E-3 Multiple Choice Flashcards
(183 cards)
1
Q
Which statement regarding DOD employees and military members is false in regards to multiple jobs
A
They may never receive payment from sources other than the US for performing official services or duties
2
Q
Knowing soliciting, accepting or failing to report or deposit gifts from foreign governments valued in excess of 305 without congressional approval may result in
A
Civil action by the US Attorney General
3
Q
Failure to report gifts from foreign governments valued in excess of 305 within 60 days to the AFPC may result in a penalty of up to retail value of the gift plus ____
A
$5,000
4
Q
All states must allow you to register and vote absentee in state elections T/F
A
False
5
Q
What are part of the overall purpose of the AF Inspection System (AFIS)
A
Enabling and strengthening commanders effectiveness and efficiency
Motivating and promoting military discipline
Improving unit performance and management excellence
6
Q
Who reports on AF organization s readiness , economy, efficiency and stat of discipline to the SECAF and the CSAF
A
The Inspector General (TIG)
7
Q
Who appoints an IG to set up an inspection program, consistent with MAJCOM mission requirements, that assesses unit effectiveness, surety and other elements
A
Each MAJCOM commander and Wing Commander
8
Q
Under the commanders inspection program the Wing IG is responsible to
A
Validate and verify commander self assessments
9
Q
Who uses the information provided by the commanders inspection program to assess risk, identify areas of improvement, determine root cause and focus limited resources
A
The Wing Commander, subordinate commanders and wing airmen
10
Q
The commanders inspection program produces two components : The ___- and the wings inspection program
A
Self Assessment program
11
Q
The self-assessment program and the Wings Inspection Program provide critical data to leadership about what six things
A
Adequacy of policy, training, manpower, funds, equipment and facilities
12
Q
The five inspection elements are the self assessment program, management internal control tools, unit effectiveness inspection rating, self assessment communicator and ___
A
IGs evaluation management system
13
Q
What does the IG team chief use to determine a rating on the five tier scale
A
Observations, interviews, audits and task evaluations
14
Q
What authority do Gatekeepers have
A
Authority to approve or disapprove inspections or inspection type activities on behalf of the commander
15
Q
Gatekeepers lack the authority to approve the TJAG article 6 inspections that the TAG directed audits. What to other inspections or inspection type activities they cannot approve
A
TAG directed AFI/SECAF/IG inspections and inspection type activities conducted by properly authorized DoD or their US government (USG) agencies
16
Q
Who publishes the Inspector General Brief, AF recurring publication 90-1, providing authorities guidance and information to commanders IG, inspectors and AF supervisors and leaders at all levels of command
A
Air Force Inspection Agency (AFIA)
17
Q
Articles published in The inspector General Brief, AF Recurring Publication 90-1, should not relate to
A
How other bases scored on IG inspections
18
Q
The AF adopted Full Range Leadership Development (FRLD) to meet the need for highly effective Amn with their ___ and capability to operate through a spectrum of leadership styles
A
Flexibility
19
Q
Full range leadership requires todays leaders to consider the follower and each situation and be willing to
A
Identify improvement areas in ones self, followers and workplace
20
Q
The full range leadership development (FRLD) model includes ___ leadership behaviors
A
Five
21
Q
Why is management by exception Passive somewhat more effective than the Laissez-Faire leadership behavior
A
It hold subordinates accountable
22
Q
Using ____ transformational leaders nurture followers by acting as mentors or coaches
A
Individualized consideration
23
Q
Transformational leaders use which of the 4 Is to simulate and encourage creativity and independent thinking
A
Intellectual Stimulation
24
Q
Using ____ transformational leaders articulate and optimistic vision of the future that helps elevate followers level of achievement
A
Inspirational motivation
25
When speaking to an audience remember
Your voice carries further when the room is empty rather than full
26
What is the rule about spoken communication
A key rule about length is to keep it short and sweet
27
How much of our meaning maybe be communicated nonverbally
More then Half
28
Accuracy, brevity and clarity are the three qualities of every good
Briefing
29
Which quality distinguishes the briefing form other types of speaking
Brevity
30
A presentation at a commanders call is an example of which type of formal speech
Informative
31
During the listening process
Appropriate listening behaviors in one situation may be inappropriate in another
32
In which type of listening is the listeners primary concern understanding information exactly as it is transmitted
Informative
33
Which is a way to improve your informative listening skills
Respond and ask appropriate question to clarify and confirm
34
Critical listening is the sum of Critical Thinking and ____
