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Multiple Choice - E-8-1s > E-3 Multiple Choice > Flashcards

E-3 Multiple Choice Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement regarding DOD employees and military members is false in regards to multiple jobs

A

They may never receive payment from sources other than the US for performing official services or duties

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2
Q

Knowing soliciting, accepting or failing to report or deposit gifts from foreign governments valued in excess of 305 without congressional approval may result in

A

Civil action by the US Attorney General

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3
Q

Failure to report gifts from foreign governments valued in excess of 305 within 60 days to the AFPC may result in a penalty of up to retail value of the gift plus ____

A

$5,000

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4
Q

All states must allow you to register and vote absentee in state elections T/F

A

False

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5
Q

What are part of the overall purpose of the AF Inspection System (AFIS)

A

Enabling and strengthening commanders effectiveness and efficiency
Motivating and promoting military discipline
Improving unit performance and management excellence

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6
Q

Who reports on AF organization s readiness , economy, efficiency and stat of discipline to the SECAF and the CSAF

A

The Inspector General (TIG)

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7
Q

Who appoints an IG to set up an inspection program, consistent with MAJCOM mission requirements, that assesses unit effectiveness, surety and other elements

A

Each MAJCOM commander and Wing Commander

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8
Q

Under the commanders inspection program the Wing IG is responsible to

A

Validate and verify commander self assessments

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9
Q

Who uses the information provided by the commanders inspection program to assess risk, identify areas of improvement, determine root cause and focus limited resources

A

The Wing Commander, subordinate commanders and wing airmen

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10
Q

The commanders inspection program produces two components : The ___- and the wings inspection program

A

Self Assessment program

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11
Q

The self-assessment program and the Wings Inspection Program provide critical data to leadership about what six things

A

Adequacy of policy, training, manpower, funds, equipment and facilities

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12
Q

The five inspection elements are the self assessment program, management internal control tools, unit effectiveness inspection rating, self assessment communicator and ___

A

IGs evaluation management system

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13
Q

What does the IG team chief use to determine a rating on the five tier scale

A

Observations, interviews, audits and task evaluations

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14
Q

What authority do Gatekeepers have

A

Authority to approve or disapprove inspections or inspection type activities on behalf of the commander

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15
Q

Gatekeepers lack the authority to approve the TJAG article 6 inspections that the TAG directed audits. What to other inspections or inspection type activities they cannot approve

A

TAG directed AFI/SECAF/IG inspections and inspection type activities conducted by properly authorized DoD or their US government (USG) agencies

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16
Q

Who publishes the Inspector General Brief, AF recurring publication 90-1, providing authorities guidance and information to commanders IG, inspectors and AF supervisors and leaders at all levels of command

A

Air Force Inspection Agency (AFIA)

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17
Q

Articles published in The inspector General Brief, AF Recurring Publication 90-1, should not relate to

A

How other bases scored on IG inspections

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18
Q

The AF adopted Full Range Leadership Development (FRLD) to meet the need for highly effective Amn with their ___ and capability to operate through a spectrum of leadership styles

A

Flexibility

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19
Q

Full range leadership requires todays leaders to consider the follower and each situation and be willing to

A

Identify improvement areas in ones self, followers and workplace

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20
Q

The full range leadership development (FRLD) model includes ___ leadership behaviors

A

Five

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21
Q

Why is management by exception Passive somewhat more effective than the Laissez-Faire leadership behavior

A

It hold subordinates accountable

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22
Q

Using ____ transformational leaders nurture followers by acting as mentors or coaches

A

Individualized consideration

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23
Q

Transformational leaders use which of the 4 Is to simulate and encourage creativity and independent thinking

A

Intellectual Stimulation

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24
Q

Using ____ transformational leaders articulate and optimistic vision of the future that helps elevate followers level of achievement

A

Inspirational motivation

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25
Q

When speaking to an audience remember

A

Your voice carries further when the room is empty rather than full

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26
Q

What is the rule about spoken communication

A

A key rule about length is to keep it short and sweet

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27
Q

How much of our meaning maybe be communicated nonverbally

A

More then Half

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28
Q

Accuracy, brevity and clarity are the three qualities of every good

A

Briefing

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29
Q

Which quality distinguishes the briefing form other types of speaking

A

Brevity

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30
Q

A presentation at a commanders call is an example of which type of formal speech

A

Informative

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31
Q

During the listening process

A

Appropriate listening behaviors in one situation may be inappropriate in another

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32
Q

In which type of listening is the listeners primary concern understanding information exactly as it is transmitted

