Elm 16/17 Asthma Flashcards

1
Q

Q: What is COPD?

A

A: COPD stands for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease. It involves the chronic narrowing of the airways, making it difficult to breathe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Q: What are the main characteristics of COPD?

A

A: COPD is predominantly inflammatory and typically involves a combination of chronic bronchitis and emphysema. It is poorly reversible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q: What are some statistics related to COPD in the UK?

A

A: In the UK, COPD affects around 1.2 million people. The prevalence is growing, and a large number of cases may be undiagnosed. In 2012, nearly 30,000 deaths in the UK were attributed to COPD, with 86% of these deaths linked to smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q: What is chronic bronchitis?

A

A: Chronic bronchitis is characterized by a persistent cough with mucus production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q: What is emphysema?

A

A: Emphysema involves the destruction of tissues around the alveoli, the air sacs in the lungs where oxygen exchange occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Q: What is bronchial asthma?

A

A: Bronchial asthma is a chronic condition characterized by the narrowing of the airways, which can occur in attacks or episodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q: How is lung function measured in asthma?

A

A: Lung function in asthma is measured using tests such as FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second) and PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate). These tests involve taking a maximal breath in and blowing out as hard as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Q: What are some statistics related to asthma in the UK?

A

A: In the UK, asthma affects around 5.4 million people, with approximately 200,000 having severe asthma. The annual NHS costs related to asthma exceed £1 billion. In 2017, nearly 1,500 deaths were attributed to asthma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Q: What are some common triggers for asthma attacks?

A

A: Common triggers for asthma attacks include house dust mites, pollens, exercise, emotions, cold air, respiratory tract infections, animal fur, fungal spores, occupational factors, drugs, and pollutants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Q: How is asthma categorized?

A

A: Asthma is divided into two categories: intrinsic (non-atopic/non-allergic) asthma and extrinsic (atopic/allergic) asthma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Q: What structures support the trachea and bronchi?

A

A: The trachea and bronchi are supported by rings of cartilage. As you move down to the second and third bronchi, the cartilage turns into plates. Cartilage is absent at the bronchioles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Q: What are the characteristics of bronchioles?

A

A: Bronchioles terminate at the alveoli and have much more smooth muscle, which plays a role in determining the diameter of the bronchioles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Q: Describe the structure of a healthy airway.

A

A: A healthy airway includes a submucosal layer containing glands, smooth muscle, and an epithelial layer with goblet cells and ciliated epithelium. Cilia beat in a coordinated fashion to move dirt and mucus out of the lungs, although they are absent from the alveoli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Q: How do asthmatic airways differ from healthy airways?

A

A: Asthmatic airways typically have more glands and muscles, with the submucosa infiltrated by immune system cells. Other characteristics include edema, a thicker basement membrane, loss of epithelium (resulting in fewer cilia and more goblet cells), and the formation of mucus plugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Q: What is plastic bronchitis?

A

A: Plastic bronchitis is a symptom present in many conditions characterized by the formation of mucus plugs in the airways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Q: How does exercise relate to asthma attacks?

A

A: It’s argued that during exercise, large volumes of air are brought into the lungs via the mouth, bypassing the warming and humidifying effects of the nasal cavity. This can lead to dehydration of the airway surfaces, potentially triggering an asthma attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Q: Describe the process of allergic airway sensitization.

A

A: Allergic airway sensitization involves inhalation of an allergen, dendritic cells sampling the allergen and presenting pieces of it on their surface via MHCII, migration of dendritic cells to lymph nodes where they activate allergen-specific T cells, leading to clonal expansion and TH2 polarization. TH2 cells produce inflammatory cytokines that drive allergic inflammation and asthmatic responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Q: What are the characteristics of asthma attacks?

A

A: Asthma attacks are biphasic. The early phase involves bronchoconstriction, which can last up to 1.5 hours and is characterized by mast cell degranulation and increased acetylcholine from the parasympathetic nervous system. The later phase also involves bronchoconstriction and inflammation, which can be delayed up to 6 hours and includes the recruitment of leukocytes and production of inflammatory mediators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Q: What do mast cells contain, and how are they activated?

A

A: Mast cells contain granules containing pre-formed mediators, along with other mediators from membrane lipids such as leukotrienes. Mast cells recognize antigens through IgE antibodies attached to their surface. When activated, antigen cross-links IgE, leading to degranulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Q: What immune cells are important in the later phase of asthma attacks, and what do they produce?

