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ECOS 1 Pre-Midterm > ECOS Midterm > Flashcards

ECOS Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What was the motto and attitude of medicine before osteopathy?

A

“Preserve the life force”
If enough force and drugs used, could conquer disease
Treatments were few, give stimulants if drowsy and hypnotics if agitated

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2
Q

Who reduced mortality through hand washing before osteopathy

A

Ingaz semmelweiss

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3
Q

Who used UV light before osteopathy

A

Finsen

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4
Q

Who used X rays before osteopathy

A

Rontgen

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5
Q

Who used sterile rubber gloves before osteopathy

A

Halstead

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6
Q

When was AT still born

A

Aug. 6 1828

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7
Q

What did AT still do treat a headache when he was 11?

A

Used a rope swing

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8
Q

How did AT still learn medicine?

A

Studied medicine and ministry under his father - apprenticeship

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9
Q

How did AT still learn anatomy?

A

On Indian cadevars from the cholera epidemic

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10
Q

What happened after AT still got back from the civil war?

A

He had 4 children die; 1 from pneumonia and 3 from spinal meningitis so he started to think about medicine differently

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11
Q

When did AT still create osteopathy?

A

10 AM June 22 1874

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12
Q

When did AT still create the first American School of Osteopathy?

A

1892

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13
Q

How many students did AT Still’s first class have?

A

22 - 17 men and 5 women

5 of the students were his children

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14
Q

When did AT still die?

A

1917

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15
Q

What are the osteopathic principles?

A

Body is a unit: body, mind, spirit
Body is capable of self regulation and self healing
Structure and function are reciprocally related
Rational treatment should be based on tenants 1-3

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16
Q

What did Dr. Abraham Flexner do?

A

Travelled to all MD and DO schools and authored a harsh report/criticism for all - encouraged clinical rotations and stricter requirements

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17
Q

When was the Kansas city college of osteopathy and surgery established?

A

1916

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18
Q

Who was the first commissioned DO into armed forces?

A

Harry J. Walter

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19
Q

Who was the first woman to receive DO degree?

A

Jeanette Bolles

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20
Q

Which woman treated spinal meningitis with osteopathy?

A

Louisa burns

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21
Q

Who was the first female graduate from KCU?

A

Mamie Johnston - 1918 and then joined KCU faculty - building named after her on campus

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22
Q

Who was the first female medical school dean?

A

Barbara ross-lee

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23
Q

Who was cuban born, a graduate of KCU and the 1st minority AOA president?

A

Marcelino Oliva

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24
Q

Who was involved in the Civil rights movement, AOA president and served on the board of trustees for 20 years, and was also associate dean of KCUCOM?

A

William G. Anderson

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25
Q

When should gloves be worn?

A

When there is obvious blood, body fluids and pt is presenting with diarrhea

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26
Q

When should you wash hands?

A

Before and after wearing gloves

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27
Q

What are the types of handwashing?

A

Handwashing, Antiseptic handwashing, alcohol based hand rub, surgical hand hygeine

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28
Q

Steps to handwashing

A

Wet, lather, scrub for 20 seconds, rinse, dry

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29
Q

Bigger side of the stethoscope?

A

Diaphragm

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30
Q

What is the diaphragm of the stethoscope used to hear?

A

High pitched sounds such as breath and heart

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31
Q

Smaller side of the stethoscope?

A

Bell

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32
Q

What is the bell of the stethoscope used to hear?

A

Low pitched sounds (bruit)

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33
Q

What are the 4 basic general assessment things to look at?

A

Apparent state of health, level of consciousness, signs of distress, skin color and obvious lesions

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34
Q

How do you check posture?

A

Check alignment of features anteriorly and posteriorly; such as the ears, mouth, shoulders, spinal alignement, iliac crests, knees, ankles

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35
Q

What are some common findings when checking facial feature alignment?

A

Facial droop

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36
Q

What are some common findings when checking anterior posture?

A

Flexed arm against body, knock knees (knees facing inward)

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37
Q

What are some common findings when checking posterior posture?

A

Scoliosis, short leg, shoulder winging

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38
Q

What is the ideal posture?

A

All land marks are on or near the gravitational line

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39
Q

What is included in the stance phase of walking?

A

Heel strike - loading response(absorb ground reaction to weight) - mid stance to pre swing(the body weight is carried forward)

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40
Q

What is included in the swing phase of walking?