A

Informative

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33
Q

Which is a way to improve your informative listening skills

A

Respond and ask appropriate question to clarify and confirm

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34
Q

Critical listening is the sum of Critical Thinking and ____

A

Informative listening

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35
Q

In which situation would you use empathetic listening

A

During mentoring and non punitive counseling sessions

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36
Q

Three or more people usually sit on the board and ask all candidates the same question during a selection panel interview T/F

A

False

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37
Q

When thinking about and writing down your strengths and weakness before a job interview what should you do

A

Develop examples that highlight your skills

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38
Q

What is the most important step in the job search process

A

The job interview

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39
Q

What three essential elements are contained in response

A

Notification, response and protective actions

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40
Q

Military justice is a relatively new concept originating in the 19th Century T/F

A

False

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41
Q

What is the historical foundation fo the US military law and criminal justice system

A

The British Articles of War

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42
Q

The us military justice system remained substantially unchanged until what war

A

WWII

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43
Q

In what year did Congress enact the UCMJ, which applies to all branches of service and provides substantial procedural guarantees of an open and fair military justice process

A

1950

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44
Q

The UCMJ established the ___ as the first level of appeal in the military justice system

A

AF, Army, Navy and Coast Guard Boards of Review

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45
Q

The military justice act of ___ created the position of military judge an authorized trial by military judge alone

A

1963

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46
Q

In appropriate cases, direct appeal to the US supreme Court from the Court of Military Appeals without the need to first pursue an appeal through civilian appellate courts is provide by

A

The military justice Act of 1983

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47
Q

____ provision in the US constitution grant powers to the legislative and executive branches that provide the legal foundation for our military justice system

A

Two provisions

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48
Q

What pat of the US constitution grants military related power to congress

A

Article I, Section 8

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49
Q

Who has the constitutional power to declare war

A

Congress Only

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50
Q

Presidential powers do not include ___-

A

Providing and maintaining a Navy

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51
Q

Which power is granted to the president by the Constitution

A

Commander in Chief of the US armed forces and the militia when called in to federal service

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52
Q

Who established the MCM in 1951 to implement the UCMJ

A

President Harry S Truman

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53
Q

Cadets, aviation cadets and midshipmen are not subject tot eh UCMJ T/F

A

False

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54
Q

Only the SECAF may approve prosecutions by both a state court and a court marital for the same act when justice and discipline may not be served in any other way T/F

A

True

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55
Q

Each commander in the chain of command has ___ discretion to dispose of offenses within the limits of his or her authority

A

Independent, yet overlapping

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56
Q

A commander may not dispose of a case by Offering the member judicial punishment

A

under Article 15 , UCMJ

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57
Q

Who must make the decision to refer a case to trial

A

Convening Authorities

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58
Q

Selected from highly qualified, experienced judge advocates, a ____ presides over each open session of the court marital

A

Military Trial Judge

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59
Q

Who reviews the accused case of legal errors and may dismiss the case, reduce the sentence or order a rehearing

A

The AF court of Criminal Appeals (AFCCA)

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60
Q

All dismissal sentences for an AF officer or cadet must be approved prior to execution by ___

A

The SECAF or appointed designee

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61
Q

Who must approve all death sentence’s resulting from court martial before an individual can be put to death

A

The president

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62
Q

The severity of an absence offense is determined by the circumstances under which it occurs and ___

A

The intent of the accused

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63
Q

Which UCMJ article address accused where the member fails to go to the appointed place of duty, is absent from the unit, abandons watch or guard

A

Article 86

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64
Q

Absence from the unit, Org, or other place of duty is a common AWOL charge. The maximum punishment varies with the

A

Duration of absence

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65
Q

Which article of the UCMJ states that a member who, through neglect or design, misses the movement of a ship, Aircraft or unit has committed an offense

A

Article 87

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66
Q

Which article of the UCMJ covers the making and signing of false official statements and document

A

Article 107

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67
Q

The general article ____ UCMJ addresses unspecified offenses punishable because of their effect on the us armed forces

A

Article 134

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68
Q

Disorders and neglects prejudicial to good order and discipline in Article 134, do not include

A

Pandering and Indecent exposure

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69
Q

Which charges should not be punished under article 134, UCMJ

A

Violations of local law that don’t tend to discredit the Armed forces

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70
Q

Which article of the UCMJ deals with misbehavior before the enemy

A

Article 99

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71
Q

When charged with running away before the enemy, the term Enemy is restricted to the enemy government or its armed forces under Article 99, UCMJ T/F

