E-2 Multiple Choice (Chapters 10 - 18) Flashcards
(208 cards)
1
Q
Which statement about leadership is inaccurate
A
Successful leaders evaluate themselves to emphasize strengths and minimize weaknesses
2
Q
Which statement is not good leaderships advice
A
If people demonstrate laziness, disinterest or inability to get the job done, encourage them to try again
3
Q
Leadership and management are not the same thing. The three elements that help you understand the roles of each do not include
A
Counseling preferences
4
Q
Which statement about the roles of leadership and management is false
A
Leaders organize people, managers align them
5
Q
____ is a characteristic of managers, not leaders, according to Professor Robert White, Indiana University
A
Ensuring that org objectives are achieved even if they disagree with them
6
Q
Which statement about Org situations is false
A
A peacetime force cannot survive with good management at all levels and good leadership concentrated at the top
7
Q
Which of the four categories of leadership qualities includes trust, loyalty and integrity
A
Values
8
Q
Reliability, even in small things such as punctuality and prompt attention to correspondence, translates into which leadership values
A
Trust
9
Q
Leaders demonstrate ____ through humility, commitment and even occasionally getting their hands dirty alongside their subordinates
A
Credibility
10
Q
____ is helping people believe they can accomplish their goals in anticipation of a better future as a result of their own efforts
A
Vision
11
Q
Which is an inaccurate statement about vision
A
A common leadership error is to become preoccupied with the future at he expense of the present
12
Q
Consensus represents what the group as a whole wants. Which statement about its potential pitfalls is true
A
Leaders do not seek consensus, they build it
13
Q
Tough minded ____ is the best quality a leader can demonstrate when coping with change
A
Optimism
14
Q
Who said “The power of excellence is overwhelming. It is always in demand and nobody cares about its color”
A
General Daniel Chappie James
15
Q
_____ leadership development is one of the most important responsibilities of every AF leader
A
Airman
16
Q
Leaders do not coach Airmen by
A
Focusing on their strengths
17
Q
To be effective counselors, leaders must demonstrate respect for AMN, self awareness, cultural awareness, empathy and ___
A
Credibility
18
Q
The two major categories of developmental counseling are event oriented counseling and
A
Performance and professional growth counseling
19
Q
Which counseling approach emphasizes the Amns planning and decision making responsibilities
A
Combined
20
Q
Which counseling approach encourages maturity, open communication and develops personal responsibility but requires the greatest counselor skills
A
Non directive
21
Q
Be ____ when conducting a counseling session and take advantage of naturally occurring events to provide Airmen with feedback
A
Flexible
22
Q
A leaders skills in ____ are most important when leveraging diversity
A
Personal relations
23
Q
At which level is strategic leadership mainly direct and face to face
A
Tactical
24
Q
Which component is the foundation of strategic leadership
A
Core values
25
Which is not one of the three types of strategic leadership competencies
Technological
26
The people/Team strategic leadership competency
Tailors resources to organizations and programs
27
Strategic leaders shape climate and culture through coaching, mentoring, education, personal example and
Vision
Communication
Policy
28
Under the MGIB reduces pay program, individuals receive 100 less pay per month for the first 12 months and may elect and additional ____ contribution to add up to 5400 to their total benefit package
600 bucks
29
In service use of the MGIB is permitted after ___ years of continuous active duty
Two years
30
Which of the following statements about the Post 9 11 GI bill is false
The decision to move to this program is revocable
31
By doing well on the DANTES and CLEP, individual may earn up tot ____ semester hours of free college credit
60 Semester hours
32
Where is the resident campus for the AFI masters degree programs located
Wright Patterson AFB, OH
33
To be nominated for the AFIT program, you must have completed 7 skill level upgrade along with what other requirements
Have a CCAF degree and a BA degree from a regionally accredited institution
Must be serving in an AFSC approved for program participation
Bea able to obtain three years retainability from the projected AFI graduation date
34
Is you are approved for the AECP how long can you remain on active duty to study at a civilian educational institution
36 months
35
SOAR program members receive a 2 to 4 year tuition and fees scholarship up to _____ per year, an annual textbook allowance and a monthly nontaxable stipend