A

A: In the later phase of asthma attacks, eosinophils are important. They produce major basic protein and signaling molecules, which can lead to tissue damage, increased mucus production, airway remodeling, and sensitization.

`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Q: What are some effects of mediators released during asthma attacks?
Ach and leukotrienes?
Chemotactic factors?
Major basic proteins?

A

A: During the early phase of asthma attacks, mediators such as acetylcholine and leukotrienes (C, D, and E4) cause contraction of airway smooth muscle, increased vascular permeability, and bronchial secretions. Chemotactic factors lead to the infiltration of lung tissue by neutrophils and eosinophils. In the later phase, these effects are amplified, along with epithelial desquamation and cell death caused by major basic protein from eosinophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Q: What is the stepped approach according to NICE guidelines for adult asthma management?

A

The stepped approach for adult asthma management according to NICE guidelines includes several steps:

For those experiencing less than three asthma attacks a week, a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) is given.
If asthma remains uncontrolled with SABA alone, an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is added.
If asthma is still uncontrolled, a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added.
A long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) may be added if needed.
Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) can be offered.
If asthma remains uncontrolled, the steroid dose may be increased.
High-dose ICS may be prescribed.
Additional treatments may be added.
If asthma is still not controlled, specialist advice should be sought.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Q: How are beta adrenoceptor agonists categorized mechanistically?

A

A: Beta adrenoceptor agonists are categorized mechanistically into bronchodilators (such as long-acting β2 agonists, theophylline, mAChR antagonists, and leukotriene antagonists) and anti-inflammatory drugs (including glucocorticosteroids and monoclonal antibodies).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Q: How are beta adrenoceptor agonists categorized into relievers and preventers?

A

A: Beta adrenoceptor agonists are categorized into relievers and preventers. Relievers, used for immediate relief, are typically short-acting beta agonists. Preventers, used for long-term management, mostly consist of glucocorticoids but may also include oral theophylline, leukotriene antagonists, and long-acting beta agonists alongside steroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Q: What efforts have been made to develop selective beta adrenoceptor agonists?

A

A: Efforts have been made to develop beta adrenoceptor agonists that are selective for either B1 or B2 receptors. It’s easier to develop agonists selective for B2 receptors, as modifying the structure of adrenaline, such as increasing the size of substituents or altering OH groups, can increase selectivity and reduce inactivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Q: What are some effects mediated by beta-adrenoceptors?

A

A: Effects mediated by beta-adrenoceptors include bronchodilation, cardiac stimulation, and metabolic effects such as glycogenolysis and lipolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Q: What modifications have been made to adrenaline to develop selective B2 agonists?

A

A: Modifications to adrenaline to develop selective B2 agonists include increasing the size of substituents, replacing one of the OH groups with CH2OH, or changing its ring position. These modifications help reduce inactivation and increase selectivity for B2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Q: What are SABAs and their characteristics?

A

A: SABAs, or short-acting beta-agonists, are bronchodilators with a duration of action of 4-6 hours. Examples include salbutamol and terbutaline. Salbutamol is 20-fold selective for B1 receptors. They are mainly delivered via metered dose inhaler (MDI).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Q: What are the uses of short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs)?

A

A: SABAs are used as reliever inhalers for immediate relief in asthma. They can be used as the sole drug if asthma symptoms occur twice a week or less, or they can be used in addition to preventers if symptoms are more frequent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Q: What are LABAs and their characteristics?

A

A: LABAs, or long-acting beta-agonists, have a duration of action of 12 hours and are taken twice a day to prevent symptoms. NICE recommends that they are only given with glucocorticoids. Examples include salmeterol and formoterol, which is fast onset and long-acting and used in MART (maintenance and reliever therapy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Q: What is the mechanism of salmeterol?

A

A: Salmeterol’s mechanism involves the terminal portion (exosite) of the alkylamine chain anchoring the molecule to the receptor, while the other end (active center) repetitively activates the receptor. Its lipophilicity (3200) allows it to dissolve into membranes and slowly leak out, remaining in tissues longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Q: What is the signaling pathway of B2 adrenoceptors?

A

A: B2 adrenoceptors act via Gs, stimulating adenylyl cyclase to increase cAMP levels. This activates protein kinase A (PKA), which negatively modulates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) and reduces cellular calcium levels, resulting in the relaxation of smooth muscle in the airway.

33
Q

Q: What are some unwanted effects of beta-agonist bronchodilators, and how can they be minimized?

