early pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

describe ovulation > placenta

A
  • at ovulation, ovum is released into the fallopian tube where it is fertilised
  • cells divide > fertilised eg becomes a morula then a blastocyte as it travels along the fallopian tube to the uterus
  • the blastocyte implants into the uterine lining during days 5-8, the inner cells develop into the embryo and the outer ells invade the endometrium and become the placenta
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2
Q

what is the outcome of “normal or abnormal embryo in a normal location”?

A

miscarriage

1/4 women experience miscarriage in her life

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3
Q

what are the risk info for miscarriages?

A

20% at 5 weeks
5% at 6 weeks
2-4% at 8-13 weeks
<1% after 13 weeks

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4
Q

what is the outcome of “normal embyro in an abnormal location”?

A

ectopic pregnancy

11/1000 pregnancies

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5
Q

what is the outcome of “abnormal embryo”?

A

molar pregnancy
most commonly in normal location
1/174 pregnancies

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6
Q

what is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

implantation in an abnormal location ie outside the endometrial cavity

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7
Q

where is the most common location for an ectopic pregnancy?

A
within the fallopian tube (intestinal, isthmic, ampullary or fimbrial)
or ovary (peritoneum, peritoneal cavity, cervix, c-section scar)
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8
Q

what is a molar pregnancy?

A

non-viable fertilised egg with an overgrowth of placental tissue swollen with fluid, which appears as “grape-like clusters”

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9
Q

what is molar pregnancy also known as?

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

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10
Q

what are the 2 classifications of molar pregnancy?

A

partial and complete

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11
Q

what is a partial mole?

A

one set of DNA from the eggs and two sets from the sperm (either 2 sperms fertilising the egg or one sperm reduplicating DNA material), resulting in triploidy

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12
Q

what does a partial mole result in?

A

an overgrowth of placental tissue with or without a foetus

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13
Q

what is a complete mole?

A

consists of an egg without any DNA and 2 sets from the sperm (either 2 sperms fertilising the egg or one sperm reduplicating DNA material) resulting in diploidy

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14
Q

is there a foetus in complete mole?

A

no, only an overgrowth of placental tissue

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15
Q

which % risk of choriocarcinoma does a complete mole carry?

A

2.5%

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16
Q

how is an early pregnancy detected?

A
  • urine test
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17
Q

when will a urine test be positive for pregnancy?

A

if HCG (human chorionic gonadotrophic) is detected

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18
Q

how quickly does HCG increase in a normal, singleton pregnancy?

A

double every 48 hours

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19
Q

what symptoms are thought to be caused by HCG?

A

nausea, vomiting (stops when HCG reaches a peak at 12-14 weeks)

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20
Q

when does the placenta and foetal heart develop and begin to function?

A

at 5 weeks

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21
Q

when is human placental lactogen produced and what does do?

A

5 weeks
has growth hormone-like effects and deceases insulin resistance in the mother
also involved in breast development, alongside rising levels of oestrogen (why tender breasts are a sign of early pregnancy)

22
Q

what are the physiological cardiac changes in early pregnancy?

A
  • increased CO (due to increase in BV) to cope with demands of the uteroplacental circulation
  • begins @ week 6 and can cause a raised HR, ECG changes, functional murmurs and other heart sounds
23
Q

why do pregnant women have lower Hb level?

A

as CO increases, so does plasma volume, which decreases Hb by dilution

24
Q

what is anaemia defined by in the first trimester?

25
what is implantation bleeding?
occurs from where the fertilised egg has implanted in the uterine wall
26
when does implantation bleeding occur?
10 days after ovulation
27
what colour is implantation bleeding?
light brown and limited (earlier and lighter than expected from a period) followed by signs and symptoms of pregnancy
28
what is a subchorionic haematoma?
a collection of blood between the chorion and the uterine wall - can vary in sixe and may be seen as part of the investigation of threatened miscarriage
29
what are the symptoms of subchorionic haematoma?
bleeding cramping threatened miscarriage
30
what is threatened miscarriage?
vaginal bleeding during a pregnancy doesn't always mean that you will have a miscarriage (83% chance of pregnancy continuing) baby will not be harmed if bleeding goes away
31
what are the two types of epithelium in the cervix?
``` ectocervix = tough, squamous epithelium endocervix = columnar epithelium ```
32
what is the transitional zone of the cervix?
the squamo-columnar junction between the two types of epithelium - the position of the TZ alters as a physiological response to pregnancy which can lead to exposure if the delicate endocervical epithelium to the acid environment of the vagina --> cervical erosion (or ectropion) and this area can bleed
33
what are cervical polyps?
benign, localised inflammatory outgrowth | may be asymptomatic or can bleed if ulcerated (a they can be exposed to the acid of vagina)
34
what does a threatened miscarraige look like on US?
evidence of intrauterine pregnancy | if the foetal pole is present and measuring more than 7mm a foetal heart should be present
35
what is an incomplete miscarriage?
when some of the products have already been passed, but there are some products remaining in the uterus
36
what is an inevitable miscarriage?
when there are symptoms consistent with miscarriage and the pregnancy can't be saved
37
what is a septal miscarriage?
infection alongside an incomplete or complete miscarriage | fevers, rigors, uterine tenderness, bleeding, offensive discharge, pain, raised inflammatory markers
38
what is defined as recurrent miscarriage?
3 or more consecutive pregnancy losses | affects 1% of couples trying to concieve
39
what should be screened for in recurrent miscarriage?
antiphospholipid syndrome, thrombophilia, balanced translocations, and / or uterine abnormalities (if late first trimester losses)
40
what is a missed miscarriage?
when there are no symptoms of miscarriage or a history of threatened miscarriage, but on US scanning there is no viable pregnancy
41
what can cause a missed miscarriage?
anmebryonic pregnancy (where there is no foetus, simply an empty gestational sac) or early foetal demise (where there is a pregnancy in situ that has a mean sac diameter of >25mm and/or a foetal pole of over 7mm but there is no foetal heartbeat present)
42
which maternal factors may increase risk of miscarriage?
PCOS, uncontrolled diabetes, increasing age, heavy smoking, alcohol misuse, drug misuse (eg cocaine), severe hypertension, obesity
43
which uterine factors may increase risk of miscarriage?
septate uteri, bicornate uteri, unicornate uteri
44
which immunological factors may increase risk of miscarriage?
antiphospholipid syndrome (eg lupus anticogulant and anticardiolipin antibody)
45
which infections may cause increased risk of miscarriage?
CMN, rubella, toxoplasmosis, listeria
46
which iatrogenic causes may cause miscarriage?
after chorionic villus sampling | aminocentesis
47
which antibodies are associated with antiphospholipid syndrome?
lupus anticoagulant anticardiolipin antibodies antiB2 glycoprotein -1 antibodies
48
what is hyperemesis gravidarum?
pregnancy complication characterised by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss and possible dehydration
49
what are the HCG levels expected to be in miscarriage?
expected to halve eery 48 hours
50
what are the HCG levels expected to be in a molar pregnancy?
raised
51
treatment for antiphospholipid syndrome?
low dose aspirin and daily fragmin injectoins