
Q

OPQRST stands for

A

Onset - what we’re you doin when it started

Provocation/palliation- does anything make it worst or better

Quality- what does it feel like

Region/Radiation- where do you feel the pain

Severity- scale of 0-10

Time. When did it start, how long

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79
Q

Death of body tissue is called

A

Infraction

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80
Q

Preeclampsia

A

Condition that occurs in second stage of pregnancy

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81
Q

Start stands for

A

Simple triage rapid transport

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82
Q

Tricuspid value located

A

Between right atrium and the right ventricle

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83
Q

Oxygen tank sizes: D size , jumbo d, e size , m(mm), g size , h,a, m4ps k size

A

D- 350 L
Jumbo- 500
E - 625
M- 3000
G- 5300 l
K- 6900

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84
Q

Hematemesis / Melena , epistaxes , diff

A

Blood in vomit
Blood in stole
Nosebleed

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85
Q

5 common routes of parenteral ( route of entry other than digestive track)

A

Sc/sq-subcutaneous
Ip- intraperitoneal
Iv- intravenous
Id- intradermal
I’m intramuscular

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86
Q

Lobes in lungs

A

3 upper middle lower in right lung
2 in left upper lower

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87
Q

Pericardium

A

Fibrous sac that surrounds heart , if filled with blood /fluid could lead to cardiac tamponade

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88
Q

Average stroke volume for adult

A

70-80 ml

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89
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

Med
For allergic reaction ( beladrill )

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90
Q

Venous bleeding

A

Dark red flows steady from wood

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91
Q

Arterial bleeding

A

Bright red spurts with pt. Pulse

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92
Q

Capillary bleeding

A

Dark red and ozing steady but slow

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93
Q

Hace vs ams vs hape

A

High altitude pulmonary edema -hape
High altitude cerebral- hace
Acute mountain sickness

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94
Q

Spina bifoda

A

A birth defect in which a developing baby’s spinal cord fails to develop properly.

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95
Q

Semptic

A

Respond to infection

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96
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

Build up of plaque due former by cholesterol

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97
Q

Sympathomimetic

A

Epinephrine, albutraal , concaone and methamphetmine

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98
Q

The right ventricle pumps deoxygenating blood to

A

Lungs to be oxidized via pulmonary artery

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99
Q

Oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium via the

A

plumary veins

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100
Q

Oxygenated blood flows form Left atrium to left ventricle through

A

Mitral value

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101
Q

Left ventricle pumps the blood to the body via

A

Aorta

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102
Q

Deoxygenated blood returns form
The body to
The right atrium via

A

Superia and inferior vena carvae

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103
Q

Duo due and mark 1 kits have

A

Atropine , pralidoxime nerve end reversal

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104
Q

3 components of Cushing triad

A

Widening pulse pressure , bradycardia and changes in respiration

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105
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

Cause bradypnea reduce in respiration

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106
Q

Carina

A

Right be the split of the bronchi

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107
Q

vallecula

A

is located between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis and plays a crucial role in the swallowing process and airway management.

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108
Q

Hemorrhagic shock

A

Results from a lot of blood loss ( big trauma)

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109
Q

Compensated shock

A

he initial stage of shock when a series of compensatory mechanisms are able to counter the decrease in tissue perfusion. Damage to the tissues and organs may be reversible and further deterioration can be prevented if shock is addressed during the compensated stage.

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110
Q

Decomposing shock

A

old, clammy extremities; a feeble or absent peripheral pulse; severe tachycardia (or bradycardia in late shock); a PP < 20 mm Hg; or a low systolic blood pressure (SBP) for age.

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111
Q

What is a waybill

A

Carried by conductor of a train use to identify hazM

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112
Q

Heart wall has 3 layers
Epiccardium, myocardium and endocardium

A

Epic- outer
Myo-middle
Endo inner

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113
Q

Avulsion

A

Open injury that separates soft layer of skin

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114
Q

Vagus nerve stimulation

A

Vasovagal esp when you push to hard and you pass out

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115
Q

Thromboembolism

A

Portion of a blood clot that breaks off from original area and occludes a smaller vein

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116
Q

Positive pressure ventilation can result in

A

Decrease blood return to heart ( preload )
Decrease blood pressure

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117
Q

Acute coronary syndrome

A

Any condition brought on by a sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart

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118
Q

Postical state

A

Period following a seizure labeled as labored breathing and altered mental status

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119
Q

What should be met before terminating basic life support CPR on a patient

A

Arrest not witness by EMT, no return of spontaneous circulation (Rsc) no AED shock and reliable criteria, indicating no chance of life

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120
Q

Jaw thrust maneuver is used for

A

Opening airway of trauma patient

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121
Q

cyanotic

A

Blueish color of skin

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122
Q

How many liters does a adult human have in their blood

A

6

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123
Q

APGAR stands for

A

Appearance color of skin
Pulse
Grimace - respond to stimuli
Activity resistance to hip /knee strengthening

Respiration

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124
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Organophosphate poisoning ( Bradycardia is a sigh)

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125
Q

Ecchymosis

A

Buildup of blood in dermis

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126
Q

Hemodialysis

A

is a treatment to filter wastes and water from your blood, as your kidneys did when they were healthy.

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127
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

occurs when low carbon dioxide levels disrupt your blood’s acid-base balance.