A

A: Unwanted effects of beta-agonist bronchodilators include tremor, tachycardia, palpitations, nervous tension, hypokalemia, headaches, and muscle cramps. These effects can be minimized by inhalation rather than oral administration.

34
Q

Q: What are the routes of administration for drugs?

A

A: Drugs can be administered through various routes, including oral (by mouth), inhalation (into the lungs), topical (on the skin), intravenous (into a vein), intramuscular (into a muscle), subcutaneous (under the skin), and rectal (into the rectum).

35
Q

Q: What is the drug deposition pattern following the use of a Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI)?

A

A: Following the use of an MDI, approximately 10% of the drug remains in the inhaler, 80% impacts in the mouth, 10% enters the lungs, and 90% of the drug entering the body is swallowed.

36
Q

Q: How does an MDI deliver medication?

A

A: An MDI delivers a fixed dose of medication with each press. This helps avoid large doses entering the systemic circulation, thereby reducing potential side effects. The delivery efficiency can be improved by using a spacer device.

37
Q

Q: What are nebulizers and how do they work?

A

A: Nebulizers aerosolize drug solutions, producing a mist that the patient inhales. This method delivers medication to the lungs. However, nebulizers may not offer significant advantages over MDIs with a spacer and are bulkier and more expensive.

38
Q

Q: What are the advantages of using a spacer with an MDI?

A

A: Using a spacer with an MDI can improve the delivery efficiency of the medication. It helps ensure that more of the medication reaches the lungs and reduces the amount deposited in the mouth, thus optimizing the therapeutic effect while minimizing potential side effects.

39
Q

Q: What are the mechanisms of action of glucocorticoids?

A

A: Glucocorticoids act through nuclear hormone receptors (NHRs), which can transactivate and transrepress genes. Transactivation and transrepression target different genes, with negative hormone responsive elements (nHREs) denoting recognition sequences for transrepression, and glucocorticoid response elements (GREs) for transactivation.

40
Q

Q: What is the difference between hydrocortisone and cortisol?

A

A: Chemically, hydrocortisone and cortisol are the same; the difference lies in their usage—hydrocortisone refers to the drug, while cortisol refers to the hormone.

41
Q

Q: How do glucocorticoid receptors modulate gene expression?

A

A: Glucocorticoid receptors, being nuclear hormone receptors, operate by changing the expression of proteins in cells. They modulate the expression of approximately 1% of genes.

42
Q

Q: What are the effects of glucocorticoids in asthma treatment?

A

A: Glucocorticoids have anti-inflammatory effects in asthma, including decreased activation, proliferation, and migration of immune system cells, decreased expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines, decreased expression of cyclo-oxygenase 2, and increased expression of anti-inflammatory mediators. They are effective preventers of asthma attacks rather than relievers.

43
Q

Q: What are some commonly used glucocorticoids in inhalers?

A

A: Common glucocorticoids used in inhalers include beclometasone, budesonide, and fluticasone. Prednisolone is used when medications are in tablet form and is recommended by NICE, while dexamethasone, with a longer duration of action, is more commonly used in other countries.

44
Q

Q: What is MART in asthma treatment?

A

A: MART (Maintenance And Reliever Therapy) combines a Fast-Acting Beta Agonist (FABA) with a glucocorticoid in a single inhaler. This serves as both a reliever and preventer treatment. Examples include Fostair (formoterol + beclometasone) and Symbicort (budesonide + formoterol). MART offers convenience, better control, and may require lower doses of glucocorticoids.

45
Q

Q: What are the side effects of glucocorticoids, and what is Cushing syndrome?

A

A: Side effects of glucocorticoids include Cushing syndrome, which can result from high doses of glucocorticoid drugs or from tumors causing excess glucocorticoid production by the adrenal cortex. Cushingoid features include moon face, thin skin, poor wound healing, increased abdominal fat, hypertension, muscle wasting, osteoporosis, and a buffalo hump.

46
Q

Q: How do glucocorticoids exert their actions, and what are natural steroids?

A

A: Glucocorticoids exert metabolic, anti-inflammatory, and immunosuppressive effects, while mineralocorticoids regulate water and electrolyte balance. These actions are mediated by different nuclear hormone receptors (NHRs). Natural steroids include cortisol, which exhibits both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activities, and aldosterone, which acts as a mineralocorticoid only.

47
Q

Q: How can side effects of glucocorticoids be reduced?