A

Toe off - mid swing and terminal swing = clear foot and advance LE

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41
Q

What are the common causes for gait abnormalities?

A

Neurologic and musculoskeletal

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42
Q

Describe Ataxic gait

A
  • Neurologic disorder
    • Affects both legs, irregular steps and lack of proprioception and balance
    • Can be due to alcohol or damage to balance centers in the brain and spinal cord
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43
Q

Describe hemiparesis gait

A
  • Neurologic disorder
    • Affects one leg and one arm on same side
    • Leg will drag and circumduct while the arm is flexed
    • Due to damage in the motor control of brain (stroke)
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44
Q

Describe scissor gait

A
  • Neurologic disorder

- - Bilateral; knees pointing inward and feet commonly cross midline

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45
Q

Describe steppage gait

A
  • Neurologic disorder
    • Affects one leg; flex at hip/knee to clear foot during swing phase
    • Due to damage to a nerve that raises foot
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46
Q

Describe parkinsonian gait

A
  • Neurologic disorder
    • Bilateral; stiff and stooped over with tremors
    • Short shuffling gait that speeds up involuntarily
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47
Q

Describe waddling/Trendelenburg gait

A
  • MSK disorder

- - Bilateral; hip drops towards swing leg and trunk leans towards stance leg

48
Q

Describe antalgic gait

A
  • MSK disorder due to pain in LE

- - Affects one leg; stance phase is shorter in effected leg (pain/limp)

49
Q

What is defined as the altered function of the somatic system (skeletal, arthrodial, myofascial) along with their related vascular, lymphatic and neural elements?

A

Somatic Dysfunction!

50
Q

How do you diagnose somatic dysfunction?

A

TART:

  • Tissue texture abnormalities
  • Asymmetry
  • Range of motion
  • Tenderness
51
Q

What is defined as the act of a muscle shortening length?

A

Contraction

52
Q

What is defined as the abnormal, sometimes permanent contraction of a muscle?

A

Contracture

53
Q

How could you distinguish between acute and chronic somatic dysfunction?

A

Chronic: skin is cool, ropey, stringy
Acute: skin is warm, red, swollen, contracted

54
Q

How do you name somatic dysfunction?

A

FOR WHAT IT WILL DO

55
Q

Is passive ROM or active ROM better?

A

Passive - pt is passive and doctor does the moving

56
Q

How do you treat somatic dysfunction?

A

OMT

57
Q

What are the 5 osteopathic models?

A

Biomechanical, neurological, respiratory/circulatory, metabolic/energetic/immune, behavioral

58
Q

What movements are done in the coronal plane?

A

Sidebending, ABduction and ADduction

59
Q

What movements are done in the sagittal plane?

A

Flexion and extension

60
Q

What movements are done in the horizontal/transverse plane?

A

Rotation

61
Q

3 types of joints?

A

Fibrous, cartilagenous, synovial

62
Q

6 types of synovial joints?

A

Ball and socket, pivot, hinge, condyloid, plane, saddle

63
Q

3 things that ROM includes?

A

Direction, range and quality

64
Q

What is the end feel felt in somatic dysfunction?

A

Hard

65
Q

What are the other types of end feel?

A

Elastic, abrupt, hard, empty, crisp

66
Q

What area of the spine displays the greatest motion?

A

Cervical

67
Q

Stiffness?

A

Reduced ROM

68
Q

Motion along one axis with motion along another axis; and the 1st motion cannot be produced without the next motion to protect the spinal cord

A

Coupled motion

69
Q

What is in a functional unit?

A

2 vertebra, IV disc, and neurovascular components

70
Q

Link multiple structures together to increase the ROM such as the spine and pelvis

A

Linkage (same plane)

71
Q

What is always are the same level of the corresponding vertebral body?

A

Its transverse processes

72
Q

Where are the spinous processes located for T1-3 and T12?

A

At the same level as the vertebral body

73
Q

Where are the spinous processes located for T4-6 and T11?

A

Located 1/2 a segment below their corresponding transverse processes

74
Q

Where are the spinous processes located for T7-10?

A

Located 1 segment below their corresponding transverse processes

75
Q

What vertebrae is equal to the iliac crests?

A

L4

76
Q

What vertebrae is equal to the inferior angle of the scapula?

A

T7 SP

77
Q

What vertebrae is equal to the scapular spine?

A

T3

78
Q

What is the superior facet orientation for cervical vertebrae?