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128
Q

Pelvic binder

A

Temporary stabilize and reduce internal bleeding

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129
Q

How much blood could be lost to a internal bleeeding secondary to the closed femoral shaft fracture

A

500-1000 ml
.5-1 liter

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130
Q

When the right ventricle contracts how does the blood go

A

To lungs via pulmonary arteries

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131
Q

Pleural effusion

A

Collection of fluid outside the lungs or both side of chest infection, pulmonary embolism, heart failure and cancer can lead to it

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132
Q

Describe type one diabetes

A

Production of antibodies to pancreatic beta cells

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133
Q

The trachea is what part of the airway

A

Lower

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134
Q

Traction splint don’t work with

A

Upper extremities, pelvic, knees, lower foot or ankle or amputation

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135
Q

Dyspnea

A

Shortness of breathe

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136
Q

Providing emergency care without consent is considered

A

Battery

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137
Q

Tertiary blast injury

A

Being herld into a stationary object

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138
Q

What factors should be assessed when’s splinting ?

A

Pause motor functions sensation

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139
Q

Occlusive dressing do you what and are for

A

Help prevent Aaron liquid from entering or exiting the wound. Typically used for open wounds , abdominals eviscetions,back wounds and neck wounds

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140
Q

Trauma lethal triad

A

Hypothermia, acidosis coagulopathy these are considered major indicators of death for people with severe traumatic, bleeding

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141
Q

Proximal versus distal

A

P - above wound
D- below

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142
Q

Which chamber of the heart pumps blood directly to the body

A

Left ventricle

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143
Q

Soils organs

A

Spleen, liver , pancreas and kidney

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144
Q

Hollow organs

A

Stomach , gallbladder, duodenum, large intestines, small and bladder

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145
Q

Pre-eclampsia

A

usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in a woman whose blood pressure had been normal. It can lead to serious, even fatal, complications for both mother and baby

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146
Q

Rices means

A

Rest , ice , elevation and splinting

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147
Q

sphyg·mo·ma·nom·e·ter

And how is it used right

A

Blood pressure cuff ; 1-1.5 spanning 2-3 the length of armpit to elbow

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148
Q

Gastrointestinal hemorrhage may cause ?

A

Dark color stool , common occurs due to upper gi bleed

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149
Q

Body regions

A

Pg. 108

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150
Q

Ligaments

A

Tissue that connects bone to bone

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151
Q

Tissue that connects muscle to bone

A

Tendons

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152
Q

Top back and side of skull

A

Cranium

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153
Q

Wing shaped plate of cartilage that sits anterior to the larynx and forms apple apple

A

Thyroid

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154
Q

Bones joints and muscle is what system

A

Musculoskeletal

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155
Q

Nasal cavity , pharynx, larynx,trachea , bronchial tubes and lungs which system

A

Respiratory

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156
Q

Heart arties and veins which system

A

Cardiovascular

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157
Q

Tonsils, thymus gland , spleen, lymph nodes and lymphatic vessels which system

A

Lymphatic

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158
Q

Brain , spinal cord and nerves which system

A

Nervous

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159
Q

Oral cavity , pharynx, esophagus, stomach , small/large intestine, liver , gallbladder and pancreas are part of what system ?

A

Digestive system

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160
Q

Skin, hair , nails sweat glands which system

A

Integumentary

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161
Q

Pituitary, pineal, thyroid, parathyroid, thymus, andrenal glands , pancreas, testes and ovaries which system

A

Endocrine

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162
Q

Kidneys, ureter , urinary bladder urethra

A

Renal /urinary

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163
Q

Mandible

A

Lower jawbone

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164
Q

Maxillae

A

2 fused bones forming the upper jaw

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165
Q

Orbits

A

Eye socket

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166
Q

Zygomatic

A

Cheeks bones

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167
Q

Vertebrae

A

33 bones of spinal column

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168
Q

Thorax

A

Chest

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169
Q

Sternum

A

Breast bone

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170
Q

Xiphoid

A

Inferior portion of sternum

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171
Q

Pelvis

A

Basin shaped bony structures that supports the spine

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172
Q

Femur

A

Large bone of thigh

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173
Q

Patella

A

Kneecap

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174
Q

Tibia

A

Medial /large bone of lower leg

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175
Q

Fibula

A

Smaller lateral bone in lower leg

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176
Q

Tarsals

A

Ankle bones

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177
Q

Calcaneus

A

Heel bone

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178
Q

Phalanges

A

Toe /finger bones

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179
Q

Scapula

A

Shoulder blade

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180
Q

Ulna

A

Medial bone of forearm

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181
Q

Automaticity

A

Ability of heart to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own

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182
Q

Larynx

A

Voice boxs

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183
Q

Cricoid

A

Ring shaped structure that forms lower portion of larynx

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184
Q

Trachea

A

Windpipe

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185
Q

Bronchi

A

2 large sets of branches that come off the trachea and enter the lungs . There is a right and left

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186
Q

Plasma

A

fluid portion of blood

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187
Q

Red blood cells

A

Carry oxygen to and carbon dioxide away from cells

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188
Q

White blood cells

A

Help body fight infection

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189
Q

Venule

A

Smallest part of vein

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190
Q

Arteriole

A

Smallest kind of artery

191
Q

Posterior tibial artery

A

Artery supplying foot, behind the medial ankle

192
Q

Dorsalis pedis

A

Artery supplying foot , lateral to large tendon to bud toe

193
Q

Pulmonary vein

A

Vessel thst carry oxygenated blood from lung to the left atrium of the heart

194
Q

Diastolic vs systolic

A

D- pressure in arteries when left ventricle is refilling
S- Arteries pushing blood out into circulation

195
Q

Central pulses

A

Carotid , femoral ,

196
Q

Peripheral pulses

A

Radical , brachial, posterior , tibial, and dorsalsis pedis pulses

197
Q

Hypo perfusion

A

Inability of the body to adequately circulate blood .. shock

198
Q

Aerobic metabolism / anaerobic

A

Cellular process in which oxygen is used to metabolize glucose..