15,000
36
Upon grad and completion of the program an AFROTC cadet students are commissioned as second LTs and returned to active duty for at least four years, typically with ___ days of commissioning
60 days
37
Resource Management system elements include the execution plan and management and accounting systems. Which is another RMS element
Participatory and committee management
Resource Management teams
Resource management training
38
In resource management system who reviews, validated and balances the execution plan to ensure successful financial management
Commanders
39
In resource management system, who supports the Org mission and the AF by providing sound financial management and advice to the commander and staff
Comptrollers
40
In resource management system who plans, directs and coordinates subordinate organizations activities
Responsibility center managers
41
In resource Management system who regulates the consumption of work hours, supplies, services and equipment and shifts resources to or from various production tasks to ensure the proper mix
Cost center managers
42
Who determines program priorities and ensures effective allocation of resources in resource management systems
Financial Management Board
43
In resource management system, who manages commodities and resources integral to the operating activities of the base or unit and provides technical guidance to base activities on how to use their primary responsibility resources
Financial working group
44
Supply ____ is the effort to conserve, protect, operate and maintain available government systems supplies equipment and real property in the best condition, in constant readiness and in the absolute minimum quantity required
Discipline
45
Who investigates criminal allegations of fraud, was and abuse
AF OSI
46
The AF and DoD establish and maintain an Environmental Management System per EO _____, Strengthening Federal Environmental, Energy and transportation Management
EO 13423
47
What is step 1 of the Environmental Management Systems Continual improvement cycle
Plan
48
Which is not an element of the plan step in the Environmental Management system (EMS) continual improvement cycle
Roles and responsibilities
49
What must be done when step 4 of the EMS continual improvement cycle is complete
You must begin again at step 1
50
What programs are related to the EMS
Noise, Natural resources and cultural resources
Storm water, safety and Energy
Green procured, pest management and recycling
51
What is not a key action the AF environmental management system required installation/MAJCOM organization to perform
Accurately maintain property records to reflect current inventory and condition of property
52
What AFI governs the AF Inspector general s Unite Effectiveness, Inspection Programs
AFI 32-6001
53
The AF uses the AF corporate structure to implement plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE). This structure increases management effectiveness by applying judgment and ____ to programs, resource limitations and other program adjustments
Experience
54
The four interrelated and overlapping phases of the plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) process include planning, programming, budging and ____
Execution
55
Within the concept of plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE), ____ provides a program objective the AF can use to measure program execution success
Planning
56
Which statement about the plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) process is inaccurate
Budgeting matches available fiscal, manpower and material resources against validated requirements
57
Initial program costs are established during which plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) phase
Programming
58
Are policies and guidance addressed, and initial program costs established during in preparing the Budget Estimate Submission of the plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) process T/F
False
59
Are thoughtful and accurate SNCO estimates on the national level extremely important in reflecting overall AF needs T/F
False
60
SNCOS must ensure resources that appear to be cost free are used in the most cost effective manner. Assets may appear to be cost free if you do not
Control the determination of these resources
Control the allocation of these resources
Have the authority to change the mix of the total resources allocated
61
Who selects the resource management team members for each responsibility center visit
Base comptroller
62
Which statement about the AFEMS is false
It is not used to report capitalized assets depreciation
63
ROS are used to research and investigate the loss, damage, destruction or theft of government property. Which publication identifies how to process an ROS
AFMAN 23-220
64
Who is usually responsible for initiating a ROS
