Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Multiple Choice - E-8-1s > E-2 Multiple Choice (Chapters 10 - 18) > Flashcards

E-2 Multiple Choice (Chapters 10 - 18) Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement about leadership is inaccurate

A

Successful leaders evaluate themselves to emphasize strengths and minimize weaknesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which statement is not good leaderships advice

A

If people demonstrate laziness, disinterest or inability to get the job done, encourage them to try again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Leadership and management are not the same thing. The three elements that help you understand the roles of each do not include

A

Counseling preferences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which statement about the roles of leadership and management is false

A

Leaders organize people, managers align them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____ is a characteristic of managers, not leaders, according to Professor Robert White, Indiana University

A

Ensuring that org objectives are achieved even if they disagree with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which statement about Org situations is false

A

A peacetime force cannot survive with good management at all levels and good leadership concentrated at the top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the four categories of leadership qualities includes trust, loyalty and integrity

A

Values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reliability, even in small things such as punctuality and prompt attention to correspondence, translates into which leadership values

A

Trust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Leaders demonstrate ____ through humility, commitment and even occasionally getting their hands dirty alongside their subordinates

A

Credibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

____ is helping people believe they can accomplish their goals in anticipation of a better future as a result of their own efforts

A

Vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which is an inaccurate statement about vision

A

A common leadership error is to become preoccupied with the future at he expense of the present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Consensus represents what the group as a whole wants. Which statement about its potential pitfalls is true

A

Leaders do not seek consensus, they build it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tough minded ____ is the best quality a leader can demonstrate when coping with change

A

Optimism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who said “The power of excellence is overwhelming. It is always in demand and nobody cares about its color”

A

General Daniel Chappie James

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_____ leadership development is one of the most important responsibilities of every AF leader

A

Airman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Leaders do not coach Airmen by

A

Focusing on their strengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

To be effective counselors, leaders must demonstrate respect for AMN, self awareness, cultural awareness, empathy and ___

A

Credibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The two major categories of developmental counseling are event oriented counseling and

A

Performance and professional growth counseling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which counseling approach emphasizes the Amns planning and decision making responsibilities

A

Combined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which counseling approach encourages maturity, open communication and develops personal responsibility but requires the greatest counselor skills

A

Non directive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Be ____ when conducting a counseling session and take advantage of naturally occurring events to provide Airmen with feedback

A

Flexible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A leaders skills in ____ are most important when leveraging diversity

A

Personal relations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

At which level is strategic leadership mainly direct and face to face

A

Tactical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which component is the foundation of strategic leadership

A

Core values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is not one of the three types of strategic leadership competencies

A

Technological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The people/Team strategic leadership competency

A

Tailors resources to organizations and programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Strategic leaders shape climate and culture through coaching, mentoring, education, personal example and

A

Vision
Communication
Policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Under the MGIB reduces pay program, individuals receive 100 less pay per month for the first 12 months and may elect and additional ____ contribution to add up to 5400 to their total benefit package

A

600 bucks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In service use of the MGIB is permitted after ___ years of continuous active duty

A

Two years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following statements about the Post 9 11 GI bill is false

A

The decision to move to this program is revocable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

By doing well on the DANTES and CLEP, individual may earn up tot ____ semester hours of free college credit

A

60 Semester hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where is the resident campus for the AFI masters degree programs located

A

Wright Patterson AFB, OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

To be nominated for the AFIT program, you must have completed 7 skill level upgrade along with what other requirements

A

Have a CCAF degree and a BA degree from a regionally accredited institution
Must be serving in an AFSC approved for program participation
Bea able to obtain three years retainability from the projected AFI graduation date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is you are approved for the AECP how long can you remain on active duty to study at a civilian educational institution

A

36 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

SOAR program members receive a 2 to 4 year tuition and fees scholarship up to _____ per year, an annual textbook allowance and a monthly nontaxable stipend

A

15,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Upon grad and completion of the program an AFROTC cadet students are commissioned as second LTs and returned to active duty for at least four years, typically with ___ days of commissioning

A

60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Resource Management system elements include the execution plan and management and accounting systems. Which is another RMS element