Anaerobic- glucose is metabolized into energy w/o oxygen

199
Q

Cardiac output

A

Amount of blood ejected from heart in 1 min

200
Q

Stoke volume

A

Amount of blood ejected from the heart in 1 contraction

201
Q

Diaphoresis

A

Sweating , cool , pale and moist skin

202
Q

Perfusion

A

he passage of blood, a blood substitute, or other fluid through the blood vessels or other natural channels in an organ or tissue.

203
Q

Edema

A

Swelling associated with movement of the water into the interstitial space

204
Q

Cystic

A

Unitary track infection of bladder

205
Q

Kyphosis

A

Forward curling of the back

206
Q

Renal calculi

A

Kidney stones

207
Q

Meconium

A

Fetal stool appearing as green fluid during a ruptured amnioc sack

208
Q

Nuchal cord

A

Umbilical cord

209
Q

Preeclampsia

A

Possible complications during pregnancy, appears at week 20

210
Q

Ecalmpia

A

Onset seizures due to hypertension

211
Q

Amniotic sac

A

Can rupture at beginning of labor

212
Q

Correct way to perform head tilt: chin lift on Pt. With no spinal trauma

A

Heel of hand on forehead with pressure, fingertips upper lower jaw and lift chin up

213
Q

Coagulpathies

A

When clotting is deficient or inexzitant

214
Q

Primary injuries occur regard car accident

A

Impact of a blast wave

215
Q

Secondary injuries occur form 2 sources

A

Fragmentation or shrapnel

216
Q

Tertiary injures result form

A

Being thrown into a blast wave

217
Q

Quarternary injuries

A

Long term damage form biological or radiological material

218
Q

APGAR score

A

Appearance , pulse grimace, activity and respiration

219
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

A group of disorders that cause red blood cells to become misshapen and break down.
With sickle cell disease, an inherited group of disorders, red blood cells contort into a sickle shape. The cells die early, leaving a shortage of healthy red blood cells (sickle cell anemia), and can block blood flow causing pain (sickle cell crisis).

220
Q

Pulmonary embolism

A

caused by a blocked artery in the lungs. The most common cause of such a blockage is a blood clot that forms in a deep vein in the leg and travels to the lungs, where it gets lodged in a smaller lung artery. Almost all blood clots that cause pulmonary embolism are formed in the deep leg veins.

221
Q

Renal system consist of 5 things which are

A

2 kidneys , 2 ureters, 1 urethra

222
Q

Deep vein thrombosis

A

A blood clot in a deep vein, usually in the legs.
This condition is serious because blood clots can loosen and lodge in the lungs.

223
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

Buildup of cholesterol into plaque on the inside of the walls of blood vessels

224
Q

Hemophilia

A

A disorder in which blood doesn’t clot normally.
When blood can’t clot properly, excessive bleeding (external and internal) occurs after any injury or damage.

225
Q

Oxygen saturation levels recommend by American heart association
Acs-
Stoke
Post cardiac. Arrest Pt.

A

90
95-98
92-98

226
Q

AED WILL SHOKE PP With ?

A

VTACH and vfib

227
Q

Ventricular tachycardia

A

condition in which the lower chambers of the heart (ventricles) beat very quickly.
Ventricular tachycardia occurs due to a problem with the heart’s electrical impulses. The condition may develop as a complication of a heart attack or may occur in people with certain conditions, such as valvular heart disease.

228
Q

Ventricular fibrillation

A

life-threatening heart rhythm that results in a rapid, inadequate heartbeat.
Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a rapid, life-threatening heart rhythm starting in the bottom chambers of the heart. It can be triggered by a heart attack.

229
Q

Rule of 9 is what.

A

Method to assess body surface area has been burned. Only applies to second and third degree burns
9% for head , each arm
18% for chest and back each leg
1% for privets
Kids
18 for head back and chest
9- arms ,
13.5 each leg
1 for private

230
Q

Cardiac output formula

A

Amount of blood pumped to heart in 1 minutes, found by multiple stroke per minute by heart rate (in beats per min)

231
Q

Early signs of hypoxia

A

Restlessly, irritated, apprehensive, tachycardia anxiety

232
Q

What bones forms lower leg

A

Tibia , fibula

233
Q

The appropriate side blood pressure cliff will wrap around the arm how much

A

1-1.5 x and span 2/3 the lengths of the armpit to elbow

234
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

A serious diabetes complication where the body produces excess blood acids (ketones).
This condition occurs when there isn’t enough insulin in the body. It can be triggered by infection or other illness.

235
Q

Hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar non-ketotic syndrome (HHNS) is

A

a dangerous condition resulting from very high blood glucose levels. HHNS can affect both types of diabetics, yet it usually occurs amongst people with type 2 diabetes.

236
Q

2 types of nerves in the peripheral nervous system

A

Autonomic: These are nervous system processes your brain runs automatically and without you thinking about them.
Somatic: These are functions you manage by thinking about them.

237
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

(fight or flight )

238
Q

Sympathetic nervous system causes ?

A

Tachycardia if simlulated

239
Q

What is trending ?

A

Comparison of previous and current vital s

240
Q

Assessing pulse should take no longer than

A

10 second

241
Q

Ventricle tachycardia

A

Rapid heart rhythm usually 150-200beats per min

242
Q

Anatomical location of carotid cartilage

A

Inferior to thyroid cartilage, lowest portion of larynx

243
Q

Epidermis

A

Skin

244
Q

Dermis

A

Deeper level of skin

245
Q

Narrowest part of if airway in chiller younger than 8

A

Cricoid ring

246
Q

vas·o·di·la·tion

A

the dilatation of blood vessels, which decreases blood pressure

247
Q

Anticoagulant

A

e medicines that help prevent blood clots

248
Q

Platelet aggregation inhibitors

A

work in different places of the clotting cascade and prevent platelet adhesion, therefore no clot formation. Aspirin, the most commonly used antiplatelet drug

249
Q

Csm ( treating abrasion and lacerations)

A

Circulation sensory motor fucntions

250
Q

Indictors of return of spontaneous circulation (rosc ) in adult pt

A

moving, coughing, or breathing, along with signs of a palpable pulse or a measurable blood pressure.

