EMS Protocols Flashcards

1
Q

Who is given the authority to deviate from the EMS protocols as needed?

A

EMS captains

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2
Q

Patient should arrive at the most appropriate receiving facility with a?

A
  • Patent airway
  • Oxygenated
  • Ventilated
  • A perfusing blood pressure
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3
Q

What are the six rights of drug administration?

A
  • Person
  • Drug
  • Dose
  • Time
  • Route
  • Documentation
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4
Q

IM injections: shall be administered in the lateral thigh, or deltoid:

A

adult: 21–23, gauge 1.5 inch needle with a max of four ML per site.
Pediatric : 23 gauge 1 inch needle with a max of one ML per site.
- More than 1 ML needs to be administered split the dose between two sites

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5
Q

MAD

A

Adult and pediatric: 0.1, ML – 0.5 ML with a max of 1 ML IN per nostril.

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6
Q

What medication’s can be administered via MAD?

A
  • Narcan
  • Versed
  • Fentanyl
  • Ketamine
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7
Q

Patients who have not reached puberty, are considered?

A

Pediatric patients

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8
Q

Patients who have reached puberty shall be treated as?

A

Adults

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9
Q

What is the preferred method of vascular access during pediatric cardiac arrest?

A

IO

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10
Q

Pediatric trauma alerts shall be?

A

15 years or younger

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11
Q

When using the Handtevy system, the child’s ________ should be used as a primary reference point for determining the appropriate patient care?

A

Age

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12
Q

Pediatric age classifications

A
  • Neonates: birth to 1 month
  • Infants: 1 month to 1 year
  • Children: 1 year to puberty
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13
Q

Puberty in a female is defined as?

A

Breast development

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14
Q

Puberty in a male is defined as?

A

Under arm, chest or facial hair

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15
Q

Adult and pediatric IO sites

A
  • Proximal humerus
  • Proximal tibia
  • Distal tibia
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16
Q

What are the two classifications of a vulnerable adult?

A
  • A person 60 years of age or older with functional physical or mental and ability care for self
  • and adult 18 years of age or older, who has a developmental disability, has a guardian lives in a nursing facility receives in-home services through a license, healthcare agency
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17
Q

Possible causes of AMS

A

AEIOUTIPS

  • Alcohol
  • Epilepsy
  • Insulin
  • Overdose
  • Uremia
  • Trauma
  • Infection
  • Psychiatric
  • Stroke/Shock
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18
Q

GCS

A
  • Max score is 15, min score is 3
  • GCS 8 or less consider intubation
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19
Q

Vital signs

A
  • priority 3 patients shall receive at least two sets of vitals
  • priority 2 patients shall receive vitals every 5 minutes
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20
Q

Hypo/Hyper

A
  • hypo systolic less than 90
  • hyper diastolic greater than 160
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21
Q

ROSC

A
  • upon ROSC
  • remove rescue pod
  • 12 lead immediately and repeated every 10 minutes
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22
Q

OPQRSTA

A
  • Onset
  • Pallation *
  • Provocation *
  • Previous *
  • Quality
  • Radiation
  • Severity
  • Time
  • Association *
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23
Q

