E-2 Multiple Choice (Chapters 19 - 23) Flashcards

1
Q

Operational effectiveness is enhanced when decision makers apply Operations Security only during the final stages of planning T/F

A

False

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2
Q

What documents provide guidance for managing classified information and controlled unclass information

A

DoDM 5200.1 Volumes 1 and 4
DoDM 5200.1 Volumes 2 and 3
AFI 31-401

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3
Q

If internal pages contain FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY or UNCLASSIFIED//FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY information, the markings must appear only at the bottom T/F

A

False

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4
Q

Commanders and supervisors continually observe and evaluate subordinates after a security clearance is granted, reporting unfavorable conduct and conditions that affect ___ or ____

A

Trustworthiness or eligibility

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5
Q

Installation commanders determine and prioritize installation assets in the first step of the Integrated defense process. What are the remaining three steps

A

Analyzing threats and the operating environment
Assessing installation vulnerabilities
Making prudent ID decisions

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6
Q

Who should the DFC coordinate with to conduct base defense tasks for terrain outside the base boundary but within the BSZ

A

Local, state and federal agencies in the CONUS
The host Nation OCONUS
the area commander OCONUS

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7
Q

The Area of operations commander will establish a BDOC to coordinate and direct Tactical Control of ID forces and supporting capabilities T/F

A

False

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8
Q

Commanders achieve the Integrated defense effect of assess through

A

Cognizance, readiness and awareness of all AF personnel, who understand threat Tactics, Techniques and Procedures

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9
Q

____ is an Integrated Defense effect achieved by deliberately layering defensive applications to progressively weaken or hinder the enemy’s efforts

A

Delay

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10
Q

Intelligence fusion cell is an analytical methodology providing predictive intelligence to warfighters for planning and executing operations T/F

A

False

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11
Q

In relation to Integrated Defense desired effects, it is preferred to ___- a threat, but if that doesn’t succeed, the next ideal effect would be to ____ the threat

A

Deter; Detect

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12
Q

After friendly forces are warned of the threat, attempts are made to ____ the threat; if that doesn’t succeed, it must be____

A

Defeat; Delayed

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13
Q

In which part of the Intelligence preparation of the Operational Environment process is collected data analyzed and the factors affecting operations, equipment and personnel described

A

Part 2

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14
Q

What takes place during Part 3 of the intelligence preparation of the Operational Environment process

A

Historical data, existing intelligence analyses and other reports about adversaries operating in the geographic area of concern are collected

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15
Q

The integrated defense Risk management process provides the ability to produce effects based integrated defense plan by using a standardized model to identify risks and develop risk management strategies, to all the following except

A

Intelligence Fusion Cells and subject matter experts

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16
Q

The Integrated defense risk management process identifies at risk assets and aids the ___ in generating the Criticality assessment and the risk assessment products

A

Integrated Defense Working Groups (IDWG)

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17
Q

The IDRMP components are influenced by the evolving situation monitored through the intelligence preparation of the Operational Environment cycle. The first component is RA. The other three components are

A

Risk tolerance decisions
Course of Action determination
Decision and implementation

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18
Q

The four IDRMP components are performed in seven steps. What is the first step

A

Develop the Criticality Assessment

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19
Q

Which statement describes what is accomplished during step 1 of the integrated defense risk management process

A

Identify assets worthy of protection and use certain criteria to measure asset value or consequence of loss

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20
Q

A quantitative measurement of risk can be determined by using the equation: Risk = Asset criticality multiplied by (Threat multiplied by vulnerability) T/F

A

False

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21
Q

During which step of the IDRMP is the risk assessment developed

A

Step 4

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22
Q

If information required to assess risks is deficient in step 5 of the IDRMP what should be developed or modified to guide the intelligence community’s collection efforts

A

A command critical intelligence requirement

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23
Q

What provides flexible planning and execution opportunities that allow owners or users of PL 1, PL2, PL3 and PL 4 assets to become actively involved in their defense

A

Integrated Defense

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24
Q

What should be operationalized in order to maint optimal situational awareness through the BB and BSZ

A

Force Protection Intelligence (FPI)

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25
Q

All of this resources are assigned PL1

A

Nuclear Weapons
Aircraft designated to transport the President of the US
Designated C3 facilities