A

False

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72
Q

Which article of the UCMJ deals with an accused who secures favorable treatment to the detriment of to the prisoners and also prohibits maltreatment of a OW by a person in a position of authority

A

Article 105

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73
Q

It is not necessary that the accused knew the person against whom the acts or words were directed was a superior commissioned officer T/F

A

False

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74
Q

Which article of the UCMJ deals with disrespect toward a known superior commissioned officers

A

Article 89

75
Q

NCOs are protected from disrespect under what article

A

Article 91, UCMJ

76
Q

Which article of the UCMJ deals with assaulting a known superior commissioned officer

A

Article 90 (1)

77
Q

According to article 90, Assaults and batteries are prohibited against superior commissioned officers who are not executing their duties at the moment T/F

A

False

78
Q

Article ____ UCMJ prohibits the intentional or willful disobedience of the lawful orders of a superior officer

A

Article 90 (2)

79
Q

The secretary of a military department may publish general orders or regulations T/F

A

False

80
Q

What individuals have the authority to issue general orders

A

The President
The SecDef
An officer with General Court Martial Jurisdiction

81
Q

“_____inefficiency” is inefficiency for which there is no reasonable or just excuse

A

Culpable

82
Q

A lawful order is not required to be what

A

General as to time and place

83
Q

Annual military pay raises are set by

A

Congress and the President

84
Q

The rate of your Bas pay depends on your what

A

Grade and length of military service

85
Q

Your pay date is not negatively adjusted if you

A

Take Advance leave

86
Q

What is your LES form number

A

DFAS Form 702

87
Q

Most junior grade enlisted members assigned to single type government quarters at their permanent duty station do not what

A

Automatically receive reimbursement for missed meals

88
Q

Members without dependents residing in single type government quarters qualify for BAH Differential T/F

A

False

89
Q

What are members without dependents residing in government single type quarters usually entitled

A

Partial Basic Allowance for Housing

90
Q

What type of Basic Allowance for Housing may members living in single type government quarters who pay court ordered child support qualify for

A

Basic Allowance for Housing Differential

91
Q

The monthly OHA is the ret, not including a utility/recurring maintenance allowance T/F

A

False

92
Q

The Clothing Replacement allowance Basic is preliminary replacement allowance paid to military members between the ___ and ____ month of active duty

A

6th and 36th

93
Q

The clothing replacement allowance Standard automatically replaces CRA Basic after ___ months of active duty

A

36 months

94
Q

Which allowance is paid to member if traveling of dependents is not authorized at government expense and the depends do not live in the vicinity of a members permanent duty station

A

Family Separation Allowance (FSA)-Restricted (FSA-R)

95
Q

Family separation allowance serving on ships (FSA-S) applies to members serving on ships away from the homeport continuously for more then ___ days

A

30 days

96
Q

Special and incentive pays include what

A

Hazardous duty, imminent danger and special duty assignment pay
Enlisted Flying duty and hardship duty pay location
Enlistment and Reenlistment bonuses

97
Q

Allowances considered nontaxable on 9 Sep ___ remain nontaxable

A

1986

98
Q

Service member Group Life Insurance is a Involuntary payroll deduction T/F

A

False

99
Q

How much is the Max monthly deduction from a regular enlisted members pay to support the US soldiers and Amns home and the navel a home

A

$1

100
Q

What is the maximum number of discretionary payroll allotments

A

Six

101
Q

Insurance premiums is an example of a discretionary allotment T/F

A

True

102
Q

To allow for sufficient processing time, allotments should be request about ___ days before the desired start month

A

30 days

103
Q

SGLI automatically gives eligible members life insurance coverage when on active duty or active duty for training for an ordered period of more than ___ days

A

30

104
Q

What is the usual cutoff date to determine pay received on the next payday

A

Around the 6th for mid month and the 20th of end of month

105
Q

Non cash partial payments made via EFT are deposited in o the members financial intuition usually within ___ to ___ business days

A

Two to three

106
Q

To receive PCS advance pay ___ and below must have their immediate commanders approval

A

A1C

107
Q

Which PCS allowance is payable to members without dependent if they are not assigned permanent government quarters at their new PDS

A

Dislocation allowance (DLA)