251
Q

PetCO2

A

PetCO2 value represents a reliable index of CO2 partial pressure in the arterial blood (PaCO2) (measured using blood gas analysis (BGA))

252
Q

Purpose of lung surfactant

A

Reduces surface tension of alveoli

253
Q

Subdural hemotoma occur

A

Sudden acceleration/deceleration accident . Tearing of bridging vein of dura

254
Q

Epidural hemotoma

A

Collection of blood in the space between skull and dura

255
Q

Basiliar skull

A

High energy and occurs following a diffused impact

256
Q

Sinoatrial node (sa) is

A

Responsible for eletric impulses of a normal healthy heart

257
Q

What types of hepatitis can be transmitted by blood or sex

A

C, b, d,
A - transmitted by fecal oral route

258
Q

What is not seen in new onset type 1 diabetes?

A

Polypharmacy

259
Q

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is ?

A

An autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are created against pancreatic beta cells

260
Q

Polypharmacy is ?

A

Use of multiple medications by Pt.

261
Q

Proximal means

A

Above the wound

262
Q

Stable angina pectoris

A

Cardia chest pain stabilized by rest, oxygen or nitro

263
Q

Acute myocardial infarction AMI

A

Death of heart muscles cells

264
Q

Pulmonary embolism

A

Blockage of an Artery in the lungs typically by a clot develops is leg or pelvis

265
Q

The AHA’s “ H’s and T’s “ what’s included

A

Toxins , hypovolemia , hypoxia

266
Q

Appropriate tidal volume that should be administered to an adult

A

500ml

267
Q

Meds for seizures?

A

Phenytoin (Dilantin), carbamazepine (Tegretol), valproic acid (Depakene), levetiracetam (Keppra), and topiramate (Topamax) are common anticonvulsant medications.

268
Q

Donepezil (Aricept) is prescribed for

A

management of dementia and is not an anticonvulsant.

269
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin) is used to

A

treat or prevent blood clots in veins or arteries, which can reduce the risk of stroke, heart attack,

270
Q

Sympathomimetics are

A

central nervous system stimulants that mimic the effects of the sympathetic (fight or flight) nervous system.
Examples include cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), methamphetamine, and caffeine.

271
Q

Heroin, fentanyl, and Oxycodone are

A

Opioid

272
Q

An electrocardiogram is a form of

A

cardiac monitoring that can be used in the prehospital setting.

273
Q

There are four limb electrodes: white,black, green red where do they go

A

white (placed on the right arm), black (placed on the left arm), green (placed on the right leg or lower right abdomen), and red (placed on the left leg or lower left abdomen).

274
Q

The remaining leads are listed below with their respective placement V1-6

A

:
• V1: fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
• V2: fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
• V3: between V2 and V4 (between the fifth and sixth ribs)
• V4: fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line
• V5: fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
• V6: fifth intercostal space (V4, V5, and V6 are all on the same horizontal level) on the midaxillary line

275
Q

Hepatitis

A

(inflammation of the liver) or liver insult/injury will most commonly cause right upper quadrant pain and jaundice (yellowing of the skin and sclera). Liver insult may be caused by gallstones/gallbladder insult, viral hepatitis, or drug or alcohol use.

276
Q

Chronic renal failure can cause

A

lethargy, nausea, headaches, cramps, and extremity edema if untreated. It can progress to seizures or coma in later stages.

277
Q

Pancreatitis, which may also be caused by gallstones, is an inflammation of

A

pancreas.

278
Q

Pneumonia typically involves a

A

cough, fevers, and dyspnea and occasionally causes pain that radiates to the upper abdomen.

279
Q

does not cause cyanosis?

A

Anemia is a lack of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood. A patient with anemia may appear weak and fatigued and have pale skin.

280
Q

cause cyanosis.

A

Chronic bronchitis, hypothermia, and hypoxia

281
Q

What are the components of the perfusion triangle?

A

Blood vessels, heart and blood

282
Q

Cullen sign is bruising around

A

the umbilicus (periumbilical ecchymosis) and indicates intraperitoneal hemorrhage.

283
Q

Grey-Turner sign is

A

bruising along the sides of the abdomen (flank ecchymosis) and indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

284
Q

Murphy’s sign is pain

A

just below the right costal margin on inspiration with palpation and is indicative of cholecystitis.

285
Q

Kehr’s sign is pain

A

in the tip of the shoulder due to the presence of blood or other irritants in the peritoneal cavity when a person is lying down and the legs are elevated.

286
Q

Kehr’s sign in the left shoulder is

A

classic symptom of a ruptured spleen.

287
Q

For most adults, at what level must a patient’s systolic blood pressure be in order to demonstrate a palpable radial pulse?

A

90 mm hg

288
Q

Abruptio placentae may result

A

Shock

289
Q

Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of

A

placenta from the uterine wall.

290
Q

Placenta previa is when the placenta covers the

A

cervical opening. Patients may experience heavy vaginal bleeding, often without pain.

291
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when

A

pregnant patient lies supine and the uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. The blood returning to the heart is decreased, resulting in hypotension in the mother. Because of this risk, any patient in the third trimester of pregnancy should be positioned on her left side during transport.

292
Q

Which of the following is a late sign of respiratory distress for an adult patient?

