Elements Of Apologetics Flashcards

1
Q

What are some reasons young Christians are leaving the church according to a 2016 Pew Research Center survey?

A
  • Learning about evolution when I went away to college
  • Religion is the opiate of the people
  • Rational thought makes religion go out the window
  • Lack of any sort of scientific or specific evidence of a creator
  • I just realized somewhere along the line that I didn’t really believe it
  • I’m doing a lot more learning, studying and kind of making decisions myself rather than listening to someone else

These reasons highlight a dissatisfaction with the credibility of the Christian message rather than personal grievances with church leadership or politics.

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2
Q

What does Tim Keller emphasize about inherited beliefs?

A

It is no longer sufficient to hold beliefs just because you inherited them.

This perspective encourages individuals to critically examine their beliefs rather than accepting them passively.

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3
Q

What did W. K. Clifford argue about avoiding doubts regarding one’s beliefs?

A

Ducking questions regarding one’s beliefs is not only irresponsible, but also immoral.

Clifford believed that suppressing doubts leads to a failure to engage with the truth.

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4
Q

What is the suggested approach towards doubts according to the text?

A

It is good to impose doubts upon our beliefs and investigate their claims with urgency and passion.

This approach encourages critical thinking and reinforces one’s understanding of their beliefs.

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5
Q

How does apologetics benefit believers according to John Frame?

A

Apologetics becomes useful for believers who sometimes doubt, even apart from its role in dialogue with unbelievers.

This highlights the importance of apologetics in strengthening personal faith.

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6
Q

What did Douglas Groothuis say about the purpose of apologetics?

A

Apologetics fortifies believers in their faith, whether they are wrestling with doubts or seeking a deeper grounding for their biblical beliefs.

This indicates that apologetics serves both as a defense against outside challenges and as a support for internal faith.

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7
Q

What did Edward J. Carnell criticize about how some teachers approach students’ faith?

A

He criticized teachers for withholding evidences that may disturb the student’s faith, calling it ‘robbery.’

Carnell believed that this approach leads to academic conditioning rather than true education.

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8
Q

What is a key message regarding facing attacks on faith?

A

If you want to stand for God’s truth, you will eventually face attack and may need to adopt the resolve to say, ‘Bring it on.’

This encourages a proactive stance in defending one’s beliefs.

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9
Q

Fill in the blank: According to the text, the study of _______ is helpful for both the unbeliever and the believer.

A

[apologetics]

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10
Q

What does the term ‘apologetics’ originate from?

A

The Greek word ‘apologia’, meaning a defense against an accusation

The term is often associated with courtroom defenses.

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11
Q

In what context did Socrates use the term ‘apologia’?

A

To defend himself against the charge of preaching strange gods

This is detailed in Plato’s dialogue, ‘The Apology’.

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12
Q

What is a major challenge faced by Christians today according to the text?

A

Western culture is increasingly less supportive of Christian claims.

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13
Q

What biblical verse illustrates the impact of early Christians?

A

Acts 17:6, where it says, ‘These men who have upset the world have come here also.’

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14
Q

According to 1 Peter 3:15, what must one possess to offer the hope of the gospel?

A

‘The hope that is in you.’

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: The hope in Christ’s redemptive work must eventually become _______.

A

[your own]

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16
Q

What must believers eventually express about their faith according to the text?

A

‘It is no longer because of what you said that I believe, for I have heard for myself.’

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17
Q

What role does apologetics play in a believer’s life?

A

It involves the defense of one’s faith and the offer of faith to a skeptical world.

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18
Q

According to Matthew 5:13, what happens if salt loses its taste?

A

It is no longer good for anything except to be thrown out.

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19
Q

What must an unbeliever do to fill their inner explanatory slots?

A

They must have a personal encounter with faith.

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20
Q

What does Psalm 34:8 encourage believers to do?

A

‘Taste and see that the Lord is good.’

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21
Q

What is the intended purpose of studying apologetics according to the text?

A

For personal use in defending one’s faith.

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22
Q

What metaphor is used to illustrate the need for preparation before engaging with skepticism?

A

Putting up an umbrella before going out into the rain.

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23
Q

According to 1 Peter 3:15, how should believers be prepared?

A

Always being ready to make a defense to everyone who asks.

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24
Q

What is the second challenge for an apologist as presented in the text?

A

To defend a weaker Christian against atheistic credibilities.

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25
Q

What metaphor does Job use to describe defending the weak?

A

I broke the jaws of the wicked and snatched the prey from his teeth.

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26
Q

What must believers do if they have the means to help those in the grip of evil?

A

They must step in and help.

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27
Q

What does 1 Peter 3:13-15 emphasize regarding believers and their defense of faith?

A

Believers should be ready to make a defense for their hope with gentleness and reverence.

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28
Q

According to Luke 12:11-12, what should believers not worry about when brought before authorities?

A

They should not worry about how or what to speak in their defense, as the Holy Spirit will teach them.

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29
Q

How does Peter suggest believers should respond when slandered or threatened?

A

Maintain a good conscience and give a reasoned defense of their beliefs.

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30
Q

In which book of the New Testament is the Greek word ‘apologia’ most commonly used?

A

The book of Acts.

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31
Q

Fill in the blank: According to 1 Peter 3:15, believers should always be ready to make a _______.

A

[defense]

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32
Q

What rhetorical strength did Stephen demonstrate in Acts 6:9-10?

A

He spoke with wisdom and the Spirit, which his opponents could not cope with.

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33
Q

True or False: According to 1 John 4:1, believers are encouraged to test the spirits to discern their origin.

A

True.

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34
Q

What does 2 Corinthians 10:5 highlight about capturing thoughts?

A

It emphasizes taking every thought captive to the obedience of Christ.

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35
Q

What is the context in which Paul used the word ‘apologia’ in Philippians 1:16?

A

He referred to his appointment for the defense of the gospel.

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36
Q

What should believers do according to Titus 1:9 regarding sound doctrine?

A

Exhort in sound doctrine and refute those who contradict.

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37
Q

In Acts 17:16-17, where was Paul reasoning with Jews and God-fearing Gentiles?

A

In the synagogue and the marketplace.

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38
Q

According to Philippians 1:7, what is significant about Paul’s imprisonment?

A

It relates to the defense and confirmation of the gospel.

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39
Q

Fill in the blank: According to Luke 21:14, believers should make up their minds not to prepare beforehand to _______.

A

[defend themselves]

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40
Q

What does the phrase ‘sanctify Christ as Lord in your hearts’ imply in the context of apologetics?

A

It indicates a deep commitment to Christ that underpins the believer’s defense.

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41
Q

What is meant by ‘truth’ in the context of this course?

A

An accurate description of reality

Truth is defined in relation to the correspondence theory, which asserts that a statement is true if it corresponds to reality.

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42
Q

What is the correspondence theory of truth?

A

A theory stating that a statement is true if it corresponds to reality

This perspective emphasizes that truth is non-negotiable and essential for Christian beliefs.

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43
Q

How does the text define ‘reality’?

A

What is there

The term ‘objective reality’ is used to clarify that the identity of an object is inherent to it, not dependent on the observer.

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44
Q

What is the difference between truth and knowledge?

A

Truth is an accurate description of reality; knowledge is a personal claim to such reality.

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45
Q

What does knowledge refer to in this context?

A

How a truth claim is justified

Knowledge is an epistemological concept, contrasting with truth’s metaphysical nature.

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46
Q

What is a proposition?

A

Any statement that provides a claim to truth.

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47
Q

According to Plato, what must knowledge be considered beyond a truthful claim?

A

More than merely a truthful claim; it requires justification.

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48
Q

What is the proposed definition of knowledge by epistemologists?

A

Justified true belief.

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49
Q

What warning does the apostle Paul give regarding knowledge?

A

To avoid worldly and empty chatter and arguments falsely called ‘knowledge’.

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50
Q

Fill in the blank: A judgement is said to be true when it conforms to _______.

A

external reality.

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51
Q

What does the term ‘essentialism’ refer to in the context of truth?

A

The identity of an object depends upon its intrinsic essence.

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52
Q

True or False: Truth and knowledge are the same idea.

A

False.

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53
Q

What does it mean to have a justified truth claim?

A

To have a basis for asserting that the claim is accurate.

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54
Q

In the statement ‘Sally sees the tree,’ what is the object?

A

The tree.

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55
Q

What is the significance of the correspondence view of truth for Christians?

A

It is essential for maintaining the integrity of Christian beliefs.

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56
Q

According to Thomas Aquinas, when is a judgement considered true?

A

When it conforms to external reality.

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57
Q

What did D. Elton Trueblood summarize regarding minds, propositions, and objects?

A

Minds may be knowing or ignorant; propositions may be true or false; objects may be real or imaginary.

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58
Q

Fill in the blank: Truth deals with what is ‘out there,’ while knowledge deals with what I surmise about truth ‘in _______.

A

here.

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59
Q

What is the Correspondent Method for Knowing?

A

Acquiring knowledge through correspondence between observation and stored awareness

This method asserts that if an observation matches the stored awareness of what it is, it is considered knowledge.

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60
Q

How does the Correspondent Method justify knowledge claims?

A

By matching perception with external reality

An example is claiming ‘the baseball is in the yard’ based on visual confirmation.

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61
Q

What is meant by ‘justified true belief’ in the context of knowledge?

A

A belief that is true and can be justified through evidence or observation

This definition was challenged by Edmund Gettier, who presented scenarios where beliefs were justified but not knowledge.

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62
Q

Who is Edmund Gettier and what is his contribution to epistemology?

A

An American philosopher known for the ‘Gettier Problem,’ challenging the ‘justified true belief’ definition of knowledge

Gettier’s work in 1963 demonstrated that justified true beliefs could be true for reasons unrelated to the justification.

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63
Q

What is the Gettier Problem?

A

Examples of justified true beliefs that do not constitute knowledge due to flawed justification

Illustrations like ‘A Cow in a Field’ show how true beliefs can arise from misleading observations.

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64
Q

What is the empirical approach in the context of knowledge?

A

A reliance on observation and the senses to acquire knowledge

This approach emphasizes the importance of sensory experience in forming truth claims.

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65
Q

What is induction in empirical reasoning?

A

A method of confirming knowledge by compiling multiple observations from different perspectives

Induction helps improve the reliability of correspondent claims by comparing observations.

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66
Q

Why is Farmer Field’s claim about Daisy problematic?

A

His claim was based on a narrow observation that was true by coincidence, not by proper justification

Farmer Field saw a shape that resembled Daisy, but it was actually a piece of paper.

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67
Q

What does it mean for a conclusion to be provisional?

A

It represents the best temporary understanding based on current observations, subject to change with new evidence

Scientific conclusions are often provisional as they rely on accumulated data.

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68
Q

Fill in the blank: The theory of knowledge that relies on observation and senses is known as _______.

A

[empirical approach]

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69
Q

True or False: Inductive reasoning guarantees absolute certainty in knowledge claims.

A

False

Inductive reasoning leads to probabilistic conclusions, not certainties.

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70
Q

What phrase summarizes the empiricist’s view of truth?

A

‘Truth is what endless corroborating observations will yield.’

This definition emphasizes the reliance on continuous observation to establish what is true.

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71
Q

What is the provisional nature of correspondent truth claims?

A

It implies that future observations could potentially invalidate current claims.

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72
Q

How is the network of past correspondent identifications structured?

A

It is cataloged within a vast network in memory that fits with the layout of existence.

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73
Q

What does Groothuis assert about truths?

A

All truths cohere with one another as expressions of God’s harmonious objective reality.

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74
Q

What does the epistemic method of coherence propose?

A

A proposition can be justified if it fits with all other propositions already deemed true.

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75
Q

What is the difference between coherence and correspondence?

A

Coherence seeks what makes sense, while correspondence seeks what matches.

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76
Q

What analogy is used to explain coherence in truth claims?