108
Q

Which allowance is paid to a member arriving or departing a PCS at a location outside the conus to help defray the added living expense while occupying temporary lodging for PCS

A

TLA

109
Q

What is the PCS weight allowance when shipping unaccompanied baggage via expedited commercial air

A

1,000 lbs

110
Q

Personal phone calls and laundry or dry cleaning are reimbursable TDY expenses T/F

A

False

111
Q

What form is used for a TDY travel voucher

A

DD Form 1351-2

112
Q

When can you file a interment travel voucher for TDYs

A

TDYS for 45 days or more

113
Q

Who manages the DOD travel card program within their hierarchy

A

Agency Program Coordinators (APC)

114
Q

When using the GTC, do0 not obtain ATM cash advances more than ___ workdays before scheduled travel

A

3 Workdays

115
Q

A late fee per billing cycle may be assessed for individual billed GTC charges that are ___ days past the closing date of the account statement on which they first appeared

A

75 days

116
Q

When will delinquent GTC debts be turned over to a collection agency

A

210 days delinquent

117
Q

A members consent is not required for the AF to collect debts owed to the federal government or government instrumentalist. Generally if the debt exceeds ___ however, the individual must be given due process.

A

$100

118
Q

How can you request relieve from valid debts to the federal government

A

Apply for a waiver or remission

119
Q

In 2014, the TSP annual limit became ___ for deferred and ROTH contributions

A

$17,500

120
Q

As of 2014, the TSP annual limits is up to ____ for total combined deferred/exempt traditional ROTH contributions

A

$52,000

121
Q

If already contributing from basic pay, members may choose to contribute up to ____ percent of special and incentive pays and bonuses to their Thrift Savings Plan accounts

A

100 Percent

122
Q

What does the Military health system do

A

Develop and promote health awareness issues to educate customers
Provide Health services
Improves the means and methods for maintaining the health of the beneficiary population

123
Q

The _____ mission, vision and overall strategy focus DoD resources on providing a highly ready system of health to support the nations military mission and all uniformed service personnel, retires and their families

A

Military Health Systems

124
Q

The ___ is a joint Combat support agency that supports the military medical services and manages the execution of health policy

A

Defense health Agency

125
Q

The AF medical series vision is to ensure its patients are the healthiest and highest performing segment of the US by ____

A

2025

126
Q

Each Tricare prime enrollee is assigned a primary care manger who does what

A

Provides routine, non emergency and urgent health care
Coordinates with the regional Tricare contractor to find specialists in the network
Submits referrals for specialty care and files claims on the enrollees behalf

127
Q

Tricare overseas program ___ offers prime coverage to active duty service members permanently assigned to designated remote locations, and their eligible command sponsored family members

A

Prime Remote

128
Q

Which statement about TRICARE standard and extra is inaccurate

A

It is a fee for service plan available to all active duty beneficiaries

129
Q

The Tricare reserve select plan is a premium based health plan available for purchase worldwide. Which program does it not offer

A

Tricare Young Adult

130
Q

Winch is not true about Tricare Young Adult

A

Tricare young adult includes medical and dental coverage, but excludes pharmacy benefits

131
Q

The AF Anti terrorism program dos not seek to deter or blunt terrorist attacks by

A

Training civilian first responders

132
Q

Give ___ training and excursive the same emphasis as combat task training

A

Antiterrorism

133
Q

What do random anti Terrorism Measures hinder by introducing uncertainty to an installati9ons overall force protection program

A

Accurate Terrorist Surveillance attempts

134
Q

Prior to OS commercial travel, received an AOR specific threat briefing within three months of travel from who

A

Antiterrorism Officer
Security Officer
Appropriate counterintelligence or security organization

135
Q

____ is the act of obtaining, delivering, transmitting, communication or receiving information about the national defines with intent or reason to believe the information may be used against the US or to the advantage of any foreign nation

A

Espionage

136
Q

Regarding Human Intelligence, define debriefing

A

Questioning cooperating human sources consistent with applicable law

137
Q

You must report HUMINT or CI contact to the AF OSI within ___ days

A

30 days

138
Q

By formal agreement, members of the armed services must report information pertaining to the protection of the President of the united State tot eh __-

A

Secret Service

139
Q

The US secret service protects who

A

Former Presidents and their spouses
Vising foreign heads of state
The president elect and vice president elect

140
Q

All former US presidents who served before ___ along with their spouses received Secret service protection for their lifetimes