A

Bradycardia

293
Q

Early signs of respiratory distress for an adult patient may include the

A

tripod position, tachypnea, and retractions.

294
Q

As respiratory distress continues and the patient becomes tired from the effort of

A

breathing, hypoxia, bradypnea, bradycardia, and an altered level of consciousness can occur. In severe respiratory distress, wheezing can be audible.

295
Q

Vesicular breath sounds are

A

normal breath sounds.

296
Q

The patient is hyperventilating, likely due to

A

metabolic acidosis.

297
Q

Kussmaul respirations

A

(deep, rapid respirations) often manifest in patients with metabolic acidosis due to hyperglycemia (diabetic ketoacidosis).

298
Q

Hyperventilation occurs as an attempt by the body to reduce

A

acidity by releasing more carbon dioxide (i.e., decreasing carbon dioxide levels within the body).

299
Q

Kussmaul respirations do not affect

A

blood glucose levels and are a response to correct acidic conditions.

300
Q

As waveform capnography becomes available, what should be the target end-tidal carbon dioxide level during hyperventilation?

A

30-35 mm Hg

301
Q

appropriate methods for opening an airway in a prehospital setting are

A

head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver and the jaw-thrust maneuver.

If trauma is suspected, the jaw-thrust maneuver is the most appropriate method to open an airway. Do not modify the head-tilt/chin-lift method unless necessary.

302
Q

The sniffing position is when a patient spontaneously

A

flexes their neck forward and extends their head up and back in order to open a partially obstructed upper airway.

303
Q

an uninjured limb of a pediatric patient, capillary refill time may indicate

A

Perfusion(poor pass of blood )

304
Q

Hands-on cardiovascular assessment involves evaluating

A

skin signs.

305
Q

Cool proximal extremities reflect poor

A

perfusion and shunting of blood to the core.

306
Q

Capillary refill time (CRT) in a pediatric patient is determined by

A

pressing firmly on the skin (e.g., thigh). CRT should be under 2-3 seconds in a child who is not cold.

307
Q

Hypoglycemia frequently causes what to skin.??

A

clammy skin.

308
Q

There are five commonly used routes of parenteral which r

A

subcutaneous (SC/SQ), intraperitoneal (IP), intravenous (IV), intradermal (ID), and intramuscular (IM).

309
Q

Intracranial Pressure (ICP) rises with the

A

accumulation of blood within the skull or swelling of the brain. As ICP increases, blood pressure must also rise; otherwise, cerebral ischemia will result. Prompt recognition of ICP is critical.

310
Q

Irregular breathing (e.g., Cheyne-Stokes), bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, headaches, nausea, vomiting, altered mental status, sluggish or absent pupillary response, and decerebrate posturing are all indications of

A

Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)

311
Q

Cushing’s triad

A

Cushing’s triad refers to a set of signs that are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), or increased pressure in the brain. Cushing’s triad consists of bradycardia (also known as a low heart rate), irregular respirations, and a widened pulse pressure.

312
Q

Epiglottitis is a life-threatening

A

A potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when the tissue protecting the windpipe becomes inflamed.
Epiglottitis is commonly caused by an infection. The resulting inflammation causes swelling, which blocks air to the lungs

313
Q

Epiglottitis is more common in

A

Infants and children than adults

314
Q

A patient has had skin contact with a poison.
For how long should their skin be flooded with water?

A

15-20 minutes

315
Q

The left upper quadrant contains the

A

stomach, spleen, and a portion of the pancreas.

316
Q

right upper quadrant contains

A

liver, gallbladder, duodenum of the small intestine, and a portion of the pancreas.

317
Q

The left lower quadrant contains

A

large and small intestines.

318
Q

Of the large intestines, the left lower quadrant contains

A

descending and left half of the transverse colon.

319
Q

right lower quadrant contains the large and small

A

intestines.

320
Q

the large intestines, the right lower quadrant contains the ascending

A

Colon

321
Q

Which of the following arteries indicate central pulses?

A

Carotid and femoral arteries

322
Q

Inhalation medications used for acute exacerbations of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease include

A

albuterol, ipratropium bromide, levalbuterol, and metaproterenol sulfate. Xopenex is a trade name for levalbuterol. These medications may also be used for bronchitis.

323
Q

Inhalation medications used for chronic asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (not acute asthma exacerbations) include

A

beclomethasone, cromolyn, fluticasone, montelukast, and salmeterol. Salmeterol may also be used for bronchitis.

324
Q

Dependent lividity is when blood settles at the

A

lowest point of the body; this causes a discoloration of the skin at that point. This is a definitive sign of death.

325
Q

Putrefaction is the decomposition

A

of body tissues, which can occur between 40 and 96 hours after death.

326
Q

Cyanosis is

A

blue coloring of skin, lips, mucous membranes, or nail beds. This is a sign of low levels of oxygen in the blood. If it is severe, cyanosis can also be a sign of death.

327
Q

Sunken fontanelle

A

Severe dehydration in infants creates very dry gums/lips, sunken eyes, loose skin without elasticity, a sunken fontanelle, lethargy, irritability, and/or a refusal of bottles.

328
Q

Arterial Gas Embolism (AGE), decompression sickness (the “bends”), and descent pains (the
“squeeze”) are conditions that may be caused by

A

Scuba diving

329
Q

The most widely used water-rescue model consists of RTRG

A

reach, throw, row, go.

330
Q

Preload is the stretch of

A

ventricular myocardial tissue just prior to the next contraction.
:

331
Q

cardiac preload is determined by

A

end-diastolic volume (EDV). When venous return increases, EDV increases and stretches the ventricular muscle fibers, increasing tension on the heart.

332
Q

Afterload is the force that

A

resists the work of the heart during contraction.