A

The analogy of a crossword puzzle, where words must fit together.

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77
Q

According to Augustine, how can uncertain propositions gain certainty?

A

When joined by valid inference to propositions that are true and certain.

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78
Q

What is the distinction between coherence and metaphysics?

A

Coherence is a theory of knowledge, not of truth.

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79
Q

What does Groothuis say about the logical consistency of the biblical worldview?

A

It is a necessary condition of its truth but not a sufficient condition.

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80
Q

What is the correspondence theory of truth?

A

It defines truth as correspondence and coherence as a necessary, but not sufficient, test of truth.

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81
Q

What enhances the coherent, or rational, approach?

A

The methodology of deduction.

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82
Q

How does deduction relate to rational reasoning?

A

It begins with unquestionable premises and uses valid arguments to derive truth.

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83
Q

What does coherence seek in relation to truth claims?

A

It seeks to determine if a claim fits within the broader context of reality.

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84
Q

What is the primary function of the epistemic effort of correspondence?

A

To generate truth claims.

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85
Q

Can coherence generate a predicted correspondence?

A

Yes, as demonstrated by Einstein’s thought experiments.

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86
Q

What are the two epistemic methods discussed?

A

Correspondence and coherence.

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87
Q

Fill in the blank: The method that substantiates the conclusions of correspondence is _______.

A

Induction.

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88
Q

Fill in the blank: The method that substantiates the conclusions of coherence is _______.

A

Deduction.

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89
Q

What does the rational approach emphasize?

A

Uncovering general principles that can accommodate particular truth claims.

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90
Q

What is the relationship between coherence and the Christian worldview?

A

Coherence within its features is necessary for its truthfulness.

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91
Q

True or False: Coherence theory of truth is sufficient to prove the truth of a claim.

A

False.

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92
Q

What is the primary question Classical Apologetics seeks to address?

A

Is our faith reasonable?

This question is rooted in the belief that the unexamined faith is not worth believing.

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93
Q

Which philosophical figures are primarily associated with Classical Apologetics?

A

Aristotle and Thomas Aquinas.

Their thoughts form the foundation of the Classical apologetic approach.

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94
Q

What are the two steps in Classical Apologetics reasoning?

A
  1. Use philosophical arguments to indicate the existence of a creator.
  2. Use historical arguments to verify Christian truth claims.
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95
Q

What is the first step of Classical Apologetics considered to be?

A

A prelude to other evidences.

This step prepares for the presentation of specific miraculous truths.

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96
Q

What does C. S. Lewis state about approaching the God of Christian theology?

A

I am not yet within a hundred miles of the God of Christian theology.

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97
Q

According to Francis Schaeffer, what is the first part of the Gospel?

A

God is there.

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98
Q

How did the apostle Paul begin his address to the Athenians?

A

He first targeted the creation before mentioning Jesus.

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99
Q

What are Theistic proofs in Classical Apologetics?

A

Deductive arguments positing an indubitable feature of existence as a premise to conclude God’s existence.

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100
Q

What are the three fundamental laws of logic both Christians and atheists must adhere to?

A
  1. The Law of Identity.
  2. The Law of Non-Contradiction.
  3. The Law of the Excluded Middle.
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101
Q

Fill in the blank: The Law of Identity states that _______.

A

A is A.

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102
Q

Fill in the blank: The Law of Non-Contradiction states that _______.

A

A is not non-A.

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103
Q

Fill in the blank: The Law of the Excluded Middle states that _______.

A

Either A or non-A.

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104
Q

What does J. P. Moreland assert about God’s behavior in relation to logic?

A

God never behaves illogically in the proper sense.

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105
Q

What is general revelation in the context of Classical Apologetics?

A

God has revealed Himself in nature and conscience.

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106
Q

What does natural theology engage in?

A

Logic to derive rational arguments from God’s existence.

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107
Q

According to Psalm 19:1-4, what do the heavens declare?

A

The glory of God.

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108
Q

What does Romans 1:20 state about God’s attributes?

A

His invisible attributes, eternal power, and divine nature have been clearly seen.

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109
Q

What is the Classical apologist’s approach to finding common ground with non-Christians?

A

Emphasizing coherent forms within the cosmos and the laws of logic.

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110
Q

True or False: Classical Apologetics begins with addressing specific doctrines of Christianity.

A

False.

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111
Q

What does Groothuis suggest about the apostle Paul’s approach to common ground?

A

Paul noted the Athenians were ‘very religious’ to build a bridge.

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112
Q

What is the classical apologetic approach associated with?

A

The contribution of Thomas Aquinas and Aristotle

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113
Q

What are Aquinas’ Five Ways?

A

Arguments for the existence of God from change, efficient cause, possibility and necessity, gradation, and governance

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114
Q

What does the first way of Aquinas argue?

A

The argument from change; everything that is changed is changed by something else, leading to a first cause of change which is God

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115
Q

What is the second way based on?

A

The nature of an efficient cause; nothing can be the efficient cause of itself, leading to a first efficient cause, which is God

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116
Q

What does the third way discuss?

A

The nature of possibility and necessity; there must be something necessary in itself to account for the existence of contingent beings, which is God

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117
Q

What is the focus of the fourth way?

A

The gradation of things; there is a greatest being that is the source of all that is good, true, and noble, which is God

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118
Q

What does the fifth way emphasize?

A

The governance of things; natural bodies work towards an end by design, implying the existence of an intelligent being, which is God

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119
Q

What acronym can be used to remember Aquinas’ Five Ways?

A

MEN-GP

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120
Q

What does the acronym MEN-GP stand for?

A
  • Move
  • Efficient
  • Necessary
  • Greatest
  • Purpose
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121
Q

What is the critique of Aquinas’ Five Ways regarding the nature of God?

A

They do not necessarily identify the God of the Bible, only a generic instigator or deity

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122
Q

What is the Rationalist Objection to the existence of God?

A
  1. There is no evidence that God exists.
  2. If there is no evidence, then it is irrational to believe that He does.
  3. Therefore, it is irrational to believe that God exists.
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123
Q

What common ground do Classical apologists share with skeptics?

A

Agreement on the need for evidence for God’s existence

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124
Q

What is the goal of the Classical apologist in response to the Rationalist Objection?

A

To challenge Premise 1 regarding the evidence for God’s existence

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125
Q

What are the five headings under which the theistic proofs are organized?

A
  1. Ontological
  2. Anthropological
  3. Moral
  4. Cosmological
  5. Teleological

These categories help to conclude God’s existence by examining the nature of God, man, and physical existence.

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126
Q

What does the ontological argument focus on?

A

God’s uniqueness

This argument questions whether there is something about our conception of God that confirms His existence.

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127
Q

What does the anthropological argument examine?

A

Human morality and immateriality

This argument explores whether our realization of human immateriality demonstrates God’s existence.

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128
Q

What is the main question of the moral argument?

A

Does our moral awareness demonstrate a moral standard that requires God’s existence?

This argument posits that a viable moral standard can only exist if God exists.

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129
Q

What does the cosmological argument investigate?

A

Natural contingencies

This argument questions whether our awareness of natural contingencies indicates the existence of God.

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130
Q

What is the focus of the teleological argument?

A

Natural specificities

This argument asks whether awareness of natural specificities indicates the existence of God.

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131
Q

How is the ontological argument related to Aquinas’ work?

A

It is related to Aquinas’ 4th way dealing with graduated greatness

This connection helps to ground the ontological argument in classical philosophical thought.

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132
Q

How does the anthropological argument challenge naturalism?

A

Naturalism cannot give us the entire picture of humanness

This argument emphasizes the limitations of naturalism in explaining human immateriality.

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133
Q

What is the relationship between the cosmological argument and Aquinas’ work?

A

It is related to Aquinas’ 3rd way dealing with necessity and contingency

This connection provides a philosophical basis for the cosmological argument.

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134
Q

What does the teleological argument relate to in Aquinas’ work?

A

Aquinas’ 5th way dealing with purpose

This relationship highlights the purpose-driven aspect of the teleological argument.

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135
Q

True or False: The moral argument suggests that moral standards exist independently of God.

A

False

The moral argument posits that moral standards require God’s existence to be viable.

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136
Q

What is the Ontological Argument?

A

The Ontological Argument claims that proper reasoning about the idea of a Perfect Being generates the conclusion that God exists.

It reasons apart from any phenomenon of existence.

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137
Q

Who developed the first form of the Ontological Argument?

A

Anselm of Canterbury

Anselm’s work ‘Proslogion’ was written around 1079.

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138
Q

What is Anselm’s famous definition of God?

A

God is ‘that than which no greater thing can be conceived.’

This definition implies that any attributes assigned to entities find their maximum expression in God.

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139
Q

What does ontology refer to?

A

The nature of ‘being.’

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140
Q

What is the first syllogism of Anselm’s argument?

A
  1. God is ‘that than which nothing greater can be conceived.’
  2. Existence is greater than nonexistence.
  3. Therefore, God exists.
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141
Q

What analogy does Anselm use to illustrate his argument?

A

The analogy of a painter conceiving a painting.

The painter has an idea in understanding before creating the actual painting.

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142
Q

What is the difference between existence and nonexistence according to Anselm?

A

Existence is an attribute that is greater than nonexistence.

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143
Q

What does Anselm’s second version of the argument claim?

A

God cannot be conceived not to exist.

This version introduces the concepts of necessity and contingency.

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144
Q

What is a necessary being according to Anselm?

A

A being that does not depend upon anything outside of itself for existence.

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145
Q

What are great-making properties?

A

Attributes that provide a status for the possessor that transcends the features of a lesser entity.

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146
Q

What did Gaunilo of Marmoutiers argue against Anselm’s Ontological Argument?

A

He used a reductio ad absurdum with the example of a perfect island to challenge the argument.

This example posits that the existence of a perfect island could be argued similarly to God’s existence.

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147
Q

What is a contingent being?

A

A being whose existence depends upon outside circumstances.

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148
Q

What is the main critique of Gaunilo’s rebuttal?

A

Gaunilo inserted a contingent entity, while Anselm’s argument requires a necessary being.

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149
Q

What did Anselm claim about the concept of a Perfect Being?

A

The concept of a Perfect Being is not impossible, since it is neither nonsensical nor self-contradictory.

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150
Q

True or False: The Ontological Argument relies on external observations to prove God’s existence.

A

False.

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151
Q

What is the significance of existence being a greater property than nonexistence?

A

It supports the conclusion that if God is the greatest conceivable being, then He must exist.

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152
Q

What are the implications of a personal being being greater than an impersonal being?

A

A personal being is an agent who brings about states of affairs according to his thoughts and designs.

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153
Q

Fill in the blank: God is defined as a _______ or Perfect Being.

A

maximally great being.

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154
Q

What does it mean for a being to be maximally perfect?

A

It cannot be contingent and must possess all qualities that are better to have.

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155
Q

What is the relationship between a triune being and a unitarian being in terms of greatness?

A

A triune being is greater than a unitarian being.

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156
Q

Who revived Anselm’s Ontological Argument in the seventeenth century?

A

René Descartes

Descartes is known for reformulating the ontological argument for the existence of God.

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157
Q

What is Descartes’ conclusion regarding the existence of God?

A

Existence is a perfection of God

Descartes argues that it is absurd to think of a perfect being lacking existence.

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158
Q

List the main points of Descartes’ ontological argument.

A
  • God is a supremely perfect being.
  • A property of perfection is existence.
  • Therefore, God must exist.
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159
Q

What analogy does Descartes use to explain God’s existence?

A

Valleys imply ridges

Descartes suggests that just as valleys and ridges are interconnected, so too are existence and the essence of God.

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160
Q

What was Immanuel Kant’s main critique of Descartes’ argument?

A

Existence cannot be a predicate

Kant argues that saying something exists does not add any meaningful information about that thing.

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161
Q

What is a predicate in grammatical terms?