A

1 Jan 1997

141
Q

Report US Citizens characterized by emotional instability, violent anti US sentiment or a propensity toward violence who have only indicated a desire to renounce the US government to the AF OSI T/F

A

False

142
Q

From lowest to highest, what are the three commitment levels in contemporary motivation

A

Membership, performance, involvement

143
Q

Identifying and evaluating organizational norms will result in a ___ score

A

Morale

144
Q

Which behaviors, sentiments and interactions often have a greater influence on organization life than required behavior

A

Emergent

145
Q

Emergent organizational behavior is determined largely by formation of ___ behavioral norms

A

Working Group

146
Q

Negative leadership norms cause supervisor to assume more active roles, like policing and monitoring T/F

A

False

147
Q

Norms should be measured to develop a normative ____ a statement of organizational strengths and weaknesses on a behavioral level

A

Outline

148
Q

Transactional Analysis is a theory of ____

A

Personality

149
Q

Which of the following is a defining principle of transactional analysis

A

Time Structuring
Strokes
Life positions

150
Q

Ego states tend to be more permanent than life positions T/F

A

False

151
Q

The adult ego state is a way of feeling, acting and believing that is rather ___

A

Objective

152
Q

When does the adult ego state develop

A

later then that of the parent or child

153
Q

A healthy individual maintains a balance among the three ego states. What is domination by one of the ego states known as

A

Contamination

154
Q

What is Life Position

A

Results from our experiences expressing needs and the responses we receive

155
Q

I don’t have value; you don’t have value. Translate this into a life position

A

I’m ok, your ok

156
Q

In transaction analysis a transition contains a ___ and a response

A

Stimulus

157
Q

In a __- transaction the response is not appropriate or expected

A

Crossed

158
Q

As long as transactions remain ___ communication continues

A

Complementary

159
Q

What type of transactions are barriers to effective communication and negatively impact motivation

A

Crossed

160
Q

Which is not a type of time structuring

A

Education

161
Q

As a method of time structuring, ____ inhibits full productivity and prevent people and organization from achieving their objectives

A

Games

162
Q

Which are the life position of the supervisors and subordinate in the theory X management style

A

Supervisor=OK; Subordinate = not OK

163
Q

The participative management style is also known a the

A

Theory Y

164
Q

In the theory Y management style, both supervisor and subordinate operate in the ____ ego state

A

Adult

165
Q

In the ____ management style, the supervisor may be conformable in the parent ego stat, but the subordinate may not enjoy the child state

A

Theory X

166
Q

Effective supervises focus on ___- subordinates behavior as a means for improving the organizational climate and increasing productivity

A

Modifying

167
Q

It is a systematic, two way discussion between supervisor and subordinate to performance counsel T/F

A

True

168
Q

The key to supervisory success is the ability and willingness to ___ effectively

A

Communicate

169
Q

Supportive feedback is used to alter a behavior that is considered effective and appropriate T/F

A

False

170
Q

“I’m pleased to see your work is improving” is an example of a general feedback statement T/F

A

True

171
Q

If a subordinate is to learn from and respond to feedback he or she must see it in terms of ___ effects

A

Observable

172
Q

To be acceptable to the subordinate, feedback must be what

A

Nonthreatening

173
Q

After corrective feedback is understood and acknowledged, the supervisor can what

A

Is free to change the subject so the subordinates negative feelings last no longer than necessary

174
Q

Alternating the types of feedback will seem more genuine T/F

A

True

175
Q

How many major principals govern the use of feedback

A

Two

176
Q

What is the first principle governing the use of feedback

A

I cant tell you how you are and you cant tell me what I see

177
Q

It is never necessary to apologize for giving corrective feedback T/F

A

False

178
Q

Feedback requires ___ from both the supervisor and the subordinate

A

Action

179
Q

Feedback supports growth, means that subordinate are able to ___ themselves and grow if they pay attention to feedback from others

A

Stretch

180
Q

Once the supervisor selects a feedback strategy, he or she should keep three rules in mind. What is the first rule

A

Be clear about what you want in items of specific, identifiable outcomes for yourself, the subordinate and the organization

181
Q

Develop a plan to deal with the issues is a step of the supportive feedback strategy T/F

A

False

182
Q

What is the final step in the supportive feedback strategy

A

Thank the subordinate for the good performance

183
Q

Using the corrective feedback strategy, which step does the supervisor take once he or she has described the event in a behavior terms and explained the effect

A

Ask what happened

Multiple Choice - E-8-1s (5 decks)

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