A

Participatory and committee management
Resource Management teams
Resource management training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In resource management system who reviews, validated and balances the execution plan to ensure successful financial management

A

Commanders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In resource management system, who supports the Org mission and the AF by providing sound financial management and advice to the commander and staff

A

Comptrollers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In resource management system who plans, directs and coordinates subordinate organizations activities

A

Responsibility center managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In resource Management system who regulates the consumption of work hours, supplies, services and equipment and shifts resources to or from various production tasks to ensure the proper mix

A

Cost center managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who determines program priorities and ensures effective allocation of resources in resource management systems

A

Financial Management Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In resource management system, who manages commodities and resources integral to the operating activities of the base or unit and provides technical guidance to base activities on how to use their primary responsibility resources

A

Financial working group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Supply ____ is the effort to conserve, protect, operate and maintain available government systems supplies equipment and real property in the best condition, in constant readiness and in the absolute minimum quantity required

A

Discipline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Who investigates criminal allegations of fraud, was and abuse

A

AF OSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The AF and DoD establish and maintain an Environmental Management System per EO _____, Strengthening Federal Environmental, Energy and transportation Management

A

EO 13423

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is step 1 of the Environmental Management Systems Continual improvement cycle

A

Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which is not an element of the plan step in the Environmental Management system (EMS) continual improvement cycle

A

Roles and responsibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What must be done when step 4 of the EMS continual improvement cycle is complete

A

You must begin again at step 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What programs are related to the EMS

A

Noise, Natural resources and cultural resources
Storm water, safety and Energy
Green procured, pest management and recycling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is not a key action the AF environmental management system required installation/MAJCOM organization to perform

A

Accurately maintain property records to reflect current inventory and condition of property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What AFI governs the AF Inspector general s Unite Effectiveness, Inspection Programs

A

AFI 32-6001

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The AF uses the AF corporate structure to implement plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE). This structure increases management effectiveness by applying judgment and ____ to programs, resource limitations and other program adjustments

A

Experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The four interrelated and overlapping phases of the plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) process include planning, programming, budging and ____

A

Execution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Within the concept of plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE), ____ provides a program objective the AF can use to measure program execution success

A

Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which statement about the plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) process is inaccurate

A

Budgeting matches available fiscal, manpower and material resources against validated requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Initial program costs are established during which plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) phase

A

Programming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Are policies and guidance addressed, and initial program costs established during in preparing the Budget Estimate Submission of the plan, programming, budgeting and execution (PPBE) process T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Are thoughtful and accurate SNCO estimates on the national level extremely important in reflecting overall AF needs T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

SNCOS must ensure resources that appear to be cost free are used in the most cost effective manner. Assets may appear to be cost free if you do not

A

Control the determination of these resources
Control the allocation of these resources
Have the authority to change the mix of the total resources allocated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Who selects the resource management team members for each responsibility center visit

A

Base comptroller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which statement about the AFEMS is false

A

It is not used to report capitalized assets depreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ROS are used to research and investigate the loss, damage, destruction or theft of government property. Which publication identifies how to process an ROS

A

AFMAN 23-220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Who is usually responsible for initiating a ROS

A

The org possessing the lost or damaged property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Must an ROS investigating official obtain oral statements from those interviewed T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

MAJCOM and installation commanders are not responsible for___

A

Planning and programming all operations and Mx (O&M) funded unspecified major military construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In facility management ____ refers to the identification of facility work to satisfy recurring and future mission requirements

A

Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The bas civil engineer uses annual space utilization surveys and biennial commanders facility assessments to identify facility requirements. The other three methods include

A

Asset management Plans
Environmental compliance status assessments
User or occupant identified requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When programming facility requirements, work authorization, approval levels and fund sources vary with

A

Work classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The three classifications of real property mx work do not include

A

Demolition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

O & M appropriation funded unspecified minor military construction projects may not normally exceed ____

A

$750,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Active component facility projects intended solely to correct a deficiency that is life, health or safety threatening may not exceed ____