A

Part of a sentence that gives added information about the subject

For example, in ‘John is tall,’ ‘is tall’ is the predicate.

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162
Q

According to Kant, what is the substantive difference between ‘John exists’ and merely mentioning John?

A

There is no substantive difference

Kant believes that existence does not add any new information to the concept of John.

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163
Q

What example does Kant use to illustrate his point about existence?

A

Imagining a pile of 100 thalers

Kant questions what is added by specifying that the coins exist.

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164
Q

How does Kant differentiate between imagining existing and non-existing items?

A

Existing items are in the actual world, while non-existing items are in a possible world

This distinction shows that existence can be informative depending on the context.

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165
Q

Fill in the blank: Kant argues that ‘Being is obviously not a real ______.’

A

predicate

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166
Q

What is a ‘possible world’ in the context of Kant’s argument?

A

A world that does not exist but could exist

This concept helps differentiate between actual and hypothetical existence.

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167
Q

What are the five expressions or modes of being utilized in the modal ontological argument?

A

Actuality, possibility, impossibility, contingency, necessity

These modes are common predicates in modal logic.

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168
Q

Who is best known for adapting the ontological argument along modal lines?

A

Alvin Plantinga

Plantinga is a Christian philosopher recognized for this adaptation.

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169
Q

What is a possible world?

A

What could have happened instead of our actual world

It includes entities that could exist in a world like ours.

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170
Q

How many possible worlds are there?

A

An infinite number

Possible worlds do not exist; they are imaginative scenarios.

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171
Q

What is the distinction between possible worlds and multiverse theory?

A

Possible worlds do not actually exist; multiverse theory posits actual alternate worlds

Possible worlds are imaginative constructs.

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172
Q

What does the modal ontological argument suggest about God’s existence?

A

If God exists in some possible worlds, then God exists in all possible worlds

This leads to the conclusion that if God exists in all possible worlds, He exists in the actual world.

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173
Q

Which premise of the modal ontological argument raises confusion regarding God’s existence in all possible worlds?

A

Premise three

It states that if God exists in some possible worlds, then He exists in all possible worlds.

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174
Q

What substitute can be used for ‘God’ to understand the argument better?

A

Maximally Great Being

This substitution helps clarify the necessity involved in the argument.

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175
Q

What is required for a necessary being to exist in possible worlds?

A

It must exist in all possible worlds

This is based on the definition of a necessary entity.

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176
Q

What question should be asked if an atheist claims that the existence of God is not possible?

A

‘What is the contradiction that makes it not possible?’

This challenges the assertion and seeks clarification.

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177
Q

What do many Christian apologists think of the ontological argument?

A

They reject its merit

Some view it as a philosophical trick and argue against defining God into existence.

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178
Q

What is a common critique of defining God as a maximally great being?

A

‘Isn’t it your definition of God that makes His nonexistence absurd?’

This question challenges the logic of the definition itself.

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179
Q

Fill in the blank: The modal ontological argument utilizes notions of _______ and _______ to discuss God’s nature.

A

actuality, possibility

These concepts are integral to the argument’s reasoning.

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180
Q

True or False: Possible worlds exist in reality.

A

False

Possible worlds are theoretical constructs, not actual entities.

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181
Q

What is the problem of evil in relation to the concept of God?

A

The problem of evil questions how a maximally great being (God) can be omnipotent and omnibenevolent while evil exists.

This is often framed through the inconsistent triad of God’s omnipotence, omnibenevolence, and the existence of evil.

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182
Q

What are the three propositions that represent the problem of evil?

A
  • God is omnipotent (maximally powerful)
  • God is omnibenevolent (maximally good)
  • Evil exists
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183
Q

What is an inconsistent triad?

A

An inconsistent triad is a set of three propositions where at most only two can be consistently true at the same time.

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184
Q

What is a theodicy?

A

A theodicy is an attempt to vindicate divine goodness and providence in light of the existence of evil.

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185
Q

What do skeptics argue regarding the existence of God and evil?

A

Skeptics argue that the existence of evil is incompatible with the notion of an all-powerful and all-loving God.

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186
Q

What strategy can believers use when confronted with the problem of evil?

A

Believers can ask for clarification on the meaning of terms like ‘all powerful,’ ‘all loving,’ and ‘evil’ to engage skeptics.

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187
Q

What was Jesus’ approach when challenged by the Pharisees about authority?

A

Jesus responded by asking them a question that challenged their reasoning and precommitments.

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188
Q

How can the problem of evil be dismissed according to some apologists?

A

Apologists can dismiss the argument by asking for a definition of evil, questioning the basis of the skeptic’s claims.

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189
Q

What is the significance of the statement that ‘the problem of evil is only a problem for those who believe in God’s existence’?

A

It indicates that atheists, when consistent with their worldview, do not have a problem with evil as they lack an absolute standard for good and evil.

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190
Q

Fill in the blank: An impersonalist philosophy cannot distinguish good and evil sufficiently even to raise the problem against _______.

A

[Christianity]

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191
Q

What does Kreeft and Tacelli argue about the unbeliever’s concern over evil?

A

They argue that the outrage at evil suggests awareness of a standard of goodness, implying proof of God’s existence.

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192
Q

True or False: The atheist can justify moral outrage against evil within their worldview.

A

False

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193
Q

What dual role does apologetics serve in relation to the problem of evil?

A

Apologetics defends the faith from outside attacks and encourages believers in the veracity of their faith.

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194
Q

What does the skeptic imply by appealing to God’s omnibenevolence?

A

The skeptic claims that if God is maximally good, there should be no evil and suffering.

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195
Q

What is the ‘Best Possible World’ Argument regarding human free agency?

A

It posits that a world with evil and free agency is better than one without evil and free agency.

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196
Q

What do Kreeft and Tacelli argue about free will and morality?

A

They argue that without free will, all moral meaning disappears from language and life.

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197
Q

How does the free agency argument resolve the inconsistent triad?

A

It claims that evil plus freedom is a greater good than no evil plus no freedom.

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198
Q

What types of evil does the free agency argument not address?

A

It does not address natural disasters or suffering from genetic disorders.

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199
Q

What was Gottfried Wilhelm von Leibniz’s proposal regarding the inclusion of evil?

A

He proposed that the inclusion of evil is necessary for God’s wisdom to bring about His good plan.

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200
Q

According to Leibniz, why must the actual world be the most perfect possible?

A

Because all possibilities in God’s understanding claim existence in proportion to their perfections.

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201
Q

What do Keller and Lewis suggest about suffering and glory?

A

Keller suggests that the world is greater for having been broken, and Lewis states heaven will turn agony into glory.

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202
Q

What does James 1:13-14 say about God and temptation?

A

It states that God cannot be tempted with evil and does not tempt anyone.

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203
Q

What distinction did the Reformers make regarding God’s actions?

A

They distinguished between what God decrees (wills) and what He ordains (allows).

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204
Q

What is the difference between suffering and evil?

A

Suffering comprises the reception of bad things, while evil comprises the doer of bad things.

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205
Q

What does Malcolm Muggeridge argue about the elimination of suffering?

A

He argues that eliminating suffering would make the world intolerable.

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206
Q

How does suffering contribute to a person’s perspective on life, according to Tim Keller?

A

For those who believe in an afterlife, suffering can become a vital experience for good.

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207
Q

Fill in the blank: God causes all things to work together for good to those who _______.

A

[love God]

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208
Q

What does Romans 15:1 suggest about community relations in times of suffering?

A

It suggests that the strong should bear the weaknesses of the weak.

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209
Q

What is the ‘Morally Sufficient Reason’ Argument?

A

It questions how the observed evil could be the best pathway for good purposes.

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210
Q

What analogy does C.S. Lewis use to describe the sinner’s perspective on God?

A

He uses the analogy of ‘God in the dock,’ implying that sinners place God on trial.

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211
Q

What does the existence of suffering prompt in community relations?

A

It can prompt the activity of helping one another.

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212
Q

According to Romans 12:26, what happens when one member of the community suffers?

A

If one member suffers, all the members suffer with it.

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213
Q

What does the concept of ‘soul building’ refer to in the context of suffering?

A

It refers to how suffering can lead to personal growth and humility.

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214
Q

What does Psalm 119:71 indicate about affliction?

A

It states that affliction can help one learn God’s statutes.

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215
Q

Why did Job struggle to understand God’s actions?

A

Job tried to place God in the dock and demanded an explanation for His dealings

Job expressed a desire to present his case and fill his mouth with arguments against God.

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216
Q

What does God ask Job regarding the creation of the earth?

A

Where were you when I laid the foundation of the earth?

This highlights Job’s ignorance of God’s omnipotent actions.

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217
Q

How does God respond to Moses about mercy?

A

I will have mercy on whom I have mercy

This indicates God’s sovereignty in dispensing mercy.

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218
Q

What realization does Job come to about his demands of God?

A

Job acknowledges his insignificance and refrains from further argument

Job lays his hand on his mouth and admits he has spoken too much.

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219
Q

What analogy is used to describe God’s relationship with humanity?

A

God is like a potter and humanity is like clay

This emphasizes God’s authority over creation.

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220
Q

What does Romans 9:20-21 state about the created and the Creator?

A

The thing molded will not say to the molder, ‘Why did you make me like this?’

This illustrates the relationship and authority of God over humanity.

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221
Q

What is the inconsistent triad that can be resolved with a fourth proposition?

A

1) God is omnipotent and omniscient.
2) God is omnibenevolent.
3) There is objective evil.
4) For any evil that God allows, God has a morally sufficient reason for allowing this evil.

This fourth proposition reconciles God’s nature with the existence of evil.

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222
Q

What does John Frame state about God’s wisdom?

A

Everything God does reflects his wisdom, but he is under no obligation to give us his reasons

This implies that God’s actions may remain a mystery.

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223
Q

What does Isaiah 29:16 suggest about our perception of God?

A

You turn things around! Shall the potter be considered as equal with the clay?

This indicates that humanity should not question God’s authority.

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224
Q

What is the stance of Scripture regarding God’s obligation to explain His actions?

A

Scripture never assumes that God owes us an explanation for what he does

This emphasizes God’s sovereignty and the mystery of His intentions.

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225
Q

What does Psalm 145:3 say about God’s greatness?

A

His greatness is unsearchable

This reinforces the idea that God’s reasons may be beyond human comprehension.

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226
Q

What does ‘omnipotent’ mean?

A

Possessing unlimited power

The term refers to a being that can do anything that is logically possible.

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227
Q

What is the Omnipotence Paradox?

A

A philosophical dilemma about whether an omnipotent being can create a stone too heavy for itself to lift

This paradox raises questions about the nature of power and freedom.

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228
Q

What is God’s aseity?

A

God is considered ‘from Himself’, meaning His actions depend solely on His nature

This concept highlights God’s independence from external influences.

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229
Q

Can God create a stone too heavy for Him to lift?

A

No, He cannot deny Himself

This underscores the idea that God’s actions are consistent with His nature.

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230
Q

What is the ‘Sovereignty’ Argument?

A

God is omnipotent, evil exists, and God wills evil to exist for His good reason

This argument addresses the problem of evil within the context of divine sovereignty.

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231
Q

Who is Harold S. Kushner?

A

An author who suggested that God is powerless to stop evil

In ‘Why Bad Things Happen to Good People’, he argues that God’s love limits His power.

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232
Q

What did John Piper emphasize regarding God’s sovereignty?

A

If we sacrifice God’s sovereignty, we sacrifice everything

Piper argues that God’s governance of evil is crucial for hope.

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233
Q

How do atheists view suffering?

A

Suffering becomes destructive in a materialist context

This perspective lacks the framework to find meaning in suffering.

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234
Q

What is the biblical perspective on suffering according to Psalm 23:4?

A

Even though I walk through the valley of the shadow of death, I fear no evil, for You are with me

This verse emphasizes God’s presence during suffering.