333
Q

Arterial (aortic) pressure is the major component of

A

Afterload

334
Q

Contractility is a measure of

A

contractability, the intrinsic ability of cardiac muscle to develop force at a given muscle length.

335
Q

Systolic blood pressure is the pressure that blood exerts against

A

walls of arteries

336
Q

Generally, if a patient has a palpable radial pulse, their systolic blood pressure will be at least

A

90 mm hg

337
Q

If a patient has a palpable femoral pulse, the systolic blood pressure will be at least

A

80 mm hg

338
Q

If a patient has a palpable carotid pulse, the systolic blood pressure will be at least

A

70 mm hg

339
Q

Which of the following joints can EMS professionals attempt to reduce in a prehospital setting (if protocol or medical control allows?

A

Shoulder knee wrist

340
Q

is not a cause of hypovolemic shock?

A

Severe infection

341
Q

Hypovolemic shock occurs in response to

A

inadequate fluid volume in the circulatory system.

342
Q

Common causes of hypovolemic shock are

A

bleeding (hemorrhagic shock) and dehydration (e.g., from inadequate fluid intake, diarrhea, and/or vomiting).

343
Q

Severe infections are a common cause of

A

septic shock, which is a type of distributive shock involving widespread dilation of small arterioles and/or venules, causing decreased tissue perfusion.

344
Q

Pelvic fractures can be

A

vertical shear, open-book, or straddle fractures based on the mechanism of injury and characteristics of the fracture.

345
Q

mid-shaft fracture would involve

A

long bone such as a femur, not the pelvis.

346
Q

erythrocytes

A

Red blood cells

347
Q

leukocytes

A

White blood cells

348
Q

Blood is made up of four components:

A

erythrocytes (Red blood cells)
• leukocytes (White blood cells)
• platelets
• plasma

349
Q

Bile is produced in the

A

liver and stored in the gallbladder. It is used in the digestion of food and is not a component of blood.

350
Q

ideal position in which to place a child’s head for the delivery of adequate ventilation?

A

A neutral sniffing position to achieve two goals: keeping the trachea straight and maintaining

351
Q

Dermatomes are areas of skin that

A

area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve.

352
Q

T10

A

umbilicus

353
Q

should be asked to help assess for possible spinal injuries?

A

“Can you squeeze my hands?”

354
Q

What kind of shock causes tachycardia?

A

Decompensated shock

355
Q

Crepitus is a sign of a

A

fracture, not a sprain.

356
Q

Passive rewarming is an appropriate first step when dealing with a patient who has mild

A

hypothermia.

357
Q

Active rewarming is used for patients with

A

severe hypothermia and is performed by ALS providers, with constant temperature monitoring.

358
Q

cardiac muscle cells have a unique characteristic that is not found in any other types of muscle cells.
What is this unique characteristic called?

A

Automaticity

359
Q

What is the preferred method to immobilize the patient’s hip for transport?

A

Use a scoop stretcher with pillows

360
Q

What causes migraines?

A

Changes in blood vessel size at the base of the brain

361
Q

How does deoxygenated blood from the body enter the right atrium of the heart?

A

Through the vena cava

362
Q

Crush syndrome can develop when an area of the body is trapped for some time, compromising arterial blood flow. How long does the area of the body need to be trapped for crush syndrome to develop?

A

Longer than 4 hours

363
Q

Seizures are caused by a neurologic episode caused by a surge of electrical activity in the brain and are classified into two basic groups. What are the two basic groups?

A

Partial, Generalized

364
Q

What is the maximum time you can suction before oxygenating the patient?

A

10 seconds

365
Q

law principle allows EMTs to treat a patient with an altered level of consciousness during an emergency?

A

emergency doctrine

366
Q

AVPU scale is used to test a patient’s responsiveness. AVPU stands for the following:

A

• A- Awake and alert. The patient opens their eyes spontaneously as you approach and can follow commands.
• V- Responsive to verbal stimuli. The patient is not alert and awake, but they respond to verbal stimuli when you speak to them.
• P- Responsive to pain. The patient is not responsive to verbal stimuli, but they move or cry out in response to a painful stimulus.
• U-Unresponsive. The patient does not respond to verbal or painful stimuli.
Typically, an unresponsive patient will have no gag reflex and need assistance maintaining their airway.

367
Q

AEIOU-TIPS

A

covers a variety of conditions that can lead to a patient having an altered mental status but is not used to determine a patient’s responsiveness.

368
Q

SAMPLE

A

the acronym used to remember what important information you need to gather from the patient while assessing them.

369
Q

DCAP-BTLS

A

used to remind EMTs of what abnormalities and deformities to look for when inspecting and palpating the body during an exam.

370
Q

GEMS diamond was created to help EMTs remember what is different about older patients. What does it stand for ?

A

environmental assessment.

medical assessment.
It is important to obtain a complete medical history as older patients

social assessment. Older patients might have a smaller social network and may need assistance with daily living needs, such as eating, bathing, and dressing.

371
Q

What does the pulse oximeter measure?

A

The percentage of hemoglobin saturation

372
Q

The recovery position

A

(lying on the side) is used to help maintain a patent airway in patients who are unconscious, uninjured, and who are breathing on their own.

373
Q

The Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (OSHA) requires employers to provide personal protective equipment
(PPE) and what else for EMS personnel?

A

Immunization

374
Q

When a patient receives injuries from a primary blast (explosion), which organs are most susceptible to damage from pressure changes?

A

Kidney , heart lung

375
Q

During their careers, EMTs will typically see a written document called an advance directive. Which are examples of an advance directive?

A

Do not revive , do not resuscitate, do not render care

376
Q

Who develops local EMS protocols and provides daily oversight and support to EMS personnel?