A

$1.5M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Congressional notification is required when facility projects solely to correct a life, health or safety threatening deficiency cost more then $750,000. Who’s prior approval is required

A

Assistant Secretary of the AF, Installations (SAF/IEI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

To improve energy efficiency, the reduction goal for facility energy intensity is ___% annually through he end of FY 15, relative to AF energy use in FY03

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

the Greenhouse gases reduction goal aims to reduce emissions in absolute terms by FY ___, relative to a 2008 baseline

A

FY20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What percentage of existing facility inventory must incorporate sustainable practices by the end of FY15

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

All new construction facilities with major renovations must become net zero energy facility’s by

A

2030

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Petroleum consumption is to be reduced by 2% annually, and alternative fuels is to be increase by ___% annually through the end of FY20

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The Energy Policy act of 2005 established that ____% of electrical consumption be generated by renewable resources from FY10 through FY12, and ____% thereafter

A

5%, 7.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Electronic products procured must be at least ____% compliant with electronic product environmental assessment tool standard

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The reduction goal for potable water consumption intensity, beginning in FY08 is ____% annually through the end of FY 20

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Compliance with energy management policy is assessed by measuring ___ energy and facility energy

A

Mobility energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What two communication tools build credibility and trust with your audience

A

Support and logic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How many steps for effective communication are there

A

Seven

85
Q

In which communication approach is audience feedback and interaction most appropriate

A

Inform

86
Q

Which communication approach, frequently used in the military, emphasizes your delivery and a thorough knowledge of your topic and your audience

A

Inspire

87
Q

How should you handle inferences as evidence to support your ideas

A

As testimony

88
Q

When you organize and outline your comm, you should select a ___ to help you and your audience move systematically and locally through your ideas

A

Pattern

89
Q

All of these facts influence your choice of pattern to organize and outline your communication except

A

The length of your communication

90
Q

How many common communication organizational patterns does Chapter 14 list

A

Eight

91
Q

You want to discuss events sequentially from past to present. Which common communication organizational pattern should you use

A

Chronological

92
Q

Which common communication organizational pattern starts at some point in space and proceeds in sequence to other point

A

Spatial or geographical

93
Q

What should an effective paragraph contain as its focal point

A

A topic sentence

94
Q

Readers should see your paragraphs as a collection of sentences rather than integrated units T/F

A

False

95
Q

Even experience writers have a hard time getting started. To overcome writers block one should

A

Use visuals like pictures or diagrams to show meaning

96
Q

On the second editing pass, you should

A

Check paragraphs, structure an clarity

97
Q

How many sentences should a paragraph contain in total

A

Three to seven

98
Q

To give effective feedback you should

A

Concentrate on improving content not writing style

99
Q

The four writing feedback philosophies include

A

Directing feedback at behavior the author can control

100
Q

How must manpower be programed

A

IAW validated manpower requirements
Within fiscal limits
Within acceptable risk

101
Q

Manpower and Org section personnel help AF commanders and functional managers by objectively quantifying manpower requirements to distribute manpower resources through what

A

Peacetime manpower standards development
Wartime manpower requirements
Commercial services management actions

102
Q

The AF manpower requirements ___ process systematically identifies the minimum essential manpower required to most effectively and economically accomplish approved missions and functions within orgs and resource constraints

A

Determination

103
Q

Manpower requirements are sized for the most ____ phase of the planning scenario, including all rotational forces needed for prolonged conflicts

A

Demanding

104
Q

The AF must be ___ to best use available resources

A

Organized

105
Q

In the requirements determination process, efficiency does not necessarily mean ___ resources, but rather improving the return on the resourc3es used

A

Decreasing

106
Q

In the requirements determination process, improving performance requires both planning and execution. To be effective, organizational change effort must include redesign and or coordination on how many interrelated fronts

A

Five

107
Q

In performance improvement, which front supports and maximizes changes in workflow, information technology and human resources by designing physical facilities, equipment and tools

A

Physical infrastructure

108
Q

Which performance improvement front includes improving quality and timeliness, streamlining process flow, empowering knowledgeable workers, enabling new geographic arrangements of work tasks and facilitating communication with customers an suppliers