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235
Q

What is the Christian hope regarding suffering?

A

The removal of suffering and evil in the afterlife

Revelation 21:4 speaks of a future without pain or sorrow.

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236
Q

What are the three propositions of the sovereignty resolution to the problem of evil?

A
  • God is sovereign
  • Evil exists
  • God wills evil to exist for His good reason
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237
Q

What does Job 23:13 convey about God’s sovereignty?

A

He is unique and who can turn Him? What His soul desires, that He does

This underscores God’s ultimate authority.

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238
Q

What is the significance of Lamentations 3:37-38?

A

It states that both good and ill come forth from the Lord

This reflects God’s control over all events.

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239
Q

How does Augustine view the existence of evil?

A

God permits evil to exist because He can bring good out of it

This concept is discussed in Augustine’s ‘Enchiridion on Faith, Hope, and Love’.

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240
Q

What does Acts 2:23 say about the crucifixion of Jesus?

A

It was delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God

This illustrates the concept of divine sovereignty even in evil actions.

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241
Q

True or False: God’s sovereignty means He cannot do evil.

A

True

God is holy and cannot act against His nature.

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242
Q

What should the existence of evil prompt us to do?

A

Stand back in awe regarding the magnitude of God’s glory

It invites a deeper appreciation of God’s sovereignty.

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243
Q

What does the anthropological argument reason from?

A

Certain aspects of human nature to the existence of God

The argument considers immaterial attributes and moral awareness

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244
Q

What are the two broad discussions within the anthropological argument?

A
  1. Immaterial attributes of humanness
  2. Moral awareness
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245
Q

How would a consistent Darwinian respond to the question of non-material properties defining humanity?

A

No, as our nature is a strict continuum from previous organisms

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246
Q

What principle requires that any experienced phenomenon must have a sufficient reason for its existence?

A

Principle of Sufficient Reason (PSR)

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247
Q

What deep intuition do people have about their nature according to the text?

A

There is something special about our makeup that separates us from animals

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248
Q

What does the mind-body problem debate concern?

A

The relationship between the cerebral mechanisms of the brain and conscious thought in the mind

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249
Q

What view does physicalism hold regarding conscious thought?

A

All conscious thought can be reduced to the mechanisms of a material brain

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250
Q

What does the Christian dualism claim about conscious thought?

A

It arises from an immaterial soul that governs the brain

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251
Q

What logical problem do Moreland and Rae pose against materialism?

A

Whether the soul is identical to the brain based on Leibniz’s Law of the Indiscernibility of Identicals

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252
Q

According to Leibniz’s law, what must be true if two entities are identical?

A

Their properties should be indiscernible

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253
Q

What are the three human cognitive realities highlighted in the text?

A
  1. Consciousness
  2. Abstraction
  3. Free agency
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254
Q

Define consciousness in the context of human attributes.

A

The human ability of awareness

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255
Q

Define abstraction in the context of human attributes.

A

The human ability to symbolically represent items within conscious awareness

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256
Q

Define free agency in the context of human attributes.

A

The human ability to respond to items of conscious awareness in a non-deterministic manner

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257
Q

Fill in the blank: According to the anthropological argument, if all responses can be reduced to material causes, how do we explain our desires for _______.

A

meaning and purpose in the world

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258
Q

True or False: The anthropological argument suggests that human cognitive activities can be fully explained by cerebral neurology.

A

False

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259
Q

What does the phrase ‘fearfully and wonderfully made’ express in the context of human uniqueness?

A

An acknowledgment of the special nature of human makeup

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260
Q

How is consciousness defined?

A

An organism’s awareness of its environment

This awareness is linked to the concept of sentience.

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261
Q

What is sentience derived from?

A

The Latin term ‘sentire’ meaning ‘to feel’

Sentient organisms can experience qualia such as pain and pleasure.

262
Q

What are qualia?

A

Phenomena like pain, pleasure, or redness that are subjective experiences

Qualia are not reducible to material states.

263
Q

What is the ‘hard problem of consciousness’?

A

The mystery of how neural activity gives rise to subjective experience

This problem highlights the difficulty in explaining subjective perception.

264
Q

Who is Colin McGinn and what is his argument?

A

A British philosopher known for new mysterianism, arguing that we cannot understand the causal basis of subjective conscious awareness

McGinn emphasizes the limits of human understanding regarding consciousness.

265
Q

What does the privacy of thought refer to?

A

The inability for others to access one’s thoughts through physical means

Thoughts cannot be directly uncovered or measured.

266
Q

What is the ‘what it is like’ attribute in consciousness?

A

A recognition of an organism’s subjective experience of the world

This concept is notably discussed in Thomas Nagel’s 1974 paper.

267
Q

Why can qualia not be measured like physical entities?

A

Qualia cannot be numerically tabulated as physical properties can

Emotions and thoughts are distinct from measurable physical states.

268
Q

What is intentionality in the context of mental states?

A

The directedness of the mind towards an object, or the ‘of-ness’ and ‘about-ness’ of thoughts

This concept has roots in the work of Franz Brentano.

269
Q

What is self-consciousness?

A

Awareness regarding oneself and one’s experiences

It includes both pre-reflective and reflective forms of consciousness.

270
Q

What is the distinction between physical objects and mental activities?

A

Mental activities require something outside themselves for their existence, while physical objects do not

This touches on the self-existence argument.

271
Q

What is the significance of the first-person perspective in consciousness?

A

It indicates a sense of unity and separateness from physical identity

The use of ‘I’ reflects a distinction from the body.

272
Q

How does physical dependency differ from the identity of the soul?

A

Physical things change and depend on parts for identity, while the soul remains unchanged

This suggests that consciousness cannot be purely physical.

273
Q

What is abstraction in the context of human cognition?

A

The ability to categorize items of awareness under general names

This is a key attribute that sets humans apart from other animals.

274
Q

What does Ian Tattersall argue regarding human symbolic capacity?

A

Humans can mentally dissect the world into discrete symbols and hypothesize alternate possibilities

This cognitive ability is qualitatively different from that of other animals.

275
Q

Why can’t dolphins ponder universals according to John Locke?

A

They lack the power of abstraction

This limits their ability to contemplate abstract concepts like truth or morals.

276
Q

What does the anthropic argument suggest about human attributes?

A

Human attributes like abstraction and moral reasoning require an explanation that atheism cannot provide

This highlights the uniqueness of human cognition.

277
Q

What is the free-will or free-agency argument?

A

It posits that individuals have the freedom to pursue personal goals independent of chemical causality.

278
Q

Who was Benjamin Libet and what was his contribution to the study of consciousness?

A

Libet was a researcher who demonstrated that unconscious brain processes can initiate actions before conscious awareness.

279
Q

What did Libet’s experiment suggest about the role of consciousness in volition?

A

It suggested that consciousness may not play a causal role in initiating volitional acts.

280
Q

According to Noam Chomsky, how do our choices originate?

A

Choices originate from subconscious commitments and are not made in an evaluative vacuum.

281
Q

What concept did Libet introduce that relates to the ability to choose against an initial impulse?

A

The concept of ‘free won’t’.

282
Q

What does the phrase ‘you can’t get good choices from a bad heart’ imply?

A

It suggests that one’s inclinations influence the quality of choices made.

283
Q

What is self-referential absurdity in the context of free will?

A

It is the contradiction that arises when denying free agency while engaging in reasoning about that denial.

284
Q

What is the mind-body problem?

A

The mystery of how a material brain and an immaterial soul can interact.

285
Q

How did René Descartes contribute to the discussion of mind-body dualism?

A

He espoused the idea of dualism, suggesting that the mind and body are distinct entities.

286
Q

What metaphor did Sir John Carew Eccles use to describe the relationship between the mind and the brain?

A

He likened it to a pianist playing a piano, where damage to the piano affects the pianist’s ability to play.

287
Q

What does Kreeft and Tacelli argue about materialism?

A

They argue that materialism refutes itself and undermines its own credibility.

288
Q

What does the anthropological argument suggest about human nature?

A

It posits that humanity displays both nobility and wickedness, which can be explained by the Biblical account of creation and the fall.

289
Q

How does Blaise Pascal describe the human condition?

A

He describes it as a paradox, showcasing both noble qualities and the capacity for great wickedness.

290
Q

What is the main critique of skeptics who equate man to animals?

A

They remove culpability for wickedness but lose recognition of human nobility.

291
Q

Fill in the blank: According to the text, the activities of our ‘soul’ cannot be considered identical to our _______.

292
Q

True or False: The text argues that if the brain is merely a product of atoms, we can trust its conclusions.

293
Q

What does the existence of human consciousness indicate according to Kreeft and Tacelli?

A

It indicates the likelihood of life after death.

294
Q

What does the phrase ‘Mother Nature’s cosmic abortion’ refer to?

A

It refers to the idea that if death ends everything, then consciousness is rendered meaningless.

295
Q

What is the moral argument for God’s existence?

A

The moral argument claims that the existence of moral judgments requires the existence of a transcendent law giver, that being God.

296
Q

What are the two key components to establish the moral argument?

A
  • The existence of objective moral reality
  • The existence of a personal and moral God
297
Q

Fill in the blank: If objective moral values exist, then a _______ exists.

A

[personal God]

298
Q

What is the modus tollens version of the moral argument?

A
  • If a personal God does not exist, then objective moral values do not exist.
  • Objective moral values do exist.
  • Therefore, a personal God exists.
299
Q

What does ethical relativism suggest?

A

Moral judgment is dependent upon the social conditions within a cultural context.

300
Q

True or False: Ethical egoism promotes the good of the culture over individual pleasure.

301
Q

What is the ‘Law of Human Nature’ according to C. S. Lewis?

A

The idea that human beings have an innate understanding of how they ought to behave.

302
Q

What does Kant’s moral argument emphasize?

A

The existence of a Supreme Being is the only rational basis for moral law.

303
Q

What is the final end (telos) of our actions according to Kant?

A

A highest good (summum bonum).

304
Q

List the three premises of Kant’s syllogism regarding moral behavior.

A
  • Moral behavior is rational.
  • Moral behavior is only rational if justice will be done.
  • Justice will only be done if God exists.
305
Q

What is normative ethics?

A

A universal code we all must follow, recognizing an ‘ought’ that is exception-less in every culture at all times.

306
Q

According to Dostoevsky’s ‘The Grand Inquisitor’, what happens if God does not exist?

A

If God does not exist, then everything is permitted.

307
Q

What does the moral awareness refer to?

A

A rigid standard by which to judge all truth claims.

308
Q

Fill in the blank: The atheistic rebuttals to the moral argument suggest that our moral standards can exist without a _______.

A

[transcendent source]

309
Q

What is the significance of the phrase ‘moral motions’ as referred to by Francis Schaeffer?

A

It indicates how people are inherently aware of moral standards, even if they criticize them.

310
Q

What does the term ‘objective moral reality’ imply?

A

That moral values exist independently of human opinions.

311
Q

What is the Euthyphro Problem?

A

A dilemma regarding whether the pious is beloved by the gods because it is holy or if it is holy because it is beloved by the gods.

First raised by Plato in his dialogue Euthyphro.

312
Q

What are the two main implications of the Euthyphro Problem?

A
  • If something is good because God wills it, then God could will anything to be good.
  • If goodness lies outside of God, then it undermines God’s moral supremacy.
313
Q

How does Groothuis respond to the Euthyphro Problem?

A

Objective moral values have their source in the eternal character, nature, and substance of a loving, just, and self-sufficient God.

314
Q

What does the term ‘ex lex’ mean?

A

Outside of the law.

315
Q

How does the Creator/Creature distinction affect the understanding of God’s relationship to moral law?

A

God is subject to no law, while created beings are subject to God’s moral law.

316
Q

What is Kant’s summum bonum?

A

A reflection of the Supreme Being, indicating that human choice is morally right when it aligns with God’s moral law.