A

The medical director

377
Q

When a patient has an ischemic stroke, how soon does the drug tissue plasminogen activator (PA) need to be given to increase their chances of reversing the symptoms?

A

Within the first few hours

378
Q

Assess pupillary response a rapid exam should take ?

A

60-90 seconds

379
Q

DCAP-BTLS stands for ?

A

deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, and swelling.

380
Q

Capillary sphincters are

A

circular, muscular walls that constrict and dilate to regulate the blood flow through capillary beds.

381
Q

The tunica media contains ?

A

the smooth muscles in the middle layer of the artery. They can contract or dilate to regulate blood flow through the artery and to subsequent capillary beds

382
Q

Arterioles are the smallest branches of

A

artery and only exist to connect blood flow from arteries to capillaries;

383
Q

Arteriovenous shunts allow a

A

bypass of blood past a capillary bed, if a backup of cells happens prior to the capillary.

384
Q

Circumoral cyanosis

A

Only when mouth or lips turn blue.

385
Q

Which of the following is the MOST common route of entry of toxic substances into the body?

A

Ingestion

386
Q

nephrolithiasis

A

Kidney stones

387
Q

good way to explain what sickle-cell anemia is, would be to state it is an abnormal:

A

Hemoglobin in red blood cells.

388
Q

Pain associated with peritoneal irritation will typically be described by the patient as which of the following?

A

Somatic/parietal-sharp, easily localized pain.

389
Q

Which of the following methods of entry of allergens into a patient will more likely result in anaphylaxis than the other methods of entry?

A

Injection

390
Q

Renal calculi.

A

It’s a kidey stone .. common cause of blood in the urine (hematuria) and pain in the abdomen, flank, or groin

391
Q

Where is the typical injection site for an adult epinephrine auto-injector?

A

On the lateral aspect of the thigh midway between the knee and waist.

392
Q

Scleral icterus.

A

yellowing of the eyes seen in severe cases of hepatitis?

393
Q

common name for a contusion?

A

Bruise

394
Q

epidural hematoma

A

occurs when blood accumulates between the skull and the dura mater, the thick membrane covering the brain. They typically occur when a skull fracture tears an underlying blood vessel. EDHs are about half as common as a subdural hematomas and usually occur in young adults.

395
Q

subdural hematoma usually occurs after

A

falls or injuries involving strong deceleration forces.

396
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage is the accumulation

A

Blood within skill

397
Q

The acceptable practice of care for a given situation if someone of equal training was to face the same situation

A

Standard of care

398
Q

The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of a

A

TRAMA Pt.

399
Q

The head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver is reserved for

A

Non TRAMA

400
Q

Abruptio placenta is the premature separation of

A

placenta from the uterine wall. The most common causes are hypertension and trauma.

401
Q

A primary brain injury is an injury to

A

brain and its structures associated with the brain that is a result of an impact to the head.

402
Q

secondary brain injury refers to

A

processes that increase the severity of the primary injury and negatively impact the outcome. caused by intracranial hemorrhage, cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, infection, and cerebral ischemia.
However, the two most common causes of a secondary injury are hypotension and hypoxia.

403
Q

What percentage of the vital capacity do older adults over 75 years of age have compared to young adults?

A

50%

404
Q

GEMS diamond

A

geriatric patients.

environmental assessment.

medical assessment.

social assessment.

405
Q

Which types of shock are related to pump failure?

A

Cardiogenic shock and obstructive shock are related to pump failure.

406
Q

Cardiogenic shock is caused by

A

inadequate functioning of the heart or pump failure.

407
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

develops when the heart cannot maintain sufficient cardiac output to meet the body’s needs.

408
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

inadequate amount of fluid or volume in the circulatory system.

409
Q

Distributive shock occurs when

A

widespread dilation of the small arterioles, small venules, or both.

410
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

When a person has a blow to the face or head, it may cause a concussion of the brain, which is known as a mild traumatic brain injury.

411
Q

The principle of law that allows EMTs to treat a patient with an altered level of consciousness during an emergency is called the

A

The emergency doctrine

412
Q

An advance directive is

A

legal document that a patient and their doctor sign, which specifies the patient’s healthcare wishes if they become incapacitated and cannot make decisions for themselves.

413
Q

Expressed consent is

A

verbal consent granted by an alert and oriented patient to treat and transport them if necessary.

414
Q

Fixed suction units should generate an airflow of more than 40L/min and a vacuum of more than

A

300 mm hg

415
Q

When ventilating apneic patients with a pulse, the goal is to mimic their normal respiratory rate. For adults, the ventilation rate is

A

1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds, and for children and infants, 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds.

416
Q

urticaria,

A

Hives

417
Q

Anarthria

A

severe form of motor speech disorder,

418
Q

Hematuria refers to

A

blood in the urine,

419
Q

What organ located in the stomach does not aid in digestion?

A

Spleen

420
Q

Patients who have had a coronary artery bypass graft will have a long surgical scar on their

A

Chest

421
Q

The AVPU scale is used to test a patient’s

A

responsiveness.

Awake and alert
V-respon to verbal stimuli
P - response to pain
U - unresponsive

422
Q

AEIOU-TIPS covers

A

variety of conditions that can lead to a patient having an altered mental status but is not used to determine a patient’s responsiveness.

423
Q

SAMPLE

A

acronym used to remember what important information you need to gather from the patient while assessing them.

424
Q

DCAP-BTLS

A

remind EMTs of what abnormalities and deformities to look for when inspecting and palpating the body during an exam

425
Q

Which position do you want to place your pregnant patient on the gurney for transport?

A

You want to place your patient on her left side, which keeps the uterus off the liver and improves circulation to the heart.