A

A: Side effects of glucocorticoids can be reduced by optimizing drug delivery methods (such as using inhalation for lower doses), increasing selectivity (using drugs with high glucocorticoid action and low mineralocorticoid action, like dexamethasone), and developing selective glucocorticoid receptor agonists/modulators (SEGRAMS) that favor the transrepression pathway over transactivation.

48
Q

Q: What is the mechanism behind the reduction of side effects by SEGRAMS?

A

A: SEGRAMS (selective glucocorticoid receptor agonists/modulators) are designed to favor the transrepression pathway over transactivation. They achieve this by binding to the glucocorticoid receptor and altering its structure so that it can no longer dimerize, thereby reducing undesirable side effects while still producing anti-inflammatory effects.

49
Q

Q: What is biased agonism, and how does it relate to glucocorticoid receptors?

A

A: Biased agonism refers to receptor activation biased toward one signaling pathway over another. In the context of glucocorticoid receptors, biased agonism can lead to selective activation of either the transactivation or transrepression pathway, potentially reducing side effect liability while maintaining therapeutic efficacy.

50
Q

Q: What is the HPA axis, and how is glucocorticoid production regulated?

A

A: The HPA axis (Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal axis) regulates glucocorticoid production. It begins with the hypothalamus secreting corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH then stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce hydrocortisone (cortisol) and other adrenal steroids. There is a negative feedback mechanism whereby elevated cortisol levels inhibit CRF and ACTH release.

51
Q

Q: What precautions should be taken when discontinuing steroid treatment?

A

A: Steroid treatment should not be stopped abruptly but rather under medical supervision and in a stepped fashion to allow the body’s hormone system to recover. Patients undergoing steroid treatment should carry a steroid treatment card.

52
Q

Q: How might major depressive disorder (MDD) be related to glucocorticoid dysregulation?

A

A: Major depressive disorder (MDD) may be associated with dysregulation of glucocorticoid production. In MDD, there may be reduced negative feedback, leading to increased cortisol levels. Glucocorticoids can have adverse effects on the brain, including increased apoptosis and decreased neurogenesis in the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex, which may contribute to depression.

53
Q

Q: What is Cushing’s syndrome, and how is it related to depression?

A

A: Cushing’s syndrome, characterized by excessive cortisol production, is frequently associated with depression. The elevated cortisol levels in Cushing’s syndrome can lead to various physical and psychological symptoms, including depression.

54
Q

Q: What is the role of phospholipase A2 in inflammatory signaling?

A

A: Phospholipase A2 is an enzyme involved in inflammatory signaling. It releases arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids, which is then metabolized into various signaling molecules, including leukotrienes and prostaglandins.

55
Q

Q: How are leukotrienes involved in asthma?

A

A: Leukotrienes play a key role in asthma. They are produced by mast cells, eosinophils, basophils, and macrophages and act as agonists for cysteinyl-leukotriene receptors. They contribute to bronchial smooth muscle contraction, stimulation of mucus secretion, and increased microvascular permeability, all of which worsen asthma symptoms.

56
Q

Q: What are leukotriene receptor antagonists and their use in asthma treatment?

A

A: Leukotriene receptor antagonists, often ending in “-lukast,” are drugs given orally for asthma that has not responded to short-acting beta agonists (SABAs) and glucocorticoids. They are effective in conditions such as exercise-induced and aspirin-induced asthma. While they act as bronchodilators, they are not as potent as SABAs and may cause adverse effects such as abdominal pain, gastrointestinal tract issues, headaches, and psychiatric effects.

57
Q

Q: Why are muscarinic receptor antagonists logical in the treatment of asthma?

A

A: Muscarinic receptor antagonists are logical in asthma treatment because acetylcholine (Ach) induces bronchoconstriction and increased mucus secretion. Blocking muscarinic receptors (mAchRs) counteracts these effects.

58
Q

Q: Why are asthma cigarettes no longer used in asthma treatment?

A

A: Asthma cigarettes, containing datura stramonium leaves as a source of muscarinic receptor antagonists like hyoscine and atropine, are no longer used due to their non-selectivity and systemic side effects in the parasympathetic nervous system.

59
Q

Q: What are the two structurally related compounds used in asthma treatment as muscarinic receptor antagonists?

A

A: The two structurally related compounds used in asthma treatment as muscarinic receptor antagonists are:

Ipratropium bromide (short-acting), used as an add-on therapy in severe asthma and COPD. It is available in inhaler and nebulizer forms.
Tiotropium bromide (long-acting), used for severe asthma and COPD, available in inhaler form.