ET CO2

A
  • ideal ranges are 35-45 and Spo2 greater then 90%
24
Q

Ventilatory Rates Adult and Pediatric

A

Adult-
- PULSE: 1 every 6 secs
- NO PULSE: 1 every 10 secs

Peds-
- PULSE: 1 every 3 secs
- NO PULSE: 1 every 6 secs

25
When are high levels of ET CO2 acceptable?
- Cardiac arrest - Broncospasm
26
Trauma Hawk Considerations
- ground transport for a trauma alert is greater than 25 minutes - extrication time greater than 15 minutes - pregnant trauma alert with a gestation greater than 20 weeks - Prehospital ground response time to scene is greater than 10 minutes. - Decompression sickness when ground transport is greater than 40 minutes *** it shall not be used if the patient is estimated to be 500 pounds or greater
27
Hyperbaric chamber uses
- Decompression sickness - Carbon monoxide exposure - Hydrogen sulfide exposure - Cyanide exposure
28
Stroke facilities
- BHE: primary - DMC/Boca: comprehensive - St. Mary’s for PEDS
29
Pediatric trauma alerts
Shall be 15 years or less
30
K-9 suspected overdose
4 mg IN
31
Hypo/hyper glycemia
- less than 60 - greater than 300
32
Minimum age appropriate systolic blood pressures
- neonates: 60 - infants: 70 - children 1-10 yrs 70 + (age in yrs x2) - children over 10 yrs old: 90
33
Contraindications to CPAP
- systolic BP less than 90 - Upper airway obstruction , oral secretions, aspiration risk - Acute MI or unstable cardiac arrhythmia - Pneumothorax - AMS/ decreased level of consciousness
34
Croup vs. epiglottitis
Croup: - Less than three years old - Sick for a few days - Low-grade fever Epiglottis: - Between 3 to 6 years old - Sudden onset - High-grade fever
35
Sepsis alerts
Must have at least two points on the HAT criteria max score is three points. - H: hypotension - A: AMS or GCS less or equal to 14 (new onset) - T: Tachypnea respiratory rate is greater than 22 or ETCO2 is less than 25
36
What does RACE stand for?
- Rapid - Arterial - Cerebral Occlusion - Evaluation
37
Patient positioning for oxygenation
- cardiac arrest: 15° - stroke: 30° - narcotic overdose: 45°
38
What are cortical signs?
- Head and eye gaze deviation - Aphasia - Agnosia ** any patients exhibiting cortical signs will receive a plus to their RACE score
39
Stroke scores
- Max score is 11 - score over 0 is a stroke alert - Any score over 5 is likely an LVO (large vessel occlusion)
40
Bradycardia is defined as
Less than 50 bpm
41
Contraindications for nitro
- SBP less than 90 - Viagra and Levitra within 24 hours - Cialis within 48 hours - positive V4R
42
Synchronized cardioversion
Adult: - 70j -120j -150j -200j **max of 200j Peds: - 0.5j/kg - 1j/kg - 2j/kg ** Max of 2j/kg
43
Contraindications to amiodarone
- marked sinus bradycardia - Cardiogenic Shock - 2nd and third-degree heart blocks - Hypotension - ** QTC greater than 460
44
LVAD
- May not be able to detect pulse, blood pressure, or SPO2 - perform chest compressions to right side of the sternum - do not utilize mechanical CPR device - ** Shall be transported to JFK Medical Center
45
H’s & T’s
H: hydrogen ion, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypothermia T: Toxins, tablets, tension pneumothorax
46
Determination of death
Anyone of the following present: - Lividity - Rigor mortis - Tissue decomposition - A valid DNR order Or all of the following are present : - Downtime greater than 30 minutes - Asystole confirmed in 2 or more leads - Pupils fixed and dilated - Apneic -
47
Field termination requirements
- Asystole for at least 15 minutes - Normothermic - Failed adequate resuscitation, including: - Airway management - CPR - ETOC02 less than 10 - Three rounds of medication - Fluid replacement of at least 500 MLs - Trial defibrillation at 200 J
48
DNR orders
- Must be signed and dated by the patient’s physician, be signed and dated by the patients surrogate or proxy, state that it is a DNR - A DNR order may be withdrawn by any immediate family member, the patients attending physician, or the patient’s healthcare surrogate or proxy
49
Electrocution
Lightning strike patients have a 9 in 10 chance of surviving Conduct triage and reverse manner from what you would normally do in an MCI , lightning, strike patients who are apneic, and in cardiac arrest, should receive priority
50
Refractory V-Fib/V-tach
If ALL 3 of the below treatments have failed to convert: - five or more standard defibrillation have been delivered - Hs & Ts have been addressed - 450 mg of amiodarone has been a ministered
51
Cyanide exposure
Any firefighter who suffers cardiac arrest during or within 24 hours of a fire incident shall be treated for cyanide exposure
52
Pain management:
Exception: do not administer to pregnant patients near term 32 weeks or greater as fentanyl can cause respiratory distress in newborns. Fentanyl be given IV/IO/IM And rare occasions fentanyl may cause hypertension. Additionally, fentanyl may cause chest wall, rigidity if administered too quickly.
53
Delayed sequence intubation DSI
- EMS Capt. is responsible for ensuring the airway is secured - For patients greater than 65 years old or suspected closed head injury: ketamine 100mg (pre-sedation) - Rocuronium: 1mg/kg max dose 100mg (paralytic) - Zofran 4mg (prophylaxis for nausea)
54
If DSI has failed, how many attempts are there?
- 1 ** if second attempt is unsuccessful place SGA and ventilate with BVM
55
Decompression sickness
Any patient with the following signs and symptoms who has used SCUBA gear or compressed air within a 48 hour period shall be considered decompression sickness patient. - Strokelike symptoms - Visual disturbances - Joint pain - AMS - Paralysis or weakness - Numbness and tingling - Bowel and bladder dysfunction - SOB