A

Technology

109
Q

The DOD sets promotion quotes for the Top ____ grades, based on FY end strength and affected by funding limits, regulatory limits and the number of projected vacancies in specific grades

A

Five

110
Q

If you are an AB, how much TIG must you have for promotion to Amn

A

Six months

111
Q

What is the GIG requirements for Amn to be eligible for promotion to A1C

A

10 Months

112
Q

What is the minimum TIS requirement for promotion to TSgt

A

Five years

113
Q

What is the TIS requirement for promotion to SMSgt

A

11 years

114
Q

What is the minimum TIS requirement for promotion to MSgt

A

Eight years

115
Q

What is the minimum TIS requirements for promotion to CMSGt

A

14 years

116
Q

What is the minimum time in Grade requirement for promotion to SSgt

A

6 Months

117
Q

What is the minimum TIG requirement for promotion to TSgt

A

23 Months

118
Q

What is the Minimum TIG requirement for promotion to MSgt

A

24 Months

119
Q

What is the minimum TIG requirement for promotion to SMSgt

A

20 Months

120
Q

What is the minimum TIG requirement for promotion to CMSgt

A

21 Months

121
Q

What is the PECD for promotion to TSgt

A

31 January

122
Q

The AF promotes A1Cs to SrA after either r36 months TIS and 20 months TIG or ____ months TIG, whichever occurs first

A

28 months

123
Q

The waps consist of how many weighted factors

A

Six

124
Q

How many total points are possible under th WAPS for promotion to SSgt-MSgt Phase I

A

541 points

125
Q

How many WAPS points are assigned for the AF, Navy or Distinguished service Cross

A

11 Points

126
Q

When calculating total EPR points under the APS how many points is a Promote EPR worth

A

200

127
Q

The maximum number options possible under Phase II of the WAPS is 541 points for promotion to MSgt T/F

A

False

128
Q

The two phase process for promotion consideration to SMSgt and CMSgt is worth up to ___ total points

A

631 points

129
Q

Your WAPS score notice can be disclosed without your written consent T/F

A

False

130
Q

SNCOs ensure that WAPS tests are valid and fair to all examines while developing them at the Amn Advancement Division T/F

A

False

131
Q

Which UCMJ article is violated if you participate in group study

A

Article 92

132
Q

A conviction for test compromise will get you what

A

Dishonorable discharge
Forfeiture of all pay and allowances
Confinement for two years

133
Q

Information concerning enlisted promotion test compromise is contained in AFI

A

AFI 36-2605

134
Q

How many days before the board is the Evaluation brief completed

A

Within 10 days

135
Q

What is the maximum number of EPRS that is included in your selection folder that have closed out in 10 years

A

15 EPRs

136
Q

The promotion evaluation board president is always a

A

General Officer

137
Q

What factor is considered when the promotion evaluation board reviews your rating and endorsing officials comments about your expertise

A

Professional Competence

138
Q

The total promoting evaluation board score ranges from

A

270 - 450 points

139
Q

If the board finds someone Not fully Qualified for promotion who renders that person ineligible for the promotion cycle

A

The AFPC

140
Q

When the post board processing is complete, the selection results are approved and data is transmitted to the

A

Military Personnel Section

141
Q

For SNCOs the maximum total TIS points are up to how many years

A

25 years

142
Q

A minimum USAFSE score of ___ is required to maintain promotion eligibility

A

45

143
Q

A correction for supplanted SNCO promotion consideration is not authored to

A

Change the year of completion for academic education

144
Q

Which correction for supplemental promotion consideration would be authorized

A

To show an approved extension of High Year of Tenure date

145
Q

When rescoring is authorized for supplemental promotion board consideration, all of the following are factors except

A

Shortage career field info

146
Q

What is required in order to disclose an AMNs WAPS score

A

The Amns Written consent

147
Q

Regarding an Amns WAPS score commanders must

A

Notify Amn of promotion selection or non section results
Restrict their use of the scores to notification and advisory counseling on behalf of the Airman
Not allow further dissemination of scores