Informative listening
35
In which situation would you use empathetic listening
During mentoring and non punitive counseling sessions
36
Three or more people usually sit on the board and ask all candidates the same question during a selection panel interview T/F
False
37
When thinking about and writing down your strengths and weakness before a job interview what should you do
Develop examples that highlight your skills
38
What is the most important step in the job search process
The job interview
39
What three essential elements are contained in response
Notification, response and protective actions
40
Military justice is a relatively new concept originating in the 19th Century T/F
False
41
What is the historical foundation fo the US military law and criminal justice system
The British Articles of War
42
The us military justice system remained substantially unchanged until what war
WWII
43
In what year did Congress enact the UCMJ, which applies to all branches of service and provides substantial procedural guarantees of an open and fair military justice process
1950
44
The UCMJ established the ___ as the first level of appeal in the military justice system
AF, Army, Navy and Coast Guard Boards of Review
45
The military justice act of ___ created the position of military judge an authorized trial by military judge alone
1963
46
In appropriate cases, direct appeal to the US supreme Court from the Court of Military Appeals without the need to first pursue an appeal through civilian appellate courts is provide by
The military justice Act of 1983
47
____ provision in the US constitution grant powers to the legislative and executive branches that provide the legal foundation for our military justice system
Two provisions
48
What pat of the US constitution grants military related power to congress
Article I, Section 8
49
Who has the constitutional power to declare war
Congress Only
50
Presidential powers do not include ___-
Providing and maintaining a Navy
51
Which power is granted to the president by the Constitution
Commander in Chief of the US armed forces and the militia when called in to federal service
52
Who established the MCM in 1951 to implement the UCMJ
President Harry S Truman
53
Cadets, aviation cadets and midshipmen are not subject tot eh UCMJ T/F
False
54
Only the SECAF may approve prosecutions by both a state court and a court marital for the same act when justice and discipline may not be served in any other way T/F
True
55
Each commander in the chain of command has ___ discretion to dispose of offenses within the limits of his or her authority
Independent, yet overlapping
56
A commander may not dispose of a case by Offering the member judicial punishment
under Article 15 , UCMJ
57
Who must make the decision to refer a case to trial
Convening Authorities
58
Selected from highly qualified, experienced judge advocates, a ____ presides over each open session of the court marital
Military Trial Judge
59
Who reviews the accused case of legal errors and may dismiss the case, reduce the sentence or order a rehearing
The AF court of Criminal Appeals (AFCCA)
60
All dismissal sentences for an AF officer or cadet must be approved prior to execution by ___
The SECAF or appointed designee
61
Who must approve all death sentence's resulting from court martial before an individual can be put to death
The president
62
The severity of an absence offense is determined by the circumstances under which it occurs and ___
The intent of the accused
63
Which UCMJ article address accused where the member fails to go to the appointed place of duty, is absent from the unit, abandons watch or guard
Article 86
64
Absence from the unit, Org, or other place of duty is a common AWOL charge. The maximum punishment varies with the
Duration of absence
65
Which article of the UCMJ states that a member who, through neglect or design, misses the movement of a ship, Aircraft or unit has committed an offense
Article 87
66
Which article of the UCMJ covers the making and signing of false official statements and document
Article 107
67
The general article ____ UCMJ addresses unspecified offenses punishable because of their effect on the us armed forces
Article 134
68
Disorders and neglects prejudicial to good order and discipline in Article 134, do not include
Pandering and Indecent exposure
69
Which charges should not be punished under article 134, UCMJ
Violations of local law that don't tend to discredit the Armed forces
70
Which article of the UCMJ deals with misbehavior before the enemy
Article 99
71
When charged with running away before the enemy, the term Enemy is restricted to the enemy government or its armed forces under Article 99, UCMJ T/F
False
72
Which article of the UCMJ deals with an accused who secures favorable treatment to the detriment of to the prisoners and also prohibits maltreatment of a OW by a person in a position of authority
Article 105
73
It is not necessary that the accused knew the person against whom the acts or words were directed was a superior commissioned officer T/F
False
74
Which article of the UCMJ deals with disrespect toward a known superior commissioned officers
Article 89
75
