Embryology and Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the pharyngeal arches and when do they develop

A

Arch 1 → Day 22
Arches 2 and 3 → Day 24
Arches 4 and 6 → Day 29

i.e. week 4 and 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does each arch consist of

A

Core of mesenchyme
Neural crest cells
CN component
Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what CN are associated with what arch

A

Arch 1 - CN V2 and V3
Arch 2 - CN VII
Arch 3 - CN IX
Arch 4 - CN X - Superior laryngeal branch
Arch 6 - CN X - Recurrent laryngeal branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does 1st Arch form

A

Maxillary process - maxilla, zygomatic and part of temporal bone
Mandibular process - Meckel’s cartilage, incus, malleus, mandible

Muscles of mastication
Mylohyoid

Sensory skin supply to face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does 2nd arch form

A

Stapes, styloid process of temporal bone + stylohyoid ligament
Hyoid

Muscles of facial expression
Stapedius

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does 3rd arch form

A

Greater horn and lower part of body of hyoid

Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does 4th and 6th arches form

A

Laryngeal cartilages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does 1st pouch form

A

middle ear
eustachian tube
tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does 2nd pouch form

A

palatine tonsil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what does 3rd pouch form

A

inferior parathyroid gland

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does 4th pouch form

A

superior parathyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does 1st pharyngeal cleft form

A

external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what give rise to the otic vesicles/inner ear

A

otic placodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what contributes to the auricle

A

Arch 1 and Arch 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what 5 swellings of the face are present from week 4

A

Frontonasal prominence (with nasal placodes)

Maxillary prominence (x2)

Mandibular prominence (x2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what additional facial swellings are seen in Week 5

A

Medial nasal swellings

Lateral nasal swellings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do facial clefts result from

A

failure of some of the facial processes to fuse correctly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

in what week should palatine shelves fuse

A

Week 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the most common bacterial cause of a sore throat

A

Strep. pyogenes (Grp A Strep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tx of Strep throat

A

Oral Penicillin

Clarithromycin if allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Early Complications of Strep throat

A

Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
Sinusitis/ otitis media
Scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Late complications of Strep throat

A

Rheumatic fever

Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does Diphtheria present with

A

Severe sore throat with a grey white membrane across the pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tx of Diphtheria

A

Antitoxin and Supportive

Penicillin/erythromycin

25
White patches on red, raw mucous membranes in throat/ mouth - diagnosis and what organism
Candida/Thrush Candida albicans
26
Tx of candida/thrush
Nystatin suspension topically
27
what is acute otitis media
infection of middle ear typically URI extending up the eustachian tube presents with earache
28
what are bacterial causes of AOM
Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae | Streptococcus pyogenes
29
when is antibiotics considered for AOM
bilateral AOM in
30
what is the antibiotic Tx for AOM
Amoxicillin - 5 days | if allergic Clarithromycin
31
Tx for acute sinusitis
if uncomplicated avoid antibiotics where indicated 1st line Penicillin 2nd line Doxycyline
32
what is otitis externa
inflammation of outer ear canal
33
presentation of otitis externa
Redness and swelling of the skin of the ear canal. Itchy Sore and painful. Discharge, or increased amounts of ear wax. Hearing can be affected.
34
bacterial causes of otitis externa
Staphylococcus aureus Proteus spp Pseudomonas aeruginosa
35
fungal causes of otitis externa
Aspergillus niger | Candida albicans
36
Mx of otitis externa
Topical aural toilet Swab unresponsive causes - Topical Gentamicin for Pseudomonas - Topical Clotrimazole for the rest
37
what is infectious mononucleosis also known as
glandular fever
38
Sx of glandular fever
Fever Enlarged lymph nodes Sore throat, pharyngitis, tonsillitis Malaise, lethargy Jaundice/Hepatitis Rash Splenomegaly
39
complications of glandular fever
anaemia, thrombocytopenia splenic rupture upper airway obstruction increased risk of lymphoma
40
what causes glandular fever
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
41
Tx for glandular fever
Bed rest Paracetamol Avoid sport Corticosteroids in complicated cases
42
Ix of lab confirmation of glandular fever
1st - Epstein-Barr virus IgM 2nd - Heterophile antibody - Paul-Bunnell test - Monospot test Blood count and film Liver function tests
43
what can present similar to glandular fever
cytomegalovirus
44
what can HSV type 1 cause and when is it acquired
Oral lesions/Primary gingivostomatitis | Childhood
45
how does Primary gingivostomatitis present
``` fever local lymphadenopathy lips, buccal mucosa, hard palate vesicles 1-2mm ulcers ```
46
Tx for primary gingivostomatitis
Aciclovir treatment
47
can HSV 1 have a latency period ?
yes
48
what does reactivation of HSV 1 cause and what can be used to treat it
cold sore Aciclovir
49
what is herpetic whitlow and who tend to get it
lesion on finger or thumb caused by HSV | occupational hazard of dentistry and anaesthetics
50
how is HSV confirmed
Viral DNA by PCR
51
what is herpangina and what causes it
Vesicles/ulcers on soft palate | caused by coxsackie viruses
52
how is herpangina diagnosed
clinically OR PCR test of swab
53
what else can coxsackie virus cause
Hand, foot and mouth disease
54
what is common in hand, foot and mouth disease
family outbreaks
55
what are apthous ulcers
``` Non viral, self limiting Recurring painful ulcers of the mouth - confined to mouth - absence of systemic disease - ulcer last less than 3 weeks ```
56
what are non viral causes of recurrent ulcers
``` Behcet's disease IBD Reiter's disease Drug reactions Lichen planus, pemphigus, pemphigoid ```
57
what is a chancre
Painless indurated ulcer at site of entry of bacterium Treponema pallidum i.e. Primary syphilis
58
where are chancre commonly found and what happens if they are left untreated
most common site - genital but oral lesions can happen can progress to secondary and tertiary syphilis