317
Q

What is the difference between necessary and contingent morality in the context of modal logic?

A
  • Necessary morality exists in all possible worlds.
  • Contingent morality cannot be objectively set apart as a standard.
318
Q

What is the atheist’s common response to the moral argument regarding God’s character?

A

They often cite what they consider to be reprehensible actions of God in the Old Testament.

319
Q

What is emotivism?

A

The position that all moral judgments are merely expressions of feeling.

320
Q

Fill in the blank: The Euthyphro Problem assumes that God is not God, violating the Law of _______.

321
Q

True or False: The Euthyphro Problem effectively undermines the moral argument for the existence of God.

322
Q

What does the moral argument ask of atheists regarding moral standards?

A

How do you justify (or ground) a moral standard without God?

323
Q

What is a common diversion tactic used by atheists when discussing morality?

A

They often respond with how it is possible for an atheist to be moral rather than addressing the basis for moral standards.

324
Q

What does the phrase ‘ipso facto’ mean?

A

By that very fact or act.

325
Q

How does the Euthyphro Problem relate to the concept of God’s changeless character?

A

God’s moral will is based on His changeless character, not on whims.

326
Q

What assurance does the idea of God being ‘Ex Lex’ provide?

A

It assures that God acts according to His nature, which is good.

327
Q

How do skeptics misinterpret the moral argument?

A

They sidestep the argument by focusing on the actions of God instead of the necessity of a transcendent lawgiver.

328
Q

What is the Is-Ought Fallacy?

A

The distinction between what ‘is’ (facts) and what ‘ought’ to be (values)

G. E. Moore referred to this as the ‘naturalistic fallacy’.

329
Q

Who is known for highlighting the Is-Ought Fallacy?

A

David Hume

Hume’s work includes ‘A Treatise of Human Nature’.

330
Q

What does Hume describe an ‘ought’ as?

A

A new sort of relation that cannot be deduced from facts

This concept is often called Hume’s guillotine.

331
Q

How can science assist in moral matters?

A

Science can help navigate or optimize moral choices once they are determined by other means

For example, providing evidence of oppression to support moral conclusions.

332
Q

What is the first atheist proposal for a moral standard?

A

An Intuitive Collective Moral Standard as Darwinian-driven

333
Q

According to Richard Dawkins, what is the source of our moral awareness?

A

Our evolutionary origins

Dawkins draws parallels between physical traits and moral senses.

334
Q

What does the concept of ‘harmony within the herd’ imply?

A

It suggests a moral standard that promotes collective well-being, but is subjective

This raises questions about whose definition of harmony is authoritative.

335
Q

What is the second atheist proposal for a moral standard?

A

Moral Standard as Utilitarian

336
Q

Who is considered the father of utilitarianism?

A

Jeremy Bentham

337
Q

What is the principle of utilitarianism according to Bentham?

A

The greatest happiness of the greatest number measures right and wrong

338
Q

How did John Stuart Mill expand upon Bentham’s utilitarianism?

A

By adding the concepts of pleasure and pain to the principle

He defined happiness as pleasure and absence of pain.

339
Q

What bold claim does Sam Harris make in ‘The Moral Landscape’?

A

The is-ought distinction is illusory

340
Q

What normative standard does Harris propose?

A

Utilitarian maximization of sentient well-being

341
Q

What is the ‘Experience Machine’ proposed by Robert Nozick?

A

A hypothetical machine that provides simulated happiness for life

It raises questions about the nature of well-being.

342
Q

What critique is made against Harris’ definition of well-being?

A

It may not account for the complexity of human experiences and motives

343
Q

What is a significant flaw in Harris’ and other atheistic moral proposals?

A

They lack a transcendent basis for moral obligations

This leads to subjective moral standards.

344
Q

What does the Bible provide in terms of ethical standards?

A

An interpretive grid for moral decision-making

This includes guidance from various books of the Bible.

345
Q

List the seven levels of insight for approaching ethical interpretations from the Bible.

A
  • Ten Commandments
  • Mosaic code
  • Proverbs
  • Ecclesiastes
  • Prophets
  • Gospels
  • Epistles
346
Q

What is the necessary and sufficient revelation for understanding God’s will according to the text?

347
Q

What is the primary focus of the Cosmological Argument?

A

The existence of God based on the nature of material existence.

348
Q

According to the Cosmological Argument, what does the existence of the world require?

A

An explanation.

349
Q

What is the first question posed by Gottfried Leibniz regarding existence?

A

‘Why is there something rather than nothing?’

350
Q

What does Leibniz’s Principle of Sufficient Reason state?

A

That everything must have a sufficient reason for its existence.

351
Q

Define a contingent entity.

A

An entity that is dependent upon another entity for its existence.

352
Q

What characterizes a necessary being?

A

It does not depend on anything else for its existence.

353
Q

What is the conclusion of the Cosmological Argument regarding the universe?

A

The universe has an explanation for its existence that is grounded in a necessary being.

354
Q

What is the problem with infinite regress in the context of the Cosmological Argument?

A

It leads to the conclusion that there is no ultimate cause.

355
Q

Fill in the blank: The universe is not __________.

A

self-explanatory.

356
Q

What is the logical structure of Leibniz’s Cosmological Argument?

A
  1. Anything that exists has an explanation of its existence.
  2. The universe has an explanation of its existence grounded in a necessary being.
  3. The universe exists.
  4. Therefore, the universe has an explanation for its existence.
  5. Therefore, the explanation for the existence of the universe is grounded in a necessary being.
  6. Therefore, God exists.
357
Q

True or False: A necessary entity requires a causal explanation.

358
Q

What does the Cosmological Argument suggest about contingent entities?

A

They require a sufficient reason for their existence.

359
Q

What is the significance of the concept of ‘efficient cause’ in the Cosmological Argument?

A

It suggests that the universe must have a cause for its existence.

360
Q

According to the Cosmological Argument, if something exists now, what must have always existed?

A

Something.

361
Q

What objection does Bertrand Russell raise against the Cosmological Argument?

A

If everything must have a cause, then God must have a cause.

362
Q

How does the Cosmological Argument respond to the objection about God needing a cause?

A

By asserting that a necessary being does not require a causal explanation.

363
Q

What does Groothuis argue regarding the nature of the Cosmological Argument?

A

That it claims every item within the physical universe is contingent.

364
Q

What is the relationship between contingent entities and the existence of God in the Cosmological Argument?

A

Contingent entities require a necessary being (God) for their existence.

365
Q

Fill in the blank: If a contingent object is caused by another, it could either be by another __________ or a necessary entity.

A

contingent object.

366
Q

What is the logical conclusion if a contingent entity is caused by another contingent entity?

A

It leads to an infinite regress.

367
Q

What does the term ‘necessary being’ imply in the context of the Cosmological Argument?

A

It cannot not exist.

368
Q

What is one way to depict the Cosmological Argument?

A

Through exclusive disjunctions: Either it exists or it does not.

369
Q

What does the term ‘cosmos’ refer to in the Cosmological Argument?

A

The universe as a whole.

370
Q

What does the Cosmological Argument conclude about the nature of existence?

A

It must be grounded in something eternal.

371
Q

What does the term ‘kalām’ mean?

A

Kalām is an Arabic term meaning ‘word’.

It is similar in meaning to the Greek expression ‘logos’.

372
Q

Who were the medieval Muslim philosophers associated with the kalām cosmological argument?

A

Al-Kindi (801 - 873) and al-Ghazali (1058 - 1111).

373
Q

What is the key difference between the kalām cosmological argument and Leibniz’s cosmological argument?

A

The kalām argument includes the idea that the universe has a beginning in time.

374
Q

What is the first premise of the kalām cosmological argument?

A

Everything that has a beginning of its existence has a cause of its existence.

375
Q

What is the second premise of the kalām cosmological argument?

A

The universe has a beginning of its existence.

376
Q

What conclusion follows from the premises of the kalām cosmological argument?

A

Therefore: God exists.

377
Q

What philosophical intuition supports the kalām cosmological argument?

A

‘From nothing, nothing comes’ (ex nihilo nihil fit).

378
Q

What does the Borde-Guth-Vilenkin (BGV) Theorem state?

A

Any expanding universe cannot be past eternal.

379
Q

Which observation is known as Olbers’ Paradox?

A

If the universe was infinitely old, then the light from every star would have time to arrive at earth, thus causing a bright night sky.

380
Q

What significant discovery did Edward Hubble make in 1929?

A

He observed a ‘red shift’ in several galaxies indicating the universe is expanding.

381
Q

What did Arno Penzias and Robert Wilson detect in 1965 that supports the big bang theory?

A

They detected the Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) radiation.

382
Q

What elemental ratio was confirmed by astronomers following the big bang?

A

The ratio of hydrogen to helium is three to one.

383
Q

What does the Second Law of Thermodynamics state about the universe?

A

The universe is moving towards a state of maximum disorder and minimum usable energy until it reaches heat death.

384
Q

What attributes are identified as necessary for a first cause of the universe?

A
  • Necessity: Uncaused, unchangeable, self-sufficient
  • Transcendence: Immaterial, omnipotent, omnipresent, eternal
  • Personal-ness: Has a will to decide
385
Q

According to the Bible, what can be understood about God’s attributes?

A

His invisible attributes, eternal power, and divine nature have been clearly seen through what has been made.

386
Q

True or False: The kalām cosmological argument suggests that the first cause must be a composite entity.

387
Q

Fill in the blank: A first cause must be ________, self-sufficient, and not a composite entity.

A

unchangeable

388
Q

What is the primary focus of the cosmological argument?

A

The cosmological argument seeks to establish that the universe has a cause, often identified as God

This argument posits that everything that begins to exist has a cause.

389
Q

What is the first objection to the cosmological argument discussed?

A

The Impossibility of a Timeless First Cause

This objection questions how a timeless cause can initiate a temporal effect.

390
Q

According to general relativity, how does time relate to space?

A

Time behaves as a fourth dimension alongside the three spatial dimensions of length, width, and height.

391
Q

What happens to time when something is in motion?

A

Time slows down from the perspective of the moving entity.

392
Q

If the cause of the universe created time, what must it be?

A

Timeless

This implies that the cause cannot be constrained by time.

393
Q

How does the objection regarding God’s timelessness challenge His personal nature?

A

It questions how a timeless entity can initiate an act or change, like creating a contingent universe.

394
Q

What is the nature of God’s existence before the creation of time?

A

God’s existence is relational and personal, without a past-future dynamic.

395
Q

What does Scripture imply about God’s interaction with time?

A

God interacts within the temporal sequence of human activity.

396
Q

What is the second objection to the cosmological argument?

A

The Possibility of Something from Nothing.

397
Q

Who is the cosmologist that claims everything can arise from nothing?

A

Lawrence Krauss.

398
Q

How does Krauss define ‘nothing’?

A

A quantum fluctuation of information lacking space-time or matter.

399
Q

What is a key issue with Krauss’s definition of ‘nothing’?

A

It implies some laws of physics and a suitable quantum state are present.

400
Q

What is the uncertainty principle in quantum mechanics?

A

It states that fluctuations in quantum fields are inherently turbulent.

401
Q

How do quantum fluctuations relate to the big bang?

A

They are theorized to have expanded their influence due to the rapid expansion during the big bang.

402
Q

What did Don N. Page criticize about Krauss’s use of ‘nothing’?

A

He argued that it assumes properties and laws that should not be present in ‘nothing’.

403
Q

What is ‘absolutely nothing’ according to Don N. Page?

A

The absence of anything not logically necessary.

404
Q

What is the difference between the Ontological Argument and the Cosmological Argument?

A

The Ontological Argument refers to God as ‘that than which none greater can be conceived,’ while the Cosmological Argument refers to God as ‘that which is farthest back.’

405
Q

What does the Greek word ‘telos’ mean?