60
Q

Q: What are the unwanted side effects of muscarinic receptor antagonists used in asthma treatment?

A

A: The unwanted side effects of muscarinic receptor antagonists used in asthma treatment include dry mouth, constipation, headache, nausea, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmias.

61
Q

Q: What class of drugs does theophylline belong to?

A

A: Theophylline belongs to the alkylxanthine class of drugs.

62
Q

Q: How is theophylline administered for a life-threatening asthma attack?

A

A: Theophylline can be administered orally in capsules or intravenously.

63
Q

Q: What is theophylline often complexed with when given by injection?

A

A: Theophylline is often complexed with ethylenediamine to improve solubility when given by injection.

64
Q

Q: What are the mechanisms of theophylline’s action?

A

: 1. Theophylline is a non-selective inhibitor of phosphodiesterase (PDE), leading to increased cAMP levels, promoting bronchodilation, and reducing inflammation.

It acts as an antagonist of adenosine receptors, promoting bronchodilation but causing some cardiac side effects.

65
Q

Q: What are the common side effects of theophylline?

A

A: Nausea, anxiety, headache, sleep disturbances, tachycardia, and convulsions are common side effects of theophylline.

66
Q

Q: What is the relationship between dose and toxicity of theophylline?

A

A: Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic window, and toxicity can occur at doses around 2 times the therapeutic dose, with death possible at around 4 times the therapeutic dose.

67
Q

Q: What factors can affect the plasma levels of theophylline?

A

A: Liver disease can increase plasma levels of theophylline. Additionally, theophylline has many interactions with other drugs, some of which increase its plasma concentration, while others decrease it by inducing enzymes that metabolize theophylline.

68
Q

Q: What is the role of NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence)?

A

A: NICE defines standards for healthcare and promotes health by assessing evidence about different diseases and medical interventions, providing guidance on the most cost-effective ways to treat patients within the NHS.

69
Q

Q: Why does NICE provide guidance on treatments within the NHS?

A

A: NICE aims to ensure that different treatments are available consistently across all NHS hospitals, avoiding discrepancies in access to care.

70
Q

Q: What legal requirement was imposed on NHS trusts since 2005 regarding treatments recommended by NICE?

A

A: Since 2005, NHS trusts are legally required to fund any treatments recommended by NICE.

71
Q

Q: What are some controversies surrounding NICE recommendations?

A

A: Controversies arise due to the finite resources of the NHS. Some drugs are expensive and may only offer marginal benefits. However, even small improvements may seem valuable to desperately ill patients.

72
Q

Q: What is a QALY, and how is it used in healthcare decision-making?

A

A: QALY stands for Quality-Adjusted Life Year. It is used to assess the value of healthcare interventions. One QALY is equivalent to one year of perfect health.

73
Q

Q: How is the concept of QALY applied in healthcare decision-making?

A

A: The starting point for someone with a quality of life at 50% of normal is 0.5 QALYs. Treatments are evaluated based on the increase in QALYs they provide. The cost per QALY is calculated, with an upper limit of £30,000 for a treatment to be considered cost-effective.

74
Q

Q: How can QALYs be calculated and used to compare treatments?

A

A: QALYs can be calculated by multiplying survival time by the average health state. This allows for the comparison of treatments in terms of their effectiveness and cost per QALY gained.

75
Q

Q: What is omalizumab, and what is its mechanism of action?

A

A: Omalizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody targeting IgE. It binds to IgE, leading to its rapid removal from circulation. This action makes it a preventive drug for allergic asthma.

76
Q

Q: How does omalizumab benefit patients with allergic asthma?

A

A: Omalizumab prevents the interaction of antigen-presenting cells with Th cells, inhibiting the differentiation of B lymphocytes into plasma cells and the production of IgE antibodies. By binding IgE, it blocks the process of priming mast cells for activation, thus reducing allergic reactions.

77
Q

Q: What is the controversy surrounding the use of omalizumab?

A

A: The cost per Quality-Adjusted Life Year (QALY) of omalizumab is considered too high by NICE, leading to the cessation of prescriptions to people under 12 years old. However, after protests and media coverage, this decision was reversed.

78
Q

Q: What other cases of drug access controversies have occurred, particularly in the context of cancer treatments?

A

A: There have been similar controversies, mostly involving anti-cancer drugs. The government established a special cancer drug fund in 2011 to address this issue, but it has been overspent, resulting in limited access to many drugs.