426
Q

You would want to place your patient in a supine (on her back, face up) position if she needed help maintaining

A

Airway

427
Q

What is not recommended position for pregnant women

A

High flowers

428
Q

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

A

irregular breathing pattern common in patients with a stroke or head injury,

429
Q

Kussmaul respirations

A

respirations present with deep, rapid respirations.

430
Q

Automaticity

A

allows a cardiac muscle cell to spontaneously contract without stimuli from a nerve source.

431
Q

sinoatrial node sends

A

normal impulses to myocardial cells, which will then contract when the impulses reach them.

432
Q

Elasticity

A

ability to change and react and is not the unique characteristic found in the cardiac muscle cells.

433
Q

Anisocoria

A

born with unequal pupils.

434
Q

Cataracts are defined as

A

clouding of the lenses of the eye,

435
Q

Reimplantation of an avulsed tooth is recommended within

A

20-60 mins

436
Q

Patients who have pancreatitis present with severe pain in

A

upper left and upper right quadrants,

437
Q

mnemonic STOP identifies

A

you must continue CPR once you start until one of four events occurs.

S-Starts, T-Transferred, O-Out of strength, and P-Physician.

438
Q

Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB) is also known as

A

liquid ecstasy.

439
Q

Klonopin (clonazepam) is a medication used to prevent

A

seizures, panic disorders, and a movement disorder called akathisia. The street names for Klonopin are K, K-Pin, Pin, and Super Valium.

440
Q

Xanax (alprazolam) is used

A

anxiety and panic disorders. The street names for Xanax are Bricks, Benzos, Bars, Zanbars, and Blue Footballs.

441
Q

The PAT consists of three elements:

A

paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. It’s a type of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). This means your heart suddenly starts beating very fast.

442
Q

The four types of motorcycle impacts are

A

head-on crash, angular crash, ejection, and controlled crash.

443
Q

The lower airway is comprised of the

A

trachea, bronchioles, and main bronchus within the lungs.

444
Q

The trachea begins below the

A

cricoid cartilage and descends down the midline of the neck into the thoracic cavity.

445
Q

Inside the thoracic cavity, the trachea divides into

A

the right and left mainstem bronchus.

446
Q

bronchioles are inside the

A

Lungs with the bronchi and alveoli.

447
Q

larynx is found in the

A

upper airway. It is a cartilaginous structure located above the trachea and is the dividing point between the upper and lower airways.

448
Q

pulmonary embolism is a

A

Blood cloth

449
Q

Ectopic pregnancies typically occur in

A

fallopian tube while the fertilized egg is traveling to the uterus.

450
Q

. A patient with an ectopic pregnancy may present with signs of

A

internal bleeding and pain when the fallopian tube ruptures.

451
Q

What causes migraines?

A

Changes in blood vessel size at the base of the brain

452
Q

Almost one-third of people who are killed immediately in a vehicle accident die from what type of chest injury?

A

Traumatic rupture of the aorta

453
Q

Cardiac tamponade is caused by

A

blunt or penetrating trauma that causes a hemorrhage around the heart.

454
Q

The pain that occurs from an AMI signals the

A

death of cells in the heart muscle.

455
Q

Two illnesses that could cause a patient to hyperventilate are

A

diabetes and sepsis.

456
Q

If a diabetic has high blood glucose levels, the body compensates by

A

hyperventilating to release the extra ketones that have caused acid to build up in the blood.

457
Q

• When a patient has sepsis, they have a

A

severe infection in their body.

458
Q

Hyperventilation is not typically seen in patients who have

A

epilepsy.

459
Q

When a patient receives injuries from a primary blast (explosion), which organs are most susceptible to damage from pressure changes?

A

The gastrointestinal tract, middle ear and lung

460
Q

soon does the drug tissue plasminogen activator (PA) need to be given to increase their chances of reversing the symptoms?

A

Within first few hours

461
Q

Ageneralized (tonic-clonic) seizure

A

a result of abnormal electrical discharges from large areas in the brain, usually involving both hemispheres of the brain.

462
Q

partial (focal) seizure begins

A

One part of brain

463
Q

In a simple partial seizure, there is no

A

change in the level of consciousness. Patients may complain of weakness, dizziness, numbness, visual changes, and unusual smells or tastes.

464
Q

A simple partial seizure may involve some

A

muscle twitching but will not be as violent as seen with a generalized seizure.

465
Q

complex partial seizure will exhibit changes in

A

mental status and unusual interaction with the patient and their environment.

466
Q

Epilepsy

A

disorder in which nerve cell activity in the brain is disturbed, causing seizures.

467
Q

AEIOU-TIPS

A

• A-Alcohol
• E - Epilepsy, electrolytes, endocrine
• -Insulin
• O- Opiates and other drugs
• U-Uremia (kidney failure)
• T- Trauma, temperature
• I- Infection
• P- Poisoning, psychogenic causes
• S- Shock, stroke, seizure, syncope, space-occupying lesion, subarachnoid hemorrhage
Insulin is the second

468
Q

The determination of negligence is based on the following four factors:

A

Duty: The EMT has an obligation to provide care and do so in a manner that is consistent with the standard of care established by training and local protocols.
2. Breach of duty: When the EMT does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care.
3. Damages: When a patient is physically or psychologically harmed in a noticeable way.
4. Causation: There must be a reasonable cause and effect relationship between the breach of duty and the damage suffered by the patient.

469
Q

Ventilations should be given to an adult patient every

A

5-6 second

470
Q

Ventilations should be given to an child patient every

A

3 second

471
Q

Gravida

A

number of pregnancy

472
Q

Para

A

Number of births

473
Q

A or ab

A

Abortions

Emt (9 decks)

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