A

End, purpose, or goal

406
Q

What is the Teleological Argument often referred to as?

A

The argument from design

407
Q

According to Aquinas’ 5th Way, how do natural bodies attain their end?

A

By design, not by chance

408
Q

What does the teleological argument propose about the universe?

A

It indicates that it was fashioned with some purpose or goal in mind

409
Q

Who proposed the watchmaker analogy?

A

William Paley

410
Q

What is the essence of Paley’s watchmaker analogy?

A

Complexity and intentional functionality imply a designer

411
Q

What is the basic structure of the teleological argument?

A
  • The cosmos displays features of intentional design.
  • If the cosmos displays design, then there must be a designer.
  • If the cosmos had a designer, then this designer must transcend the cosmos.
  • We call this transcendent designer God.
  • Therefore, God exists.
412
Q

What distinguishes the teleological argument from the cosmological argument?

A

The teleological emphasizes specificities of the cosmos, while the cosmological emphasizes contingencies

413
Q

True or False: The ontological and anthropological arguments provide moral properties of God.

414
Q

What do atheists argue can produce an appearance of design?

A

Natural selection mechanism of evolution

415
Q

What does HADD stand for?

A

Hyperactive agent detection device

416
Q

According to Justin Barrett, what is HADD fundamental to understanding?

A

Concepts of gods and spirits

417
Q

What cognitive process is referred to when individuals see patterns and draw conclusions from ambiguous data?

A

Pareidolia

418
Q

List one concern regarding the viability of the HADD inference.

A
  • Cognitive functions are not inherited; only genes are.
  • Cognitive functions do not have any selective advantages, only behavior does.
  • Cognitive functions cannot be observed, only inferred from behavior.
  • Only scant evidence exists of any connection between a given gene and a cognitive function.
419
Q

What does the teleological argument claim about the cosmos?

A

It displays features of intentional design

420
Q

True or False: The teleological argument is considered a subcategory of the cosmological argument.

421
Q

What is the role of inductive inquiry in the context of the teleological argument?

A

It is the initiator of dogmatic statements about design.

422
Q

What is the conclusion of the classical apologetic approach regarding God’s existence?

A

God exists

423
Q

Fill in the blank: The teleological argument infers that if the cosmos displays design, then there must be a _______.

A

[designer]

424
Q

What is a common assumption when hearing a twig snap in a dangerous environment, according to the atheist rebuttal?

A

Assuming some predator is intending to do harm

425
Q

What is the primary method of justification in the Classical apologetic approach?

A

Epistemic method of coherence

426
Q

What distinguishes the cosmological argument’s understanding of God?

A

God as a first cause that is uncaused

427
Q

What does the teleological argument recognize about God?

A

God as an intelligence that establishes order

428
Q

What is evidential apologetics?

A

A mode of apologetics that attempts to show that Christianity is not unreasonable rather than proving it is reasonable.

Also known as ‘Apologetics of Defense,’ focusing on factual defenses against criticism.

429
Q

What does the evidential approach highlight regarding truth claims?

A

It emphasizes that correspondence can be a qualifier for truth claims.

This means that evidence must align with reality to support claims.

430
Q

Who is a notable proponent of evidential apologetics and what is his famous work?

A

Josh McDowell, author of ‘Evidence that Demands a Verdict.’

431
Q

What is the primary purpose of evidential apologetics according to Boa and Bowman?

A

To show that Christianity is credible rather than to prove that it is true.

432
Q

What significant shift in epistemic priority occurred in Western civilization during the 17th century?

A

A move away from dependence on past authorities like Aristotle towards empirical observation and the scientific method.

433
Q

Who was Francis Bacon and what was his contribution to epistemology?

A

An English scientist and philosopher who promoted the scientific method and criticized reliance on past authorities.

434
Q

What is the title of Bacon’s work that introduced his inductive approach?

A

‘Novum Organum.’

435
Q

How did Bacon view the previous methods of the Greeks?

A

He believed they were primarily contemplative and did not advocate rigorous experimentation.

436
Q

What is the difference between demonstrative and probable evidence according to Joseph Butler?

A

Probable evidence admits of degrees and cannot produce certain proof, unlike demonstrative evidence.

Butler claimed that ‘Probability is the very guide of life.’

437
Q

What did Joseph Butler’s ‘Analogy of Religion’ propose?

A

It suggested that religious realities are analogous to physical realities and can be understood through empirical approaches.

438
Q

Who is John Warwick Montgomery and what is his view on knowledge?

A

A modern evidential apologist who claimed that facts must be self-interpreting for knowledge to be attainable.

439
Q

What does Montgomery say about the relationship between language and the world in the Scriptures?

A

The Scriptures presume a correspondence view of truth, where language and reality are congruent.

440
Q

Fill in the blank: Evidential apologetics primarily seeks to show that Christianity is _______.

441
Q

True or False: The evidential approach seeks to establish Christianity as the only true religion.

442
Q

What analogy does Bacon use to illustrate his empirical approach to reality?

A

He compares it to ships venturing out of familiar waters into the vast Atlantic.

443
Q

What does the term ‘cumulative case for faith’ refer to in Butler’s apologetics?

A

The idea that compiling more evidence increases the certainty of Christian truth claims.

444
Q

What is the teleological argument for God’s existence?

A

It posits that scientific efforts indicate cosmic design as an initial premise of a theistic proof that concludes with a transcendent Designer, whom we call God.

445
Q

What are the two rebuttals to the recognition of design mentioned in the text?

A
  • Survival benefit (HADD) for those assuming intelligent agents behind phenomena
  • Natural selection producing organisms that only appear designed
446
Q

Can the scientific method objectively reveal intelligent design?

A

The lesson explores whether human intuition can be warranted and if design intuition can be substantiated by science.

447
Q

What is intuition?

A

The ability to understand something immediately, without the need for intricate analysis.

448
Q

According to Thomas Reid, what is a waste of time regarding intuition?

A

Requiring elaborate analysis to uncover what our gut intuition already knows.

449
Q

What are ‘first principles’ in the context of intuition?

A

Fundamental expectations by which to live common life that must be accepted without analytical strings attached.

450
Q

What is the main limitation of science?

A

Science can only utilize data that is observable, measurable, and repeatable.

451
Q

What does fallibilism refer to?

A

The view that a person could be wrong in a belief yet justified in holding that belief.

452
Q

What is specified complexity according to William Dembski?

A

Criteria to identify mechanisms in life indicating an intelligent cause, requiring both complexity and specificity.

453
Q

What are the two major criteria for design proposed by Dembski?

A
  • Complexity with a very low probability
  • Specificity that is intentionally specified ahead of time
454
Q

Give an example of specified complexity.

A

The chemical structure of DNA, which is complex and contains information necessary for cellular functions.

455
Q

What is the Anthropic Principle?

A

It states that the universe is finely tuned for human habitability.

456
Q

What is the multiverse theory?

A

The idea that there exist an infinite number of universes, each with its own properties and laws.

457
Q

What is Occam’s razor?

A

The principle that the best explanation is one that makes the fewest assumptions.

458
Q

What concerns does cosmologist George Ellis raise regarding the multiverse hypothesis?

A

It may weaken the nature of scientific proof.

459
Q

What is a critique of the multiverse theory according to Groothuis?

A

It is a reaction against the Designer hypothesis, indicating that physicists acknowledge the universe’s fine-tuning.

460
Q

What statistical observation is made about cosmological constants?

A

No one of the approximately 50 cosmological constants can be predicted from the others; they are independent.

461
Q

Who was Antony Flew and what did he conclude?

A

A philosopher who moved from atheism to deism due to the evidential weight of cosmic fine-tuning.

462
Q

What is the main argument of the Rare Earth hypothesis?

A

The origin of life and evolution of biological complexity required an improbable combination of astrophysical and geological events

Proposed by Peter Ward and Donald Brownlee in their book ‘Rare Earth: Why Complex Life is Uncommon in the Universe’ (2000)

463
Q

Who were the authors of the book that introduced the Rare Earth hypothesis?

A

Peter Ward and Donald Brownlee

Their book was published in 2000

464
Q

What is the principle of mediocrity?

A

The belief that Earth is a typical rocky planet in a typical planetary system located in a non-exceptional region of a common galaxy

Popularized by Carl Sagan and Frank Drake in the 1970s and 1980s

465
Q

State the Rare Earth equation as proposed by Ward and Brownlee.

A

N = N* • ne • Is • fp • fpm • fi • fc • fi • fm • fj • fme

N represents the number of Earth-like planets in the Milky Way having complex life forms

466
Q

What do N* and ne represent in the Rare Earth equation?

A

N* is the number of stars in the Milky Way; ne is the average number of planets in a star’s habitable zone

467
Q

What is the estimated number of habitable planets in the Milky Way?

A

Approximately 500 billion

This estimate is based on multiplying N* and ne

468
Q

List the first three ‘p’ expressions in the Rare Earth equation.

A
  • Is = the fraction of stars in the galactic habitable zone
  • Ip = the fraction of stars in the Milky Way with planets
  • Jpm = the fraction of planets that are rocky rather than gaseous
469
Q

What does the fraction ‘fi’ represent in the Rare Earth equation?

A

The fraction of habitable planets where microbial life arises

470
Q

True or False: The Rare Earth equation suggests that complex life is likely to be common in the universe.

A

False

The equation suggests that the probability of complex life is very low

471
Q

Fill in the blank: The probability of all accommodating features for animal life to converge on one planet is ______.

A

utterly prohibitive

472
Q

What is the implication of the Rare Earth equation regarding Darwinian evolution?

A

It raises questions about how life on Earth can exist under a strict Darwinian paradigm

473
Q

What does the fraction ‘fme’ represent in the Rare Earth equation?

A

The fraction of planets with a sufficiently low number of extinction events

474
Q

Who was Antony Flew and what change in belief did he experience?

A

A philosopher who moved from atheism to deism due to the argument from intelligent design

475
Q

What does the fraction ‘fj’ represent in the Rare Earth equation?

A

The fraction of planetary systems with large Jovian planets

476
Q

What significant conclusion can be drawn from the Rare Earth hypothesis?

A

Complex extraterrestrial life is an improbable phenomenon and likely to be rare

477
Q

What is the significance of cosmic fine-tuning in the context of the Rare Earth hypothesis?

A

It contributed to Flew’s transition from skepticism about theism to belief in deism

478
Q

What is the term that refers to life beginning from nonliving substances?

A

Abiogenesis

Abiogenesis is also known as chemical evolution.

479
Q

Who recognized the concept of irreducible complexity in cellular mechanisms?

A

Michael Behe

Behe discussed this in his book ‘Darwin’s Black Box’.

480
Q

What analogy does Michael Behe use to explain irreducible complexity?

A

Mousetrap

A mousetrap cannot function if any one part is missing.

481
Q

List some components necessary for cellular function as per Behe’s argument.

A
  • Control center for replication and metabolism in the nucleus
  • Energy supply by the mitochondria
  • Protein construction by RNA transcription and transference of instructions to the ribosomes
  • Waste disposal by the lysosomes
  • Food and waste storage by the vacuoles
  • Selective membrane transfer
  • Internal transportation by the endoplasmic reticulum
482
Q

What is the Darwinian mechanism primarily concerned with?

A

Natural selection

Natural selection explains how traits better suited for survival are passed on.

483
Q

Define gene pool.

A

The set of all genes in a species or population.

484
Q

What are mutations in the context of evolution?

A

Copy errors in genes that increase trait options.

485
Q

True or False: Darwin was aware of genetic mutations.

A

False

Darwin’s theory was later expanded upon by Neo-Darwinism which includes genetic mutations.

486
Q

What is the difference between microevolution and macroevolution?

A

Microevolution involves small changes within species; macroevolution explains the origin of new species.

487
Q

How does natural selection contribute to the gene pool?

A

It amplifies traits that result in greater reproductive success.

488
Q

What did Gerd B. Müller discuss at the Royal Society conference?

A

The shortcomings of the Darwinian mechanism in explaining the origin of life systems.

489
Q

List the three issues that evolution could not explain according to Gerd B. Müller.

A
  • Origin of phenotypic complexity
  • Origin of anatomical novelty
  • Origin of non-gradual modes of transition
490
Q

What does Douglas Axe argue about the complexity of proteins?

A

It illustrates selection’s inability to invent.

491
Q

Fill in the blank: Darwin’s theory primarily explains the _______ of species, not the arrival.

492
Q

What is the role of copy errors in evolution?

A

They provide genetic variation necessary for natural selection.

493
Q

What is the main critique of the Darwinian model regarding the origin of complex life functions?

A

It cannot adequately explain the transition from microevolution to macroevolution.

494
Q

True or False: All components of a cell must be present for it to function.

A

True

The absence of any component leads to failure in cellular function.

495
Q

What challenge regarding the fossil record is discussed in Behe’s book?

A

A biochemical challenge

Behe discusses the limitations of mutation-selection mechanisms.

496
Q

What does Michael Denton argue about the fossil record in his book ‘Evolution, a Theory in Crisis’?

A

It does not reveal a gradual adaptation of traits

Denton suggests that the fossil record contradicts Darwin’s expectations.

497
Q

What did Darwin believe about the adaptive features of organisms?

A

They would be connected by ‘fine, intermediate varieties’

This view was later challenged by the fossil record.

498
Q

What is saltationalism?

A

The idea that nature makes no jumps

The term comes from the Latin ‘natura non facit saltum’.

499
Q

What significant event does the fossil record highlight around 542 million years ago?

A

The Cambrian explosion

This event features the rapid emergence of most major animal phyla.

500
Q

Who proposed the theory of punctuated equilibrium?

A

Niles Eldredge and Stephen Jay Gould

This theory suggests evolution occurs in brief bursts followed by long periods of stasis.

501
Q

What does punctuated equilibrium propose about evolutionary change?

A

It occurs when a small portion of a species becomes isolated

This isolation leads to changes that are not seen in the larger population.

502
Q

According to studies, what does the fossil record portray about species lifetimes?

A

They follow stasis and then extinction, not an ‘evolutionary tree’

This challenges the traditional view of gradual evolution.

503
Q

What do evolutionary scientists often conclude about the origins of modern humans?

A

That we evolved from various hominin species

Examples include Neanderthals and Homo erectus.

504
Q

How is mitochondrial DNA from Neanderthals significant?

A

It has remained virtually constant during their existence

This suggests a lack of significant evolutionary change.

505
Q

What is heterozygosity?

A

Different genes producing a single trait

It allows for greater genetic variation.

506
Q

What does polygenetic traits refer to?

A

Traits determined by several genetic loci

Examples include height and other complex traits.

507
Q

In the context of Adam and Eve, how could extreme heterozygosity explain human genetic diversity?

A

They could produce a small population with significant genetic variation

This would counter the need for thousands of unrelated progenitors.

508
Q

What artifacts indicate the arrival of modern humans?

A

Jewelry, clothing, language, tools, and symbolic art

These artifacts suggest a new type of behavior in the fossil record.

509
Q

Why might God have created earlier hominins?

A

To prepare the ecosystem for advanced human predators

This preparation could have prevented mass extinctions.

510
Q

What role did microevolutionary selection play in the context of human migration?

A

Allowed prey to adapt to the increased threat of advanced predators

This adaptation helped maintain biodiversity.

511
Q

What is the main task suggested for those who feel compelled to respond to macroevolutionary arguments?

A

Conduct personal study and explore rebuttals from qualified scientists.

512
Q

What is a simpler alternative to engaging in technical debates about evolution?

A

Recognize the clear intuitive answer regarding design.

513
Q

Who posed the question about feeling certain an academic is wrong but unable to follow the argument?

A

Douglas Axe.

514
Q

What intuition does Axe believe supports doubt against Darwin’s theory?

A

The intuition that accidental invention is impossible.

515
Q

What does chemist James Tour emphasize regarding the selection mechanism in evolution?

A

It cannot know what to select without assessing utility until many steps later.

516
Q

What is needed to demonstrate the argument for design according to Axe?

A

A demonstration that the basic argument is simple, not technical.

517
Q

What philosophical principle does the text reference to discuss Five Great Leaps?

A

Leibniz’s Principle of Sufficient Reason (PSR).

518
Q

List the Five Great Leaps mentioned in the text.

A
  • Something from Nothing
  • Living from Nonliving
  • Living from Material
  • Sentience from Living
  • Ought from Is
519
Q

What is the challenge regarding the evolution of consciousness from an unconscious universe?

A

Naturalistic worldview fails to explain the evolution of consciousness.

520
Q

How does the text describe the ability to ponder transcendent categories?

A

It questions how an organism can represent items as abstracted symbols.

521
Q

What does the text suggest about the relationship between chemical determinism and free will?

A

It questions if organisms can be free from chemical determinism to abstract.

522
Q

What do skeptics often do according to the text when faced with failed hypotheses?

A

They develop new hypotheses while admitting some holes in their ideas.

523
Q

What biblical reference is made regarding the wisdom of the wise and the understanding of infants?

A

Matthew 11:25.

524
Q

What is implied about the interpretive precommitment of atheists in the text?

A

It suggests rebellion against their Maker influences their views.

525
Q

What faith do proponents of methodological naturalism adhere to?

A

A faith that constrains explanations of life and science within its tenets.

526
Q

True or False: The text states that skeptics consider supernatural causes even as a remote possibility.

527
Q

Fill in the blank: The causal impasse of the Five Great Leaps can be realized by a _______.

A

ten-year-old.

528
Q

What is the main focus of historical verification in relation to Christian truth claims?

A

To investigate the probability of Christian truth claims through historical investigations.

529
Q

What did Gotthold Ephraim Lessing assert about historical investigation?

A

It cannot provide a solid foundation for faith commitments.

530
Q

What metaphor did Lessing use to describe the gap between historical truth and religious belief?

A

An ‘ugly, broad ditch.’

531
Q

According to William Lane Craig, what can contingent truths serve as evidence for?

A

A less obvious necessary truth.

532
Q

What is the significance of George Washington in the context of historical certainty?

A

His existence is accepted by reputable historians as virtually certain.

533
Q

How did Luke intend his gospel to be perceived by readers?

A

As a carefully investigated account of eyewitness testimony.

534
Q

What does the Greek word ‘asphaleia’ imply in Luke’s gospel?

A

Exact or certain, meaning ‘not to trip up.’

535
Q

What is the role of eyewitnesses in Paul’s claims about the resurrected Christ?

A

He encouraged listeners to empirically verify his claims.

536
Q

What does the historical method involve in verifying historical claims?

A

Researching primary sources and archaeological discoveries.

537
Q

What did Montgomery suggest about historical knowledge?

A

It is of a synthetic nature and never rises above probabilities.

538
Q

Who was Ernst Bernheim and what was his contribution to historical methods?

A

A German historian known for his influential work on the historical method.

539
Q

According to Bernheim, what strengthens the credibility of a testimony?

A

Eyewitness account and primary sources.

540
Q

What criteria did Howell and Prevenier identify for historical procedures?

A

Number of sources and their agreement on an event.

541
Q

Fill in the blank: If all sources agree about an event, historians can consider the event _______.

542
Q

What does ‘disinterest’ refer to in evaluating historical testimonies?

A

The source having no attachment to the event.

543
Q

What is the implication of Paul’s defense before King Agrippa regarding historical events?

A

The events surrounding Jesus had many open confirmations available for investigation.

544
Q

True or False: Historical knowledge is always definitive and absolute.

545
Q

What is the importance of coherence in evaluating historical testimonies?

A

It assesses if the testimony fits with other reliable documents of its time.

546
Q

What is the caution regarding the misuse of historical verification tools?

A

They can disclose unreliability only by exposing contradiction.

547
Q

What might a historian not dismiss about the Gospels due to a lack of outside verification?

A

Their credibility.

548
Q

What is the bibliographical test?

A

It examines the textual transmission by which documents reach us, assessing how well current manuscripts match the original texts authored by Biblical writers.

549
Q

What are the three phases through which stories about Jesus were said to evolve according to Tim Keller?

A
  • Shaped by church communities to address specific questions and needs
  • Passed down orally, evolving with legendary materials
  • Assumed written form long after the original events
550
Q

Who provided three criteria for historical reliability that were adapted by Josh McDowell?

A

Chauncey E. Sanders

551
Q

What does the internal test assess?

A

It determines whether a written record is credible and to what extent, checking if the document is intended as a serious historical account and authoritative.

552
Q

What does the external test evaluate?

A

It determines whether non-Biblical historical material confirms or denies the internal testimony of the documents.

553
Q

How many Greek manuscripts of New Testament portions exist today?

554
Q

What is the total number of supporting New Testament manuscripts when including other languages?

A

Over 30,000

555
Q

What is the significance of having many copies of New Testament manuscripts?

A

It allows for comparisons that help reconstruct the original text with virtually complete accuracy.

556
Q

What is textual criticism?

A

The effort to uncover the content of the autograph from the multitude of manuscripts available.

557
Q

How close are the New Testament manuscripts to the original autographs compared to other ancient works?

A

They are much closer, with the earliest copies dating back to around 29 years after the original writings.

558
Q

What percentage of textual variants in New Testament manuscripts are considered non-problematic?

A

About 99.5% textually pure

559
Q

What is a textual variant?

A

Any difference between manuscripts involving spelling, word order, omission, addition, substitution, or total rewrite.

560
Q

What percentage of textual variants are spelling mistakes?

561
Q

What is the role of oral tradition in the transmission of the New Testament narratives?

A

It involved memorization and accurate transmission of teachings, with some authors like Mark and Luke relying on eyewitness accounts.

562
Q

What are the two types of oral tradition?

A
  • Controlled - material is memorized and preserved
  • Uncontrolled - subject to variations based on community needs
563
Q

What did A. N. Sherwin-White claim about the reliability of ancient oral tradition?

A

That a solid core of information about an event remains even after two generations of transmission.

564
Q

What did rabbinic pupils need to do with their instructor’s teachings?

A

They were required to accurately pass them on from memory.

565
Q

What is the significance of preserved creeds and hymns in the New Testament?

A

They demonstrate a vibrant oral tradition and suggest that some teachings existed shortly after the events they describe.

566
Q

Does a vibrant oral tradition guarantee exact word-for-word accuracy in the New Testament documents?

A

No, it emphasizes the general meaning rather than exact wording.

567
Q

What does the internal test for Biblical reliability investigate?

A

Whether the Scriptures can stand as reliable documents on their own merit

568
Q

What is a common target regarding the internal reliability of the Bible?

A

Apparent contradictions in storyline between the four Gospels

569
Q

What is a strawman argument in the context of Biblical criticism?

A

Misrepresenting the Scriptures to point out supposed inconsistencies

570
Q

Who emphasized that many allegations of error in the Bible are based on misinterpretation?

A

Josh McDowell

571
Q

What is hermeneutics?

A

The discipline of interpreting ancient literature

572
Q

What does the acronym ‘AROMA’ summarize?

A

Five commonsense rules of interpretation for Scriptures

573
Q

What is the first rule of interpretation regarding Scripture?

A

Every book of Scripture is delivered by human agency and must be interpreted from the author’s intent

574
Q

What is the second rule of interpretation regarding Scripture?

A

Every book of Scripture is received by human agency and must be interpreted in harmony with how readers would understand it

575
Q

What is the third rule of interpretation for Scripture?

A

Every Bible passage has only one unchanging meaning but multiple life-applications

576
Q

What is the fourth rule of interpretation for Scripture?

A

The most obvious meaning of any passage is usually correct

577
Q

What is the fifth rule of interpretation regarding Scripture?