The org possessing the lost or damaged property
65
Must an ROS investigating official obtain oral statements from those interviewed T/F
False
66
MAJCOM and installation commanders are not responsible for___
Planning and programming all operations and Mx (O&M) funded unspecified major military construction
67
In facility management ____ refers to the identification of facility work to satisfy recurring and future mission requirements
Planning
68
The bas civil engineer uses annual space utilization surveys and biennial commanders facility assessments to identify facility requirements. The other three methods include
Asset management Plans
Environmental compliance status assessments
User or occupant identified requirements
69
When programming facility requirements, work authorization, approval levels and fund sources vary with
Work classification
70
The three classifications of real property mx work do not include
Demolition
71
O & M appropriation funded unspecified minor military construction projects may not normally exceed ____
$750,000
72
Active component facility projects intended solely to correct a deficiency that is life, health or safety threatening may not exceed ____
$1.5M
73
Congressional notification is required when facility projects solely to correct a life, health or safety threatening deficiency cost more then $750,000. Who's prior approval is required
Assistant Secretary of the AF, Installations (SAF/IEI)
74
To improve energy efficiency, the reduction goal for facility energy intensity is ___% annually through he end of FY 15, relative to AF energy use in FY03
3%
75
the Greenhouse gases reduction goal aims to reduce emissions in absolute terms by FY ___, relative to a 2008 baseline
FY20
76
What percentage of existing facility inventory must incorporate sustainable practices by the end of FY15
15%
77
All new construction facilities with major renovations must become net zero energy facility's by
2030
78
Petroleum consumption is to be reduced by 2% annually, and alternative fuels is to be increase by ___% annually through the end of FY20
10%
79
The Energy Policy act of 2005 established that ____% of electrical consumption be generated by renewable resources from FY10 through FY12, and ____% thereafter
5%, 7.5%
80
Electronic products procured must be at least ____% compliant with electronic product environmental assessment tool standard
95%
81
The reduction goal for potable water consumption intensity, beginning in FY08 is ____% annually through the end of FY 20
20%
82
Compliance with energy management policy is assessed by measuring ___ energy and facility energy
Mobility energy
83
What two communication tools build credibility and trust with your audience
Support and logic
84
How many steps for effective communication are there
Seven
85
In which communication approach is audience feedback and interaction most appropriate
Inform
86
Which communication approach, frequently used in the military, emphasizes your delivery and a thorough knowledge of your topic and your audience
Inspire
87
How should you handle inferences as evidence to support your ideas
As testimony
88
When you organize and outline your comm, you should select a ___ to help you and your audience move systematically and locally through your ideas
Pattern
89
All of these facts influence your choice of pattern to organize and outline your communication except
The length of your communication
90
How many common communication organizational patterns does Chapter 14 list
Eight
91
You want to discuss events sequentially from past to present. Which common communication organizational pattern should you use
Chronological
92
Which common communication organizational pattern starts at some point in space and proceeds in sequence to other point
Spatial or geographical
93
What should an effective paragraph contain as its focal point
A topic sentence
94
Readers should see your paragraphs as a collection of sentences rather than integrated units T/F
False
95
Even experience writers have a hard time getting started. To overcome writers block one should
Use visuals like pictures or diagrams to show meaning
96
On the second editing pass, you should
Check paragraphs, structure an clarity
97
How many sentences should a paragraph contain in total
Three to seven
98
To give effective feedback you should
Concentrate on improving content not writing style
99
The four writing feedback philosophies include
Directing feedback at behavior the author can control
100
How must manpower be programed
IAW validated manpower requirements
Within fiscal limits
Within acceptable risk
101
Manpower and Org section personnel help AF commanders and functional managers by objectively quantifying manpower requirements to distribute manpower resources through what
Peacetime manpower standards development
Wartime manpower requirements