A

BUM (backwards, upwards, medial)

79
Q

What is the superior facet orientation for thoracic vertebrae?

A

BUL (backwards, upwards, lateral)

80
Q

What is the superior facet orientation for lumbar vertebrae?

A

BM (backwards, medial)

81
Q

What does the restrictive barrier create?

A

A shifted neutral

82
Q

What does spinal somatic dysfunction cause?

A

Restrictions of motion of the spine, reduced efficiency, impaired flow of fluids, alters nerve function and creates a structural imbalance

83
Q

If a segment is sidebending and rotating the same way, what muscle group is affected?

A

Rotatores

84
Q

If a segment is sidebending and rotating opposite ways, what muscle groups are affected?

A

Multifidus and semispinalis

85
Q

In flexion, what do the facets of vertebrae do?

A

open

86
Q

In extension, what do the facets of vertebrae do?

A

close

87
Q

What is another name for the spinal motion principles?

A

Fryette’s principles

88
Q

Who developed the first 2 spinal motion principles and when?

A

Harrison Fryette, DO - 1918

89
Q

What part of the spine are fryette’s principles applicable?

A

Thoracic and lumbar

90
Q

Who developed the 3rd spinal motion principle and when?

A

C.R. Nelson, DO - 1948

91
Q

What is Type 1 fryette principle?

A

Group of vertebrae are neutral, side bent and rotated in opposite directions;
Semispinalis and multifidus muscle groups

92
Q

What is Type 2 fryette principle?

A

One segment is either flexed or extended, side bent and rotated in the same direction;
Rotatores muscle

93
Q

What is Type 3 fryette principle?

A

Initiating movement of a vertebral segment in any plane of motion will modify the movement of that segment in other planes of motion

    • If motion is restricted in one plane, it will be restricted in other planes
    • If motion is improved in one plane, it will be improved in other planes
94
Q

Where do you test for rotation somatic dysfunction of the vertebrae?

A

Push on a transverse process, and the vertebrae will rotate towards the other side
– pressing on the right TP will initiate left rotation

95
Q

How do you test for sidebending somatic dysfunction of the vertebrae?

A

Translate the segment to the left or right

– translating the segment to the right will induce left side bending

96
Q

This vitamin is fat soluble, aids in vision and maintenance of the epithelia and can be found in dark green and yellow veggies/tomatoes

A

Vitamin A

97
Q

This vitamin is fat soluble, aids in bone metabolism and calcium homeostasis and can be found in milk and mushrooms

A

Vitamin D

98
Q

This vitamin is fat soluble, scavenges reactive oxygen species and can be found in wheat germ and avocado

A

Vitamin E

99
Q

This vitamin is fat soluble, aids in blood clotting, and can be found in green leafy veggies

A

Vitamin K

100
Q

What are the fat soluble vitamins?

A

ADEK

101
Q

What are the water soluble vitamins?

A

C, B1,B2,B3,B6,B9,B12

102
Q

This vitamin aids in carb and AA metabolism and is found in legumes

A

B1 - thiamine

103
Q

These vitamins are oxidoreductases and found in wheat germ

A

B2 - riboflavin

B3 - niacin

104
Q

This vitamin aids in the synthesis of NTs and is found in animal products

A

B6 - pyridoxine

105
Q

This vitamin aids in 1-carbon transfers and the synthesis of thiamine and is found in uncooked leafy veggies

A

B9 - folic acid

106
Q

This vitamin supports heme structure and NOT found in plants

A

B12 - cobalamin

107
Q

This vitamin is an antioxidant, supports collagen synthesis and is found in fruits and veggies

A

Vitamin C

108
Q

What mineral is used for contraction of muscles?

A

calcium

109
Q

What mineral is used for hemoglobin?

A

iron

110
Q

Tofu, broccoli, cauliflower are all sources of what?

A

Minerals - calcium and iron

111
Q

A BMI over 30 is considered

A

Obese

112
Q

A BMI between 25.1 - 29.9 is considered

A

Overweight

113
Q

A BMI between 18 - 25 is considered

A

Healthy

114
Q

How do you calculate BMI

A

Weight/Height^2

115
Q

This disease should eat a low carb diet, individualized meat intake and 1 hr a day aerobic exercise

A

Diabetes

116
Q

These disease should eat a DASH diet, whole grains, limit red meat and include resistance training in to their exercise

A

Hypertension and Hyperlipidemia

ECOS 1 Pre-Midterm (14 decks)

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