NCOs are protected from disrespect under what article
Article 91, UCMJ
76
Which article of the UCMJ deals with assaulting a known superior commissioned officer
Article 90 (1)
77
According to article 90, Assaults and batteries are prohibited against superior commissioned officers who are not executing their duties at the moment T/F
False
78
Article ____ UCMJ prohibits the intentional or willful disobedience of the lawful orders of a superior officer
Article 90 (2)
79
The secretary of a military department may publish general orders or regulations T/F
False
80
What individuals have the authority to issue general orders
The President
The SecDef
An officer with General Court Martial Jurisdiction
81
"_____inefficiency" is inefficiency for which there is no reasonable or just excuse
Culpable
82
A lawful order is not required to be what
General as to time and place
83
Annual military pay raises are set by
Congress and the President
84
The rate of your Bas pay depends on your what
Grade and length of military service
85
Your pay date is not negatively adjusted if you
Take Advance leave
86
What is your LES form number
DFAS Form 702
87
Most junior grade enlisted members assigned to single type government quarters at their permanent duty station do not what
Automatically receive reimbursement for missed meals
88
Members without dependents residing in single type government quarters qualify for BAH Differential T/F
False
89
What are members without dependents residing in government single type quarters usually entitled
Partial Basic Allowance for Housing
90
What type of Basic Allowance for Housing may members living in single type government quarters who pay court ordered child support qualify for
Basic Allowance for Housing Differential
91
The monthly OHA is the ret, not including a utility/recurring maintenance allowance T/F
False
92
The Clothing Replacement allowance Basic is preliminary replacement allowance paid to military members between the ___ and ____ month of active duty
6th and 36th
93
The clothing replacement allowance Standard automatically replaces CRA Basic after ___ months of active duty
36 months
94
Which allowance is paid to member if traveling of dependents is not authorized at government expense and the depends do not live in the vicinity of a members permanent duty station
Family Separation Allowance (FSA)-Restricted (FSA-R)
95
Family separation allowance serving on ships (FSA-S) applies to members serving on ships away from the homeport continuously for more then ___ days
30 days
96
Special and incentive pays include what
Hazardous duty, imminent danger and special duty assignment pay
Enlisted Flying duty and hardship duty pay location
Enlistment and Reenlistment bonuses
97
Allowances considered nontaxable on 9 Sep ___ remain nontaxable
1986
98
Service member Group Life Insurance is a Involuntary payroll deduction T/F
False
99
How much is the Max monthly deduction from a regular enlisted members pay to support the US soldiers and Amns home and the navel a home
$1
100
What is the maximum number of discretionary payroll allotments
Six
101
Insurance premiums is an example of a discretionary allotment T/F
True
102
To allow for sufficient processing time, allotments should be request about ___ days before the desired start month
30 days
103
SGLI automatically gives eligible members life insurance coverage when on active duty or active duty for training for an ordered period of more than ___ days
30
104
What is the usual cutoff date to determine pay received on the next payday
Around the 6th for mid month and the 20th of end of month
105
Non cash partial payments made via EFT are deposited in o the members financial intuition usually within ___ to ___ business days
Two to three
106
To receive PCS advance pay ___ and below must have their immediate commanders approval
A1C
107
Which PCS allowance is payable to members without dependent if they are not assigned permanent government quarters at their new PDS
Dislocation allowance (DLA)
108
Which allowance is paid to a member arriving or departing a PCS at a location outside the conus to help defray the added living expense while occupying temporary lodging for PCS
TLA
109
What is the PCS weight allowance when shipping unaccompanied baggage via expedited commercial air
1,000 lbs
110
Personal phone calls and laundry or dry cleaning are reimbursable TDY expenses T/F
False
111
What form is used for a TDY travel voucher
DD Form 1351-2
112
When can you file a interment travel voucher for TDYs
TDYS for 45 days or more
113
Who manages the DOD travel card program within their hierarchy
Agency Program Coordinators (APC)
114
When using the GTC, do0 not obtain ATM cash advances more than ___ workdays before scheduled travel
3 Workdays
115
A late fee per billing cycle may be assessed for individual billed GTC charges that are ___ days past the closing date of the account statement on which they first appeared
75 days
116
When will delinquent GTC debts be turned over to a collection agency
210 days delinquent
117
A members consent is not required for the AF to collect debts owed to the federal government or government instrumentalist. Generally if the debt exceeds ___ however, the individual must be given due process.