Commercial services management actions
102
The AF manpower requirements ___ process systematically identifies the minimum essential manpower required to most effectively and economically accomplish approved missions and functions within orgs and resource constraints
Determination
103
Manpower requirements are sized for the most ____ phase of the planning scenario, including all rotational forces needed for prolonged conflicts
Demanding
104
The AF must be ___ to best use available resources
Organized
105
In the requirements determination process, efficiency does not necessarily mean ___ resources, but rather improving the return on the resourc3es used
Decreasing
106
In the requirements determination process, improving performance requires both planning and execution. To be effective, organizational change effort must include redesign and or coordination on how many interrelated fronts
Five
107
In performance improvement, which front supports and maximizes changes in workflow, information technology and human resources by designing physical facilities, equipment and tools
Physical infrastructure
108
Which performance improvement front includes improving quality and timeliness, streamlining process flow, empowering knowledgeable workers, enabling new geographic arrangements of work tasks and facilitating communication with customers an suppliers
Technology
109
The DOD sets promotion quotes for the Top ____ grades, based on FY end strength and affected by funding limits, regulatory limits and the number of projected vacancies in specific grades
Five
110
If you are an AB, how much TIG must you have for promotion to Amn
Six months
111
What is the GIG requirements for Amn to be eligible for promotion to A1C
10 Months
112
What is the minimum TIS requirement for promotion to TSgt
Five years
113
What is the TIS requirement for promotion to SMSgt
11 years
114
What is the minimum TIS requirement for promotion to MSgt
Eight years
115
What is the minimum TIS requirements for promotion to CMSGt
14 years
116
What is the minimum time in Grade requirement for promotion to SSgt
6 Months
117
What is the minimum TIG requirement for promotion to TSgt
23 Months
118
What is the Minimum TIG requirement for promotion to MSgt
24 Months
119
What is the minimum TIG requirement for promotion to SMSgt
20 Months
120
What is the minimum TIG requirement for promotion to CMSgt
21 Months
121
What is the PECD for promotion to TSgt
31 January
122
The AF promotes A1Cs to SrA after either r36 months TIS and 20 months TIG or ____ months TIG, whichever occurs first
28 months
123
The waps consist of how many weighted factors
Six
124
How many total points are possible under th WAPS for promotion to SSgt-MSgt Phase I
541 points
125
How many WAPS points are assigned for the AF, Navy or Distinguished service Cross
11 Points
126
When calculating total EPR points under the APS how many points is a Promote EPR worth
200
127
The maximum number options possible under Phase II of the WAPS is 541 points for promotion to MSgt T/F
False
128
The two phase process for promotion consideration to SMSgt and CMSgt is worth up to ___ total points
631 points
129
Your WAPS score notice can be disclosed without your written consent T/F
False
130
SNCOs ensure that WAPS tests are valid and fair to all examines while developing them at the Amn Advancement Division T/F
False
131
Which UCMJ article is violated if you participate in group study
Article 92
132
A conviction for test compromise will get you what
Dishonorable discharge
Forfeiture of all pay and allowances
Confinement for two years
133
Information concerning enlisted promotion test compromise is contained in AFI
AFI 36-2605
134
How many days before the board is the Evaluation brief completed
Within 10 days
135
What is the maximum number of EPRS that is included in your selection folder that have closed out in 10 years
15 EPRs
136
The promotion evaluation board president is always a
General Officer
137
What factor is considered when the promotion evaluation board reviews your rating and endorsing officials comments about your expertise
Professional Competence
138
The total promoting evaluation board score ranges from
270 - 450 points
139
If the board finds someone Not fully Qualified for promotion who renders that person ineligible for the promotion cycle
The AFPC
140
When the post board processing is complete, the selection results are approved and data is transmitted to the
Military Personnel Section
141
For SNCOs the maximum total TIS points are up to how many years
25 years
142
A minimum USAFSE score of ___ is required to maintain promotion eligibility
45
143
A correction for supplanted SNCO promotion consideration is not authored to
Change the year of completion for academic education
144
Which correction for supplemental promotion consideration would be authorized
To show an approved extension of High Year of Tenure date
145
When rescoring is authorized for supplemental promotion board consideration, all of the following are factors except
Shortage career field info
146
What is required in order to disclose an AMNs WAPS score
The Amns Written consent
147
Regarding an Amns WAPS score commanders must
Notify Amn of promotion selection or non section results
Restrict their use of the scores to notification and advisory counseling on behalf of the Airman
Not allow further dissemination of scores
148
Unit commanders and supervisors must request the UMD from the installation Manpower and Organization Section at least quarterly T/F
False
149
Overall command grade factors ensure equitable allocation of the grades within each AFSC in each command T/F
False
150
The manpower and Organization Section core competence encompass organization structure, requirement determination, program allocation and control and _____
Process improvement
151
The manpower and Org Section does not what
Approve/Disapprove ACR requests
152
What AFI governs the Leave program
AFI 36-3003
153
DoDI ____ leave and liberty policy and procedures ensure efforts do not prevent an defective leave program
DoDI 1327.6
154
You cannot receive accrued leave payment for more than ____ days of accrued leave during your military career
60 days
155
Which is not true regarding earning leave
Members do not learn leave wen AWAOL, in an authorized leave status or in confinement as a result of a court marital sentence
156
Special Leave Accrual may be kept for ___ FYS if earned in combat zones or ____ FYs if earned in support of operations
Four FYs, Two FYs
157
Eligible members who lose leave on 1 Oct may have only the portion of leave restored that could not possibly be used before the end of the FY not to exceed 120 days, who has the final approval authority
The Wing or vice Wing commander
158
Until 30 Sep 2015, members who serve on active duty while entitled to hostile fire/imminent danger pay for ___ consecutive days are authorized to retain SLA until the end of the fourth FY following the YF in which the duty assignment is terminated
120 Consecutive Days
159
Which statement about beginning and ending leave is false
AF Form 988, is always used in Lieu of Leave Web
160
The AFPC approves emergency leave if requested leave results in a member having a cumulative negative leave balance of more than ___ days
30 days
161
Unfunded EML is charged as ordinary leave, Funded EML is not T/F
False
162
If you normally work Mon through Fri a regular pass cannot normally exceed ___ days
Three
163
You are authorized a four day pass period consisting of a public holiday, compensatory time off and a weekend. This time of is considered what
A regular pass
164
Passes used in conjunction with leave without a duty day between the pass and leave period may be taken both before and after leave T/F
False
165
AF Form 988, is used to request leave an PTDY if not processed digitally. Who received Part I of the form
Servicing finance office
166
Who received part III of the AF Form 988
Supervisor
167
If not processed digitally, how is AF Form 988 documented when a member returns from leave
Member signs Part III, supervisor certifies dates of leave
168
What else must supervisors report in addition to mishaps
Related absences
169
Human factors are about people in what kinds of environments
Living and working
170
When considering the influence of Human Factors on mishaps, a systematic root cause analysis does not
Define HAFAC deficiencies
171
when analyzing the root cause of a mishap, which level of influence relates to failure to inadequately plan operations and a failure to correct known problems
Supervision
172
When analyzing the root cause of a mishap, which level of influence involves conditions of the operators, environmental factors or personnel factors that result in human error or an unsafe situation
Preconditions
173
To reinforce accountability, supervisor ensure ____ understand the implications of poor decisions and the ____
Personnel; Importance of compliance
174
To reinforce accountability, commanders ensure personnel are aware of ___, enforce compliance and may direct an additional investigation for ___
AFIs, Disciplinary purposes
175
Failed or absent defense in unsafe supervision, preconditions for unsafe acts and unsafe acts can result in mishaps. What other factor can contribute
Failed or absent defenses in organizational factors
176
Who is in the best potion to identify hazards, assess risks and correct unsafe work practices or safety deficiency
Supervisors
177
If unsafe and unhealthful working condition exist, the supervisor must eliminate or control them by all of the following
Engineering
Administrative controls
Using PPE
178
What must be accessible along with circuit breakers and disconnect switches to enforce safety standards
Fuses
179
How quickly must safety respond to an AF Form 457
Within 10 Duty days
180
Applying the process of Risk management cyclically and continuously helps identify and asses
Hazards
181
The two primary levels of RM that dictate the effort and scope of evaluating risk are
Deliberate RM and real time RM
182
What are the key aspects of Step 1 of the RM process, Identify the Hazards
Mission/Task analysis, List hazards and list causes
183
Which Step of RM process involves applying quantitative or qualitative measures to determine the probability and severity of negative effects that may result from exposure to risk hazards
Step 2 - Assess the Hazards
184
When identifying control options during Step ____ of the RM process, each hazard should have one or more controls that can effectively eliminate, avoid or reduce the risk to an acceptable level
Step 3
185
When establish accountability during Step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, who must know who is responsible and accountable at each stage of an acitvity
Individuals involved in a specific risk management process
186
During leadership changes, step 5 of the RM process, Supervise and evaluate, stipulates that ___ leaders share knowledge, experiences and lessons with incoming leaders to provide a positive transition of risk acceptance and reduce volatility
Outgoing
187
When it is essential to streamline the 5 step RM process for situations involving quick decisions, AMN can use the ABCD Mnemonic. What does it stand for
Assess the Situation
Balance Controls
Communicate
Decide and Debrief
188
Which is not required for a complete assessment in the assess the situation step of the Real Time Risk Management Process
Mitigating or eliminating risk
189
Which of the following increases the effectiveness of the Balance Controls step of the Real time RM process
Better preparation
190
In the Communicate step of the real time RM process, personnel experience stress and loss of situational awareness, leading to diminished communication skills and tunnel vision. When individuals identify that they are losing situational awareness, it can help them
Communicate with teammates an leadership in real-time situations
Make corrections
Step back to reevaluate options
191
What are the two types of sexual assault victim advocates
Sexual Assault prevention and response VAs
| Volunteer VAs
192
Which of the following individuals are not eligible for both unrestricted and restricted sexual assault reporting
DoD civilians employees, stationed or performing duties outside the continental US and eligible for treatment at military facilities there
193
AFI ____ requires the report of sexual assault incidents to the AF OSI or other appropriate authorities
AFI 44-102
194
The ____ defines suicide as death caused by self directed injurious behavior with an y intent to die as a result of the behavior
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
195
Roughly ____ Americans commit suicide in any given year, nearly tice the number killed by homicide
30,000
196
From 2009 - 2013, AF personnel suicides equaled a rate of 14.1 per year for every ___ Amn
100,000
197
From CY 2009-2013 less than ___ percent of Amn who died by suicide were receiving treatment for mental heath concerns
40 percent
198
Which statement about self injurious behavior and suicide attempts is inaccurate
The severity of the injury is never an accurate indicator of the persons intent to die
199
How many AF suicide prevention program initiatives or elements were implemented by the suicide prevention integrated protected team
11
200
The ___ of stress and the significant negative effect it can have on people and orgs makes it a major concern for enlisted leaders at all levels
Frequency
201
Who is widely regards as the father of stress research
Hans Selye
202
Which statement about the concept of stress is inaccurate
Stress is defined as the specific response of the body to any demand made upon it
203
Organizational stress management methods do not include
Planning
204
Reconstitutions during the redeployments support process provides time for Amn to tend to personal needs T/F
False
205
The redeployment support process timeline does not include commanders responses and actions and community action information board and integrated deployment system members activities at critical ___ junctures
Disability Leave
206
The personnel readiness function begins reintegration, establishes procedures to account for member returning from deployment and develops the
Reception station
207
When do returning units and individuals in process within the personal readiness function
Within two duty days of redeployment day
208
What AFI outlines force support squadron and family member program protocols
AFI 34-248
