Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y1 Drugs + bugs > Emergency cardio > Flashcards

Emergency cardio Flashcards

1
Q

level the IVC passes through the diaphragm

A

T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

level the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

level the aorta passes through the diaphragm

A

T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

structures passes through the diaphragm along with the IVC

A

phrenic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

structure passes through the diaphragm along with the oesophagus

A

vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

structure passes through the diaphragm along with the aorta

A

thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

genetic condition is associated with Freidreichs ataxia

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

U waves

A

hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Low blood pH
raised PaCO2

A

resp acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

high pH
low PaCO2

A

resp alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

increases functional residual capacity

A

upright position
emphysema
asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

decreased functional residual capacity

A

PF
obesity
laparscopic surgery
abdo swelling
muscle relaxant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

changes in leads LLI, aVL, V5, V6

A

left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

changes in leads V1-V3

A

posterior descending artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

inferior stemi

A

right coronary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

coagulative necrosis
neutrophils
wavy fibres
hypercontraction

A

0-24 hours post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

extensive coagulative necrosis
neutrophils (fibrous peri)

A

1-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

marcophages + granulation tissue at margins
risk of free wall rupture

A

3-14 days post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

dresser syndrome

A

2-6 weeks post MI pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Abesent A waves

A

AFIB
means atria not contracting well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

prominent A waves

A

resistence to RA filling
pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Kussmauls sign?

A

JVP rising on inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what conditions are seen with kussmauls sign?

A

constrictive pericarditis
restrictive cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

prominent V wave

A

tricuspid regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
cannon A wave
complete heart block ventricular tachy
26
Bahcets syndrome
pericarditis + genital/oral ulcers
27
digoxin toxicity on ECG
down sloping ST segments patient might have had previous AFIB
28
first line treatment for haemodynamically stable VT?
amiodarone
29
treatments given for all patients following an MI
dual-antiplatelet therapy (Asp + tic) BB ACEi - max tolerated dose
30
ORBIT score?
risk of AFIB patients of bleeding on anticoagulation
31
what can mobitz type II heart failure progress to?
complete heart block
32
potential risk of cardiac catheterization?
embolic stroke
33
clinical marker of MI re-enfarct?
creatine Kinase - MB (CK-MB)
34
cause of perivalvular/aortic abscess
infective endocarditis
35
how does perivalvular aortic abscess present on ECG?
PR prolongation poor amplitude of waves
36
what can worsen affects/enhance digoxin activity causing digoxin toxicity?
hypokalemia - loop diuretic
37
hyperkalemia on ECG
tall tented T waves small/absent P waves broad bizarre QRS
38
hypokalemia on ECG
ST segment depression short PR
39
complications of VSD
AFIB infective endocarditis aortic regurg eisenmengers
40
VSD murmur
pan systolic
41
calcification of aortic valve triad
breathlessness chest pain syncope
42
Abx causing torsade do pointes
macrolides
43
pulsatile hepatomegaly?
tricuspid regurg due to back flow of blood
44
artery supplying AV node
righty coronary
45
noradrenaline binds in heart
B1 adrenoreceptor increases depolarisation
46
ask patient to breathe out
mitral stenosis
47
common iliacs fuse with IVC
L5
48
electrolyte abnormality causing prolongued QT
hypocalcemia
49
normal JVP
less than 3cm vertical above sternal angle
50
gold standard for intra-cranial vascular disease
cerebral angiography
51
first line Ix for a stable aortic dissection
CT scan of chest/abdo
52
first line ix for unstable aortic dissection
echo - done at bedside
53
evidence of haemodynamic instability?
Bp below 90
54
water bottle shaped enlarged cardiac silhouette
pericarditis
55
ABCDEF for heart failure
alveolar oedema Kelley B lines cardiomegaly blood diversion pleural effusion fluid in horizontal fissure
56
JVP waveform for hypothermia?
U wave Osborne wave
57
treat malignant hypertension
IV labetalol
58
atrial myxomas found most in which atria?
left
59
wide pulse pressure
aortic regurg
60
is hypertension a modifiable factor?
apparently
61
cause of gynaecomastia?
digoxin
62
when do coronary arteries receive most of their own blood supply
diastole
63
if SVT cause syncope or chest pain what is first line?
DCCV
64
survival benefits in patients with heart failure
BB
65
acute NSTEMI meds
aspirin + clopidogrel (dual anti) GTN ticegralor/fondaparinux
66
which meds do you not give for a patient having a STEMI with a GI bleed risk?
ticegralor fondaparinux
67
first line for haemodynamically stable Atrial flutter
verapamil
68
contraindicated for peptic ulcer disease
warfarin
69
diffuse st elevation saddle shape high Troponin
myocarditis
70
if patient remains symptomatic for HFrEF despite ACEi, BB, aspirin?
spironolactone > ivabradine > digoxin
71
arrhythmia med causing short QT
digoxin
72
when is hydralazine used
afro-carribean patient unable to tolerate Spironolactone
73
bounding pulse
acute CO2 retention sepsis
74
test done for patient with subacute infective endocsrditis and abdo pain?
CT angiography emboli from vegetation
75
adenosine contraindicated with
asthma
76
prostaglandin I2
pulmonary vasodilator
77
ECG leads with no deviation
I pos II pos III pos
78
left axis deviation
limb lead I - positive limb lead II - negative
79
right axis deviation
limb lead I - negative limb lead II - positive
80
how does the PDA close
baby takes first breath increases pulmonary flow causes clearance of prostaglandins
81
which embryonic structure acts as the anchor for the aortic arch
ligamentum arteriosum
82
what structure becomes the ascending aorta/pulmonary trunk
truncus arteriosus
83
what is the bulbus cords responsible for
ventricle
84
what does the common cardiac vein become
SVC
85
how would S4 heart sound present on ECG?
P wave as this is where atria have to harshly contract
86
what does an increase conducting velocity across the AVN result in
decreases PR interval
87
malar flush?
mitral stenosis
88
tapping apex beat?
mitral stenosis
89
biggest cause of mitral stenosis?
rheumatic fever -> rheumatic heart disease
90
s1 sound?
interventricular valves vlosing ie mitral and tricuspid
91
during which heart sounds does systole occur?
between s1 and s2
92
opening snap following s2?
mitral stenosis pressure builds in LA causing valve to snap open
93
1st line Ix for valve disease?
echocardiogram
94

Y1 Drugs + bugs (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions