EM day 1 Flashcards

1
Q

child’s growth was normal during early infancy but began to lag later on, becoming more obvious during mid-childhood/prepubescence. The upper and lower segment ratio is slightly immature, and bone age is retarded.

A

constitutional delay in growth,

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2
Q

As the height and arm span are equal, it excludes short stature due to

A

short limb dwarfism or achondroplasia.

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3
Q
  • children whose parents have short stature.
  • small at birth and their growth remains slow.
  • do not achieve anticipated height
  • their growth velocity is less than normal, but it is more than 4 cm per year.
  • Puberty and sexual maturation occurs within the normal age.
  • Bone age is normal for the chronological age.
A

Familial short stature

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4
Q

Bone age is normal or may be slightly delayed. These children often have learning disabilities in school. There is no evidence of growth hormone deficiency.

A

Primordial dwarfism or intrauterine growth retardation occurs due to arrest of fetal growth during early embryonic life. This causes reduction in the total number of cells, leading to severe intrauterine growth retardation and diminished growth potential during later life.

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5
Q

normal in weight and height at birth and may grow normally for the first few months of life. Delay in growth is observed at about 1 year of age. Growth is regular but slow, and the child gains less than 4 cm per year in height. Ratio of upper and lower segments is normal. Bone age is less than the chronological age by about 2 years.

A

The children with hypopituitarism or human growth hormone deficiency

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6
Q

typically presents at birth with short limbs, long narrow trunk, and large head with prominent forehead. Limb shortening is greatest in the proximal segments. Motor milestones are delayed, but intelligence is normal. Delayed walking is due to hypotonia and difficulty in balancing a large head on a normal size trunk and short extremities. It is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait with complete penetrance.

A

Achondroplasia

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7
Q

Children with cerebral palsy and other neurologic disorders are likely to have feeding dysfunction causing inefficient feeding through spillage as well as aspiration. Besides the prevalence of gastroesophageal reflux, the inability to communicate hunger and satiety, generally reduced physical activity, and sometimes slow feeding also lead to decreased intake of calories and nutrients. what is the best way for frequent assessment of nutritional status ?

A

Weight gain, linear growth, and body mass index may be difficult to obtain accurately in affected children having musculoskeletal contractures or scoliosis. Monitoring skinfold thickness and arm circumference with a caliper is more useful in such children to assess overall nutritional status. The skin fold thickness correlates with total body fat, and the upper arm circumference is a sensitive index of lean body mass.

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8
Q

most reliable test for celiac disease,

A

Antiendomysial antibody testing, although results are technician-dependent. The gold standard for diagnosis remains a small intestinal biopsy, revealing blunting of the small intestinal villi while consuming gluten-containing foods as well as the response to a gluten-free diet. However, in milder cases where the villous atrophy is less severe, the diagnosis rests on clinical data with histological data and serological tests.

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9
Q

If a child is uncooperative for vision testing, a second attempt should be made 4 to 6 months later for the 3-year-old and 1 month for children 4 years and older. Children unable to be tested after 2 attempts should be

A

referred to an ophthalmologist experienced in the care of children. A referral should also be made when an abnormality is suspected or detected.

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10
Q

Earliest visual acuity measurements can usually be performed at approximately

A

3 years of age.

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11
Q

Vision testing machines are being used but can be difficult for children younger than

A

3 to 4 years of age to use.

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12
Q

What is Photoscreening?

A

Photoscreening involves photographing both pupils with a calibrated camera under prescribed conditions that show a red reflex.

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13
Q

Photoscreening can identify what abnormalities?

A

can identify ocular abnormalities, such as strabismus, refractive errors, media opacities, and retinal abnormalities; however, it is not a substitute for accurate visual acuity measurement.

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14
Q

Ophthalmoscopy exam might be possible starting at

A

at 3 to 4 years of age if a child is willing to fixate on an object. It is useful to evaluate the optic nerve and retinal vasculature; however, it does not assess visual acuity.

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15
Q

There is considerable evidence of an association between exposure to diesel exhaust and an increased risk of

A

lung cancer.

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16
Q

bilateral facial and abducens nerve paralysis. Other cranial nerves (e.g. Hypoglossal) may also be involved and occurs with equal incidence in both males and females. Most cases are sporadic, but familial forms have also been reported.

A

Moebius Syndrome
This syndrome is believed to be caused by a defect in the development of the rhombencephalon or an interruption in its vascular supply during intra-uterine development.

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17
Q

What can cause complete ophthalmoplegia, bilateral ptosis, profound weakness, and decreased tone, which worsens as the day progresses.

A

Congenital myasthenia gravis.
Some of these neonates may have a transient neonatal myasthenia gravis due to a transplacentally acquired antibody that causes symptoms in the first few weeks of life and then resolves completely as the antibody disappears.

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18
Q

Injury due to forceps delivery is a common cause of facial nerve injury in neonates but is unlikely to have

A

eye findings.

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19
Q

Aplasia of depressor anguli oris muscle, when bilateral, can give the appearance of an expressionless look in lower half of face, but does not have the associated

A

eye findings.

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20
Q

full term female neonate and reports difficulty with breast feeding at 24 hours of life, complete adduction of both eyes. No facial expressions appear on crying, and her eyes do not close fully during sleep, normal tone and actively moves all 4 limbs, with normal gag reflex and no dysmorphic features. Her Moro’s reflex is symmetric, and deep tendon reflexes elicit a 2+ response with an equivocal Babinski response.

A

Moebius Syndrome

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21
Q

presents with bilateral facial paralysis but also causes areflexia and weakness,

A

Congenital myotonic dystrophy

- autosomal dominant, trinucleotide repeat disorder

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22
Q

This patient developed hyponatremia due to a combination of administration of excessive amount of fluids and SIADH caused by the stress of surgery. Since she is now showing features of cerebral edema, it requires

A

quick correction of her serum sodium before her cerebral edema increases further and leads to brainstem herniation. However, too rapid correction of serum sodium level is likely to lead to central ponitne myelinolysis, so the correction should be done in a manner that will not increase her sodium by >12mEq/L in a 24-hour period.

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23
Q

Achondroplasia, the most common skeletal dysplasia, is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait; although, 75% of affected infants result from a new mutation.

Complications of abnormal linear growth require close monitoring. Midface underdevelopment can lead to

A

obstructive apnea due to smaller than average airway size and adenoidal hypertrophy. Retractions, glottal stops, choking, intermittent breathing, deep compensatory sighs, recurrent night-time awakening or emesis would require additional pulmonary evaluation and polysomnography.

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24
Q

“anaphylaxis is a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death.” 3 clinical criteria based on symptoms and history were also proposed where anaphylaxis is highly likely when any 1 is fulfilled following exposure to a suspected allergen:

A
  1. Acute onset within minutes to several hours involving skin, mucosal tissue, or both, and at least 1 of the following:
    a. Respiratory compromise (e.g., dyspnea, wheeze, stridor, hypoxemia)
    b. Reduced blood pressure or associated symptoms (e.g., hypotonia, syncope, incontinence)
  2. 2 or more of the following that occur within minutes to several hours:
    a. Involvement of the skin/mucosal tissue
    b. Respiratory compromise (e.g., wheezing)
    c. Reduced blood pressure or associated symptoms (e.g., hypotonia)
    d. Persistent gastrointestinal symptoms
  3. Reduced blood pressure within minutes to hours
    a. Infants and children: low systolic BP or greater than 30% decrease in systolic BP
    b. Adults: systolic BP of less than 90 mmHg or greater than 30% decrease from baseline
25
Q

What is an auditory-pigment disorder characterized by neonatal sensorineural hearing loss and pigment abnormalities of the eyes, skin, and hair.

A

Waardenburg syndrome, of which there are several subtypes, The most striking manifestation of the pigment anomalies is the presence of a white forelock in affected individuals.

26
Q

Image shows increase in size of the penis with appearance of pubic hair but the testicular size is normal for his age, suggesting that the child has pseudoprecocious puberty.

A

The most likely diagnosis of this child is congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency, as the child has presented with signs of pseudoprecocious puberty. In 21-hydroxylase deficiency there is blockage at the level where progesterone is converted into deoxycorticosterone. Hence there is lack of production of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids, but there is excess of androgens. Therefore there is virilization of the fetus due to exposure to excessive level of adrenal androgens during the period of sex differentiation. Diagnosis is confirmed by elevated levels of urinary17ketosteroids.

27
Q

During early postnatal life these infants may present with the salt wasting form of CAH, resulting in life threatening situations like diarrhea, vomiting, and shock due to aldosterone (mineralocorticoid) deficiency.

A

There is masculinization of the female fetus showing enlarged clitoris and fusion of the labia. Male babies are normal at birth but they have early onset of puberty and an advanced bone age. The initial growth rate is high but the ultimate height is less because of early closure of the epiphysis.

28
Q

male infants may show male pseudohermaphroditism (MPH). Female infants may show mild clitoral enlargement due to increased levels of dehydroepiandrosteron, which is a weak androgen. There may be virilization of males and females presenting with ambiguous genitalia. in?

A

In 3-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency,

29
Q

masculinization of female infants and boys may show early onset of puberty. These children develop hypertension due to excess of deoxycortisol (DOC). in ?

A

In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency

30
Q

increased secretion of mineralocor-ticoids deoxycortisol (DOC). Sex steroid and glucocorticoids are reduced. Boys show pseudohermaphroditism and girls show sexual infantilism. These children have additional findings of hypertension and hypokalemia.

A

In 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency there is

31
Q

Prenatal diagnosis of CAH can be made by

A

estimation of 17-ketosteroid, pregnanetriol, and 17-hydroxy progesterone in amniotic fluid. It can also be diagnosed by demonstration of mutation of CAH gene in chorionic villus sampling done as early as the 9th week of gestation. Neonatal screening can be done by estimation of 17-hydroxyprogesterone in blood at 2 weeks of age.

32
Q

Prenatal treatment of CAH can be given to prevent virilization of female fetus by

A

giving the mother dexamethasone 0.5mg 8 hourly from 5th week of gestation.

33
Q

The investigation of choice for confirming the diagnosis of tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is

A

an x-ray of the chest after inserting a nasogastric tube, as it may coil up in the upper pouch of the esophagus. This will be seen on the x-ray of the chest. The stomach will be seen distended with air as the lower part of esophagus is connected to the trachea.

34
Q

Keeping in mind the underlying bronchopulmonary dysplasia that this infant has, which of the following combinations best represent this infant’s respiratory mechanics that could help determine his ventilator settings?

A

Increased chest wall compliance, decreased lung compliance, increased airway resistance

35
Q

The total respiratory system compliance is the sum of chest wall compliance and lung compliance. In general, the total respiratory system compliance tends to be low in infants with BPD, returning towards normal by 1 to 3 years of age. Their lungs also have increased air trapping and Functional Residual Capacity (FRC), which tends to normalize by 1 year of age. This reduces their lung compliance.

A

Premature infants tend to have increased chest wall compliance due to the soft and pliant rib cage, which easily moves in with the inspiratory pull of the diaphragm on the lower ribs. Studies of Infant Pulmonary Function Tests (IPFTs) have shown increased airway resistance in general in these infants; although in this case, the presence of acute RSV infection may also further increase the airway resistance, leading to increased ventilation-perfusion mismatch and worsening respiratory failure.

36
Q

The management strategy for infants and children with SVT is based on the physiological status of the patient. Transient episodes like the one above should be

A

observed closely without any drug therapy.

37
Q

SVT - Stable patients with adequate perfusion (normal capillary refill time, mental status, and blood pressure) who continue to have SVT are managed with..

A

vagal maneuvers or adenosine.

38
Q

infants with SVT who have evidence of poor perfusion or hypotension at presentation or during the episodes are

A

emergently cardioverted.

39
Q

Hematuria is defined as

A

having 5 or more RBCs per high-power field in 3 consecutive fresh, centrifuged specimens obtained over several weeks. Gross hematuria can look overtly bloody, smoky, or tea colored. Microscopic hematuria looks clear.

40
Q

Hematuria that is isolated and asymptomatic is rarely due to significant renal disease. If family history does not point to familial benign hematuria, approximately 30% of children with isolated asymptomatic hematuria may have

A

elevated urinary calcium levels. Their hematuria can be either gross or microscopic and may or may not be associated with dysuria.

41
Q

An abnormal spot urine calcium-to-creatinine ratio of >0.21 should be followed with a

A

24-hour urine collection for calcium excretion. Abnormal levels exceed 4mg/kg per day. Renal ultrasound or plain films may depict nephrocalcinosis or nephrolithiasis.

42
Q

Most cases of hematuria are idiopathic; however,

A

immobilization, diuretics, vitamin D intoxication, hyperpararthyroidism, and sarcoidosis should also be considered. Some children with idiopathic hypercalciuria will develop a renal stone within 5 years of diagnosis.

43
Q

A previously asymptomatic child has presented with sudden onset of complex partial seizures and is associated with a motor deficit in the form of post ictal right sided hemiparesis. Rest of the systemic examination is normal.The diagnosis is confirmed by the contrast enhanced CT scan of the head, which shows a single ring enhancing lesion with perifocal edema in the left parietal region.

A

The most likely clinical diagnosis is neurocysticercosis, is the most common parasitic infection of the CNS
- caused by the larval stage of Taenia solium or pork tape worm due ingestion of food or water contaminated with eggs of Taenia solium or by consumption of undercooked pork. Eggs develop into larvae in the small intestines. They migrate across the intestinal wall into the blood steam and are carried to the target organs like the brain, muscles, and subcutaneous tissues, where they mature into cysticerci The size varies from 2mm-20mm.

44
Q

most common cause of a single ring enhancing lesion seen on CT scan of the brain.

A

Neurocysticercosis, Albendazole and praziquantal are the cysticidal drugs used in the treament of neurocysticercsis. Response to albendazole is better. To prevent the inflammatory response due to the dying parasite, steroids are used for 2-3 days before and during cysticidal therapy.

45
Q

The cystic stage usually does not provoke a strong immunologic response while it is alive and intact. It may remain viable for

A

5-10 years without any symptoms and then begins to degenerate and resolve by complete resorption or calcification. The degenerating cyst evokes a vigorous host response, leading to perilesional edema, causing convulsions.

46
Q

_______provides more useful information about the viability of the cyst. The prescolex is sometimes visible within the cyst, which is pathognomonic of neurocysticercosis.

A

MRI of the head. MRI is also better in detecting basal arachnoiditis, intraventricular cyst, and cysts in the spinalcord. CT is best for identifying calcifications.

47
Q

diagnostic triad of seizures, mental retardation, and facial angiofibromas (Vogt’s triad) occurs in fewer than 50 percent of patients. Other features include Shagreen patch (connective tissue nevus), Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM), renal angiomyolipoma, cardiac rhabdomyoma, multiple retinal nodular hamartomas, and cortical tubers (which are seen as “candle wax drippings” in ventricles on CT scan).

A

Tuberous Sclerosis is a progressive disorder, and the neurologic complications tend to predominate in young children. Prenatal genetic testing with DNA analysis can be performed in families with affected individuals.

48
Q

the infant presents with choking, cyanosis, copious secretions, and respiratory distress. Polyhydramnios is common. Symptoms worsen during feedings; stomach distention and pneumonia are possible complications.

A

clinical picture is suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula. Continuous esophageal suctioning should persist until definitive repair. Diagnosis is made by placing a NG tube to where resistance is met. An X-ray is taken, and the tube should be in a blind pouch.

49
Q

This case highlights the metabolic abnormalities that are associated with abuse of diuretics for “weight loss”. The use of diuretics leads to volume depletion, which increases

A

angiotensin II, aldosterone, and sympathetic stimulation to the kidneys. With enhanced delivery of sodium to the distal nephron due to the action of diuretics, acid excretion is further enhanced. The diuretic-associated renal potassium losses also increase acid excretion. The end result is metabolic alkalosis with increased bicarbonate level, low potassium level, and normal anion gap.

50
Q

What is a developmental screening tool that identifies general developmental delay in high risk preterm, low birth weight, or low socioeconomic status population that is practitioner-administered.

A

Bayley Infant Neurodevelopmental Screens (BINS)

51
Q

What is an instrument used for identification of general developmental delay in a general primary care population that takes about 2 minutes to elicit and interpret parental concerns.

A

Parent’s Evaluation of Developmental Status (PEDS). It is comprehensive, user-friendly, and has published validation studies and helps to manage a wide range of psychosocial issues that arise in offices

52
Q

What also identifies general developmental delay in a general primary care or in a broad high-risk prematurity population.

A

Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ) This is a parental report of multiple skills that is also comprehensive and has published validation studies.

53
Q

What test involves direct examination of the child’s skills.

A

Denver II screening test. This has been a widely used test, but it has only modest sensitivity and specificity depending on interpretation.

54
Q

What screen asks questions that are helpful in detecting behavioral concerns.

A

Child Behavioral Inventory screen. Children with developmental delays may be at a higher risk for behavioral problems.

55
Q

Among the childhood anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by recurring obsessions and compulsions that can interfere with academic and social functioning.

Treatment of choice consists of

A

psychotherapy known as cognitive behavioral therapy that helps the child develop strategies to identify problem situations and resist giving in to obsessive thoughts and compulsive behavior. This can be undertaken in addition to the possible use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

56
Q

this patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale value of

A

Vecuronium, lidocaine, and Etomidate

57
Q

What is the drug of choice which can be administered to the mother 48 hours before delivery, from 24-34 weeks of gestation to accelerate the maturation of the lungs and to reduce of the severity of RDS. It also reduces the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH), necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), pneumothorax, and thus reduces overall perinatal mortality.

A

Betamethasone. A full course consists of 2 doses of betamethasone 12 mg given by intramuscular (IM) injection at an interval of 24 hours, or 4 doses of dexamethasone 6mg IM at 12-hour intervals. It works without adversely affecting the post natal growth and development or increasing the incidence of infection.

58
Q

Pregnancy in addition to poor metabolic control, elevated blood pressure, smoking, albuminuria, diabetes duration, and elevated lipid values are all risk factors for

A

retinopathy in a patient with type I diabetes.

59
Q

symptoms are highly suggestive of acute suppurative thyroiditis. In that case, serum T4, TSH, and 24-hour uptake of radioactive iodine are normal.

A

Ultrasound of the neck is a useful and non-invasive way to confirm the diagnosis.