$100
118
How can you request relieve from valid debts to the federal government
Apply for a waiver or remission
119
In 2014, the TSP annual limit became ___ for deferred and ROTH contributions
$17,500
120
As of 2014, the TSP annual limits is up to ____ for total combined deferred/exempt traditional ROTH contributions
$52,000
121
If already contributing from basic pay, members may choose to contribute up to ____ percent of special and incentive pays and bonuses to their Thrift Savings Plan accounts
100 Percent
122
What does the Military health system do
Develop and promote health awareness issues to educate customers
Provide Health services
Improves the means and methods for maintaining the health of the beneficiary population
123
The _____ mission, vision and overall strategy focus DoD resources on providing a highly ready system of health to support the nations military mission and all uniformed service personnel, retires and their families
Military Health Systems
124
The ___ is a joint Combat support agency that supports the military medical services and manages the execution of health policy
Defense health Agency
125
The AF medical series vision is to ensure its patients are the healthiest and highest performing segment of the US by ____
2025
126
Each Tricare prime enrollee is assigned a primary care manger who does what
Provides routine, non emergency and urgent health care
Coordinates with the regional Tricare contractor to find specialists in the network
Submits referrals for specialty care and files claims on the enrollees behalf
127
Tricare overseas program ___ offers prime coverage to active duty service members permanently assigned to designated remote locations, and their eligible command sponsored family members
Prime Remote
128
Which statement about TRICARE standard and extra is inaccurate
It is a fee for service plan available to all active duty beneficiaries
129
The Tricare reserve select plan is a premium based health plan available for purchase worldwide. Which program does it not offer
Tricare Young Adult
130
Winch is not true about Tricare Young Adult
Tricare young adult includes medical and dental coverage, but excludes pharmacy benefits
131
The AF Anti terrorism program dos not seek to deter or blunt terrorist attacks by
Training civilian first responders
132
Give ___ training and excursive the same emphasis as combat task training
Antiterrorism
133
What do random anti Terrorism Measures hinder by introducing uncertainty to an installati9ons overall force protection program
Accurate Terrorist Surveillance attempts
134
Prior to OS commercial travel, received an AOR specific threat briefing within three months of travel from who
Antiterrorism Officer
Security Officer
Appropriate counterintelligence or security organization
135
____ is the act of obtaining, delivering, transmitting, communication or receiving information about the national defines with intent or reason to believe the information may be used against the US or to the advantage of any foreign nation
Espionage
136
Regarding Human Intelligence, define debriefing
Questioning cooperating human sources consistent with applicable law
137
You must report HUMINT or CI contact to the AF OSI within ___ days
30 days
138
By formal agreement, members of the armed services must report information pertaining to the protection of the President of the united State tot eh __-
Secret Service
139
The US secret service protects who
Former Presidents and their spouses
Vising foreign heads of state
The president elect and vice president elect
140
All former US presidents who served before ___ along with their spouses received Secret service protection for their lifetimes
1 Jan 1997
141
Report US Citizens characterized by emotional instability, violent anti US sentiment or a propensity toward violence who have only indicated a desire to renounce the US government to the AF OSI T/F
False
142
From lowest to highest, what are the three commitment levels in contemporary motivation
Membership, performance, involvement
143
Identifying and evaluating organizational norms will result in a ___ score
Morale
144
Which behaviors, sentiments and interactions often have a greater influence on organization life than required behavior
Emergent
145
Emergent organizational behavior is determined largely by formation of ___ behavioral norms
Working Group
146
Negative leadership norms cause supervisor to assume more active roles, like policing and monitoring T/F
False
147
Norms should be measured to develop a normative ____ a statement of organizational strengths and weaknesses on a behavioral level
Outline
148
Transactional Analysis is a theory of ____
Personality
149
Which of the following is a defining principle of transactional analysis
Time Structuring
Strokes
Life positions
150
Ego states tend to be more permanent than life positions T/F
False
151
The adult ego state is a way of feeling, acting and believing that is rather ___
Objective
152
When does the adult ego state develop
later then that of the parent or child
153
A healthy individual maintains a balance among the three ego states. What is domination by one of the ego states known as
Contamination
154
What is Life Position
Results from our experiences expressing needs and the responses we receive
155
I don't have value; you don't have value. Translate this into a life position
I'm ok, your ok
156
In transaction analysis a transition contains a ___ and a response
Stimulus
157
In a __- transaction the response is not appropriate or expected
Crossed
158
As long as transactions remain ___ communication continues
Complementary
159
What type of transactions are barriers to effective communication and negatively impact motivation
Crossed
160
Which is not a type of time structuring
Education
161
As a method of time structuring, ____ inhibits full productivity and prevent people and organization from achieving their objectives
Games
162
Which are the life position of the supervisors and subordinate in the theory X management style
Supervisor=OK; Subordinate = not OK
163
The participative management style is also known a the
Theory Y
164
In the theory Y management style, both supervisor and subordinate operate in the ____ ego state
Adult
165
In the ____ management style, the supervisor may be conformable in the parent ego stat, but the subordinate may not enjoy the child state
Theory X
166
Effective supervises focus on ___- subordinates behavior as a means for improving the organizational climate and increasing productivity
Modifying
167
It is a systematic, two way discussion between supervisor and subordinate to performance counsel T/F
True
168
The key to supervisory success is the ability and willingness to ___ effectively
Communicate
169
Supportive feedback is used to alter a behavior that is considered effective and appropriate T/F
False
170
"I'm pleased to see your work is improving" is an example of a general feedback statement T/F
True
171
If a subordinate is to learn from and respond to feedback he or she must see it in terms of ___ effects
Observable
172
To be acceptable to the subordinate, feedback must be what
Nonthreatening
173
After corrective feedback is understood and acknowledged, the supervisor can what
Is free to change the subject so the subordinates negative feelings last no longer than necessary
174
Alternating the types of feedback will seem more genuine T/F
True
175
How many major principals govern the use of feedback
Two
176
What is the first principle governing the use of feedback
I cant tell you how you are and you cant tell me what I see
177
It is never necessary to apologize for giving corrective feedback T/F
False
178
Feedback requires ___ from both the supervisor and the subordinate
Action
179
Feedback supports growth, means that subordinate are able to ___ themselves and grow if they pay attention to feedback from others
Stretch
180
Once the supervisor selects a feedback strategy, he or she should keep three rules in mind. What is the first rule
Be clear about what you want in items of specific, identifiable outcomes for yourself, the subordinate and the organization
181
Develop a plan to deal with the issues is a step of the supportive feedback strategy T/F
False
182
What is the final step in the supportive feedback strategy
Thank the subordinate for the good performance
183
Using the corrective feedback strategy, which step does the supervisor take once he or she has described the event in a behavior terms and explained the effect
Ask what happened