26
Q

PL2 resources include

A

Designated space and launch systems

27
Q

The ___ style of conflict management involves a combination of low assertiveness and high cooperation

A

Accommodating

28
Q

The avoiding style of conflict management is ineffective and should not be sued T/F

A

False

29
Q

Three factors to consider when selecting a style of conflict management are

A

Who your dealing with
The stakes
The situation itself

30
Q

There are ____ steps in the problem solving model at the core of the AF continuous Process Improvement

A

Eight

31
Q

People are typically the cause of inefficient process so they should help identify barriers and inefficiencies in their jobs T/F

A

False

32
Q

Step 6 in the 8 step model is

A

See countermeasures through

33
Q

Step two of the 8 is frustrating for those who want to immediately take action and implement solutions T/F

A

False

34
Q

Who sets the improvement targets during step 3 (Set improvement targets) of the eight step problem solving model

A

Process owners and or project sponsors

35
Q

In the 8 step model, improvement targets define the ___ levels required to make an org vision a reality

A

Performance

36
Q

As a part of step 4 of the 8 step model, how should you validate the correct root cause

A

Use the same data that defined the problem in Step 1

37
Q

In step 7 (confirm results and process) of the 8 step model, leaders should monitor processes for performance relative to all of the following

A

The baseline developed in Steps 1 and 2
B-SMART targets established in Step 3
The solution implementation

38
Q

If leaders find target deadlines are not being met in step 7 of the 8 step model, they should evaluate whether to return to step

A

Step 4: Determine root cause

39
Q

Step ___ isn’t the most commonly skipped and under completed step in the 8 step model.

A

Step 8: Standardize successful processes

40
Q

AF Smart Operations uses all the following CPI methodologies except

A

Business Process Restructuring

41
Q

Which CPI methodology focuses on workflow, customer value and eliminating process waste

A

Lean

42
Q

____ is a rigorous and data driven CPI methodology focusing on minimizing waste by reducing process variation

A

Six Sigma

43
Q

Which CPI methodology optimizes resource utilization by identifying, exploiting, subordinating, elevating and reassessing bottlenecks in the process

A

Theory of constraints

44
Q

By developi9ng your own sources of power, you will be less depended on other for the ___ you need

A

Leadership

45
Q

What are the types or point of power

A

Task power
Relationship power
Position Power

46
Q

Task power stems from

A

Being able to help others with a process or procedure they may need to do

47
Q

Do you draw a six pointed start with ten hash marks from the center to the tip of each point to chart your points of power T/F

A

False

48
Q

The use of ___ frameworks and shortcuts helps us process information quickly and efficiently to simplify our understanding of a complex world

A

Mental

49
Q

Human minds tend to be risk takers T/F

A

False

50
Q

How can AMN in a position of responsibility best avoid the human tendency to continue a course of action due to sunk costs, a common decision trap

A

Properly use a combination of intuitive judgment and formal analysis

51
Q

There is a simple ___ step process to use when communication intuitive decisions, seeking feedback and conveying intent

A

Five step

52
Q

In critical thinking, reasoning by ___ occurs when we assess a sisti9nao and match it to similar experiences we have encountered, assuming that they are alike

A

Analogy

53
Q

Analogies do not____

A

Play a large role in intuition thought at the conscious level

54
Q

Most groups make good decisions T/F

A

False

55
Q

How do leaders being to consciously structure the group decision making process to encourage critical thinking

A

Decide who should be involved and how the participants communicate
Decide what sort of environment the decision should take place in
Decide how the leader will control the decision process

56
Q

For groups of non experts to be most effective, which precondition is the most important

A

Independent members

57
Q

Independence and hierarchy of group members can neutralize the benefits of group decision T/F

A

False

58
Q

Indecision results from dysfunction patterns of behavior; It manifests itself as the harmful are cultures of ___

A

No
Yes
Maybe

59
Q

Beyond constructed debate in the decision making process, procedural ___ is required to legitimize and support the Orgs decision

A

Fairness

60
Q

Which perspective on decision making failure rests upon the assumption that decision failures are unavoidable in any highly complex, high risk organization structure

A

Normal Accident

61
Q

Within the Org environment, ____ drift is similar to normalizing deviance

A

Practical Drift