148
Q

Unit commanders and supervisors must request the UMD from the installation Manpower and Organization Section at least quarterly T/F

A

False

149
Q

Overall command grade factors ensure equitable allocation of the grades within each AFSC in each command T/F

A

False

150
Q

The manpower and Organization Section core competence encompass organization structure, requirement determination, program allocation and control and _____

A

Process improvement

151
Q

The manpower and Org Section does not what

A

Approve/Disapprove ACR requests

152
Q

What AFI governs the Leave program

A

AFI 36-3003

153
Q

DoDI ____ leave and liberty policy and procedures ensure efforts do not prevent an defective leave program

A

DoDI 1327.6

154
Q

You cannot receive accrued leave payment for more than ____ days of accrued leave during your military career

A

60 days

155
Q

Which is not true regarding earning leave

A

Members do not learn leave wen AWAOL, in an authorized leave status or in confinement as a result of a court marital sentence

156
Q

Special Leave Accrual may be kept for ___ FYS if earned in combat zones or ____ FYs if earned in support of operations

A

Four FYs, Two FYs

157
Q

Eligible members who lose leave on 1 Oct may have only the portion of leave restored that could not possibly be used before the end of the FY not to exceed 120 days, who has the final approval authority

A

The Wing or vice Wing commander

158
Q

Until 30 Sep 2015, members who serve on active duty while entitled to hostile fire/imminent danger pay for ___ consecutive days are authorized to retain SLA until the end of the fourth FY following the YF in which the duty assignment is terminated

A

120 Consecutive Days

159
Q

Which statement about beginning and ending leave is false

A

AF Form 988, is always used in Lieu of Leave Web

160
Q

The AFPC approves emergency leave if requested leave results in a member having a cumulative negative leave balance of more than ___ days

A

30 days

161
Q

Unfunded EML is charged as ordinary leave, Funded EML is not T/F

A

False

162
Q

If you normally work Mon through Fri a regular pass cannot normally exceed ___ days

A

Three

163
Q

You are authorized a four day pass period consisting of a public holiday, compensatory time off and a weekend. This time of is considered what

A

A regular pass

164
Q

Passes used in conjunction with leave without a duty day between the pass and leave period may be taken both before and after leave T/F

A

False

165
Q

AF Form 988, is used to request leave an PTDY if not processed digitally. Who received Part I of the form

A

Servicing finance office

166
Q

Who received part III of the AF Form 988

A

Supervisor

167
Q

If not processed digitally, how is AF Form 988 documented when a member returns from leave

A

Member signs Part III, supervisor certifies dates of leave

168
Q

What else must supervisors report in addition to mishaps

A

Related absences

169
Q

Human factors are about people in what kinds of environments

A

Living and working

170
Q

When considering the influence of Human Factors on mishaps, a systematic root cause analysis does not

A

Define HAFAC deficiencies

171
Q

when analyzing the root cause of a mishap, which level of influence relates to failure to inadequately plan operations and a failure to correct known problems

A

Supervision

172
Q

When analyzing the root cause of a mishap, which level of influence involves conditions of the operators, environmental factors or personnel factors that result in human error or an unsafe situation

A

Preconditions

173
Q

To reinforce accountability, supervisor ensure ____ understand the implications of poor decisions and the ____

A

Personnel; Importance of compliance

174
Q

To reinforce accountability, commanders ensure personnel are aware of ___, enforce compliance and may direct an additional investigation for ___

A

AFIs, Disciplinary purposes

175
Q

Failed or absent defense in unsafe supervision, preconditions for unsafe acts and unsafe acts can result in mishaps. What other factor can contribute

A

Failed or absent defenses in organizational factors

176
Q

Who is in the best potion to identify hazards, assess risks and correct unsafe work practices or safety deficiency

A

Supervisors

177
Q

If unsafe and unhealthful working condition exist, the supervisor must eliminate or control them by all of the following

A

Engineering
Administrative controls
Using PPE

178
Q

What must be accessible along with circuit breakers and disconnect switches to enforce safety standards

A

Fuses

179
Q

How quickly must safety respond to an AF Form 457

A

Within 10 Duty days

180
Q

Applying the process of Risk management cyclically and continuously helps identify and asses