A

Scripture must be interpreted in harmony with the context and other passages

578
Q

What does the term ‘Analogy of Scripture’ refer to?

A

Interpreting Scripture by Scripture

579
Q

What is the root intent of the Bible according to the text?

A

To communicate God’s plan of redemption through Christ

580
Q

What criteria did Athanasius of Alexandria establish for the New Testament canon?

A

Apostolicity, Orthodoxy, Catholicity

581
Q

What does Apostolicity require for a manuscript to be included in the New Testament?

A

Correspondence by eyewitness accounts, written by apostles or close associates

582
Q

What does Orthodoxy require for a manuscript in the New Testament?

A

Coherence with the rule of faith established by previously accepted Scripture

583
Q

What does Catholicity require for a manuscript in the New Testament?

A

Widespread consensus within orthodox Christianity

584
Q

What is a common claim skeptics make regarding the authorship of the Gospels?

A

They were not written by the traditionally claimed authors but were anonymously written

585
Q

What evidence supports traditional authorship of the Gospels?

A

Testimonies from early church fathers like Papias and Irenaeus

586
Q

What is a common skepticism regarding the disciples’ ability to write sophisticated accounts?

A

They were common fishermen who spoke Aramaic

587
Q

What are the four realities that address skepticism about the disciples’ authorship?

A

[“Jesus hand-picked literate men”, “Intellectual transformation from being with Jesus”, “Time to develop writing skills after Jesus’ ministry”, “Use of writing assistants (amanuensis)”]

588
Q

How do the Gospels differ in their descriptions of events?

A

Writers may not relay the complete story, emphasize different aspects, or omit/add details

589
Q

What is a contradiction in the context of the Gospels?

A

Two or more claims that cannot simultaneously be true in the same sense and at the same time

590
Q

What should a skeptic be asked when presenting claims of Biblical contradictions?

A

If they are acquainted with Biblical hermeneutics and have investigated their issues in scholarly literature

591
Q

What is the response available for believers regarding problematic passages in the Bible?

A

Scholarly literature is available for response

592
Q

What does the external test corroborate?

A

Biblical writings with extra-biblical sources such as ancient writings and archeological artifacts

The external test checks if Biblical references fit within other cultural expressions during the expected time period.

593
Q

What can archeological corroborations confirm about the Bible?

A

The ‘fitting’ historicity of the descriptions found in Scripture

It does not prove the Bible to be the Word of God.

594
Q

What must New Testament manuscripts be to be considered authentic?

A

Adequate copies of the original autographs rather than a much later fabrication

They should be historically consistent regarding various cultural details.

595
Q

What types of details should New Testament writings be consistent with?

A
  • City names
  • Language idioms
  • Financial transactions
  • Money exchange
  • Rulers
  • Cultural aspects
  • Political structures
  • Geography
  • Social customs

These details help confirm the historical context of the texts.

596
Q

Who was William Mitchell Ramsay?

A

A Scottish archeologist who confirmed the historical accuracy of the book of Acts

He initially sought to prove the author of Acts inaccurate but found overwhelming evidence to the contrary.

597
Q

What did Ramsay conclude about the book of Acts?

A

It could bear minute scrutiny as an authority for the facts of the Aegean world

Ramsay stated it was a model of historical statement.

598
Q

How many sites confirm historical statements in the Bible?

A

More than 25,000 sites

These include findings such as the bones of a first-century crucifixion victim and an inscription of Pontius Pilate.

599
Q

Who was Colin J. Hemer?

A

A research fellow at Tyndale House who demonstrated the book of Acts’ ties to its cultural and historical context

Hemer’s work confirmed hundreds of archaeological finds supporting specific persons, events, and facts.

600
Q

What is one significant contribution of William Foxwell Albright?

A

He was a pioneer of Biblical archeology and an expert in Ancient Near East studies

His proficiency in ceramics contributed to dating sites based on ceramic typologies.

601
Q

What was Albright’s initial attitude toward the historicity of the Bible?

A

Skeptical

He changed his view after discoveries confirmed the historicity of Biblical details.

602
Q

What did Albright say about the Dead Sea Scrolls?

A

Most scrolls present a consonantal text virtually indistinguishable from the Masoretic Bible

This finding highlights the preservation of Biblical Hebrew texts.

603
Q

What did Nelson Glueck claim about archaeological discoveries?

A

No archaeological discovery has ever controverted a Biblical reference

His work confirmed many historical statements in the Bible.

604
Q

What has the growth of Biblical archeology led to since the mid-20th century?

A

An expansion of apologetic resources

This has made it rare to encounter novel evidential challenges.

605
Q

What foundational issue regarding Biblical truth claims is mentioned?

A

The life and resurrection of Jesus

This topic will be investigated for external tests in the next lesson.

606
Q

What is the main question regarding the historical figure of Jesus?

A

Is Jesus an historical figure, or was He invented by an early Jewish sect?

607
Q

What do evidentialists pursue to support the existence of Jesus?

A

References to the person of Jesus from non-Biblical (external) sources.

608
Q

Name one source of minimal value that refers to Jesus.

A

Thallus (50-75 AD)

609
Q

What does Thallus mention that is believed to refer to the crucifixion of Jesus?

A

The darkness that fell over the land.

610
Q

Who was Mara Bar-Serapion?

A

A Syriac Stoic philosopher who wrote a letter allegedly referring to Jesus.

611
Q

What did Pliny the Younger mention in his letter to Emperor Trajan?

A

Christians reciting hymns to Christus as if to a god.

612
Q

What did Suetonius refer to in his writings?

A

A person named Chrestus who instigated the expulsion of Jews from Rome.

613
Q

Who was Celsus and what did he do?

A

A 2nd-century Greek philosopher who denigrated early Christianity.

614
Q

What is Lucian of Samosata known for in relation to Jesus?

A

Referring to the first Christian lawgiver as a crucified sophist.

615
Q

Who are considered the two important sources that provide significant evidence of Jesus?

A

Tacitus and Josephus.

616
Q

What did Tacitus report about Christus?

A

He underwent the death penalty in the reign of Tiberius by Pontius Pilatus.

617
Q

What is one argument skeptics have regarding Tacitus’ quote about Pilate?

A

Pilate was a prefect, not a procurator.

618
Q

What are the two portions of Josephus’ Antiquities that mention Jesus?

A

The James Passage and the Testimonium Flavianum.

619
Q

What does the James Passage mention about Jesus?

A

Jesus as the brother of James.

620
Q

What is the Testimonium Flavianum believed to describe?

A

Jesus as a wise man who performed wonders and was crucified.

621
Q

What conclusion can be drawn about the authenticity of Josephus’ passages mentioning Jesus?

A

Many scholars believe they include later interpolations by Christians.

622
Q

What is the total number of writings from non-Christian sources that record details about Jesus?

A

Over seventeen writings.

623
Q

What are some of the basic facts confirmed by sources like Tacitus and Josephus?

A
  • Christ’s death under Pontius Pilate in Judaea between AD 26 and AD 36
  • Christ was worshipped as God early on
  • Christ’s followers often experienced persecution
  • Christians spread far and fast
  • Some early Christian leaders knew of Christ’s family origins
624
Q

According to Kreeft and Tacelli, what follows from the premises that Jesus claimed to be God?

A

Jesus is believable, therefore Jesus is God.

625
Q

What are the three identities of Jesus presented by C.S. Lewis?

A
  • Liar
  • Lunatic
  • Lord
626
Q

What are three common evidential lines of proof that the Bible is the word of God?

A
  • Fulfilled prophecy
  • Miracles
  • Resurrection of Christ
627
Q

How is a miracle defined in the context of God’s activity?

A

A less common kind of God’s activity in the world.

628
Q

What does the term ‘supernatural’ imply in relation to miracles?

A

All natural events must presuppose a supernatural substratum.

629
Q

What does Leibniz’s principle of sufficient reason (PSR) suggest about natural regularities?

A

They cannot justify their own existence.

630
Q

According to Bart Ehrman, how does he define history and miracles?

A

History as a search for a ‘most probable event’ and miracles as a ‘least probable event.’

631
Q

How does the analogy of magma and lava relate to the supernatural and miracles?

A

Magma represents the supernatural substratum, while lava represents miracles as rare glimpses into this reality.

632
Q

What does the statement ‘When you have eliminated the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth’ suggest?

A

That improbable events can still be true if no other explanation fits.

633
Q

What is the most probable conclusion regarding the resurrection of Christ based on the evidence?

A

Its occurrence is the most probable conclusion from the evidence.

634
Q

What is the significance of Christ’s resurrection in Christianity?

A

If the resurrection did not occur, faith is deemed worthless

1 Corinthians 15:13-14 states that without the resurrection, preaching and faith are useless.

635
Q

Which accounts provide corroborating testimonies of Christ’s resurrection?

A

The four gospels and all of Paul’s letters

Paul’s transformation from a persecutor of the church adds credibility.

636
Q

Why is the testimony of women discovering the empty tomb significant?

A

Women’s testimony was culturally deemed unreliable, suggesting authenticity of the event

If the story was fabricated, it would be unlikely to use such a source.

637
Q

What question arises regarding the disciples’ proclamation of the resurrection?

A

Why would they continue to proclaim it to the point of death if it were not true?

638
Q

What are the five alternative explanations skeptics offer for the resurrection?

A
  • Jesus rose from the dead
  • Hallucination
  • Myth
  • Conspiracy
  • Swoon
639
Q

What evidence refutes the hallucination theory regarding the resurrection?

A
  • Too many qualified witnesses
  • Hallucinations are brief and private
  • Hallucinations do not interact with the environment
  • The corpse was still in the tomb
640
Q

What evidence counters the myth theory of the resurrection?

A
  • The Gospels have a consistent style differing from myths
  • Insufficient time for myth development
641
Q

What points challenge the conspiracy theory about the resurrection?

A
  • Disciples did not recant under torture
  • Profound nature of the story
  • No self-serving motives
  • No corpse produced by opponents
642
Q

What evidence contradicts the swoon theory of Jesus’ resurrection?

A
  • Roman procedures ensured death
  • Signs of death (blood and water)
  • Transformation of disciples could not occur from a mere resuscitation
643
Q

What are the five proofs for the resurrection according to Lee Strobel?

A
  • Execution: Jesus was dead
  • Empty Tomb: The tomb was empty
  • Eyewitnesses: Over 515 saw Him
  • Early records: Not a later legend
  • Emergence of the Church: Rapid growth post-resurrection
644
Q

What are Douglas Groothuis’ five undisputed historical facts regarding the resurrection?

A
  • Transformation of defeated followers
  • Change of Sabbath from Saturday to Sunday
  • Testimony of women recorded
  • Declaration of Jesus as Lord
  • Early declaration of resurrection
645
Q

What does the evidentialist approach rely on?

A

Amassing supportive facts to deem the Christian explanation plausible

646
Q

What is the difference between the evidential and classical apologetic methods?

A

Evidential relies on inductive reasoning from demonstrable facts; classical uses deductive reasoning from premises

647
Q

What are examples of evidences from a scientific perspective supporting Christian truth claims?

A
  • Specified complexity
  • Fine-tuned universe
  • Rare Earth equation
  • Biogenesis
  • Fossil record
  • Human consciousness
  • Human abstraction
  • Human free agency
648
Q

What evidences from a historical perspective support Christian truth claims?

A
  • Eyewitness testimony
  • Outside document consistency
  • Cultural consistency
  • Human behavior consistency
  • Testimony trustworthiness
  • Manuscript authenticity
  • Oral tradition dependability
  • Archeological consistency
  • Resurrection credibility
649
Q

What is the method that substantiates conclusions in the evidentialist approach?

A

Induction: Generalize from cumulative observations

650
Q

What is the method that substantiates conclusions in the classical approach?

A

Deduction: Specify from general premises