A

Hazards

181
Q

The two primary levels of RM that dictate the effort and scope of evaluating risk are

A

Deliberate RM and real time RM

182
Q

What are the key aspects of Step 1 of the RM process, Identify the Hazards

A

Mission/Task analysis, List hazards and list causes

183
Q

Which Step of RM process involves applying quantitative or qualitative measures to determine the probability and severity of negative effects that may result from exposure to risk hazards

A

Step 2 - Assess the Hazards

184
Q

When identifying control options during Step ____ of the RM process, each hazard should have one or more controls that can effectively eliminate, avoid or reduce the risk to an acceptable level

A

Step 3

185
Q

When establish accountability during Step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, who must know who is responsible and accountable at each stage of an acitvity

A

Individuals involved in a specific risk management process

186
Q

During leadership changes, step 5 of the RM process, Supervise and evaluate, stipulates that ___ leaders share knowledge, experiences and lessons with incoming leaders to provide a positive transition of risk acceptance and reduce volatility

A

Outgoing

187
Q

When it is essential to streamline the 5 step RM process for situations involving quick decisions, AMN can use the ABCD Mnemonic. What does it stand for

A

Assess the Situation
Balance Controls
Communicate
Decide and Debrief

188
Q

Which is not required for a complete assessment in the assess the situation step of the Real Time Risk Management Process

A

Mitigating or eliminating risk

189
Q

Which of the following increases the effectiveness of the Balance Controls step of the Real time RM process

A

Better preparation

190
Q

In the Communicate step of the real time RM process, personnel experience stress and loss of situational awareness, leading to diminished communication skills and tunnel vision. When individuals identify that they are losing situational awareness, it can help them

A

Communicate with teammates an leadership in real-time situations
Make corrections
Step back to reevaluate options

191
Q

What are the two types of sexual assault victim advocates

A

Sexual Assault prevention and response VAs

Volunteer VAs

192
Q

Which of the following individuals are not eligible for both unrestricted and restricted sexual assault reporting

A

DoD civilians employees, stationed or performing duties outside the continental US and eligible for treatment at military facilities there

193
Q

AFI ____ requires the report of sexual assault incidents to the AF OSI or other appropriate authorities

A

AFI 44-102

194
Q

The ____ defines suicide as death caused by self directed injurious behavior with an y intent to die as a result of the behavior

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

195
Q

Roughly ____ Americans commit suicide in any given year, nearly tice the number killed by homicide

A

30,000

196
Q

From 2009 - 2013, AF personnel suicides equaled a rate of 14.1 per year for every ___ Amn

A

100,000

197
Q

From CY 2009-2013 less than ___ percent of Amn who died by suicide were receiving treatment for mental heath concerns

A

40 percent

198
Q

Which statement about self injurious behavior and suicide attempts is inaccurate

A

The severity of the injury is never an accurate indicator of the persons intent to die

199
Q

How many AF suicide prevention program initiatives or elements were implemented by the suicide prevention integrated protected team

A

11

200
Q

The ___ of stress and the significant negative effect it can have on people and orgs makes it a major concern for enlisted leaders at all levels

A

Frequency

201
Q

Who is widely regards as the father of stress research

A

Hans Selye

202
Q

Which statement about the concept of stress is inaccurate

A

Stress is defined as the specific response of the body to any demand made upon it

203
Q

Organizational stress management methods do not include

A

Planning

204
Q

Reconstitutions during the redeployments support process provides time for Amn to tend to personal needs T/F

A

False

205
Q

The redeployment support process timeline does not include commanders responses and actions and community action information board and integrated deployment system members activities at critical ___ junctures

A

Disability Leave

206
Q

The personnel readiness function begins reintegration, establishes procedures to account for member returning from deployment and develops the

A

Reception station

207
Q

When do returning units and individuals in process within the personal readiness function

A

Within two duty days of redeployment day

208
Q

What AFI outlines force support squadron and family member program protocols

A

AFI 34-248

Multiple Choice - E-8-1s (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions