E-1 Multipe Choice Flashcards

(113 cards)

1
Q

How did the US respond to the Cuban Missile Crisis

A
  • Strat Air Command and Tac Air Command geared up for possible invasion of and war with Cuba.
  • President Kennedy imposed a naval blockade to prevent any more material from reaching Cuba
  • President Kennedy Negotiated with Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev to remove the missiles
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2
Q

In what phase of attack do defense actions focus on individual and weapon systems survival

A

Attack response

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3
Q

Attack ____ defense actions focus on saving lives, detecting and mitigating hazards, mission restoration and sustainment

A

Attack recovery

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4
Q

What do installation commanders declare to initiate passive defense actions in wartime

A

Alarm conditions

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5
Q

_____ initiate or limit individual and air base wide movement and action _____ let individuals know what to wear for minimum protection

A

Alarm conductions; MOPP levels

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6
Q

Who will disseminate reports of contaminated hazard areas, UXO and casualty and damage assessments after an attack

A

The emergency Operations Center (EOC)

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7
Q

If you do not have a RSDL or M295 individual decon kit us ____% chlorine solution

A

.50%

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8
Q

Which MOPP level is ordered when CBRN attacks could occur with little or no warning or when CBRN contamination is present or suspected

A

MOPP 1

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9
Q

Contamination ____ actions prevent CBRN contamination of mission essential resources and include covering and limiting entry to facilities and detecting and identifying

A

Avoidance

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10
Q

Individual protection measures in CBRN environment do not include

A

Hardening

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11
Q

Collective protection does not provide personnel what

A

Specialized recovery equipment

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12
Q

Protective measures taken in response to terrorist or CBRN attack do not include

A

CBRN reconnaissance

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13
Q

DoDD 2311.01E, DoD law of War Program, requires all of the following of each military department except what

A

Establishing tribunals to try alleged LOAC violations

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14
Q

Which article of the US constitution stats that treaty obligations of the US are the supreme law of the land

A

Article VI

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15
Q

Which LOAC principle permits the use of only the degree of regulated force not prohibited by the laws of war that obtains the enemy’s partial or complete submission with the least expenditure of life, time and physical resources

A

Military necessity

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16
Q

Attacks must be limited to military objectives… those objects that make an effective contribution to military action ad whose total or partial destruction, capture or neutralization offers a definite military advantage… according to which LOAC principle

A

Military necessity

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17
Q

Which LOAC principle requires defenders to separate military targets from civilians and civilian objects as much as feasible

A

Distinction

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18
Q

Combatants are immune from prosecutions fro their belligerent acts if they

A

Are authorized by a sovereign state and act in accordance with the LOAC

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19
Q

Lawful military ____ are those that by their own nature, location, purpose or use make an effective contribution to military action and whose total or partial destruction, capture or neutralization offer a defenent military advantage

A

Objectives

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20
Q

Which statement about the LoaC is false

A

Civilian aircraft may never be lawfully attacked

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21
Q

Illegal acts justified as a last resort to stop illegal acts first committed by the adversary are

A

Reprisals

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22
Q

before using force in self defense, consider all of the following except

A

US National Interest

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23
Q

AF personnel can find guidance on standards of conduct in

A

DoDD 5500.07, DoD 5500.07-R and AFI 1-1

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24
Q

What may result if civilian personnel violate the punitive provisions of DoDD 5500.07, Standards of Conduct, DoD 5500.07R, The joint ethics regulation and AFI 1-1, AF Standards

A

Administrative actions such as reprimands and disciplinary action without regard to the issue of criminal liability

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25
Ethical values are core beliefs, such as duty, honor and integrity that
Motivate attitudes and actions
26
Which aspect of honesty prevents confusion, misinterpretation and inaccurate conclusions
Straightforwardness
27
What word describes being faithful to your convictions and acting with honor
Integrity
28
What ethical value is synonymous with fidelity, faithfulness, allegiance and devotion and requires balancing various interests, values and institutions
Loyalty
29
Which ethical value is the counterbalance to the temptation to pursue the mission at any cost
Caring
30
Fraternization is a ____ form of unprofessional relationship
Aggravated
31
Fraternization is specifically prohibited in the MCM and is punishable under what article of the UCMJ
Article 134
32
If a military member violates a lawful order to cease and unprofessional relationship or conduct he or she is subject to what
Subject to prosecution under the UCMJ
33
With regard to professional relationships, who is expected to exhibit the highest standards of professional conduct and to lead by example
Officer and NCOs
34
Administrative counseling admonitions and reprimands are what
May be issued to Reserve members who commit an offense while in Non Title 10 Status
35
What is used to document an infraction serious enough to warrant a letter of admonishment
A letter of counseling or record of individual counseling
36
Which document must the commander place inn unfavorable information file
Suspended or unsuspended article 15 punishment of more than one month 31 days or more
37
What document does the commander use to place someone on a control roster
AF IMT 1058
38
An airman is not administratively demoted for failure to
Qualify for the responsitiblties noted in AF IMT 174
39
Unless the MAJCOM FOA or DRU commander delegates demotion authority who's is the appellate authority for SMSgt and CMSgt
Air Force Vice Chief of Staff
40
The Manual for Court Marital is revised annual. What does it not include
Law of armed Conflict
41
______ is less sever entrant on liberty than arrest its xerographic limits are usually broader and the offender performs full military duties unless otherwise direxcted
Restriction in lieu of arrest
42
In the armed forces arrest doesn't no
Mean a Physical restraint
43
With of the following individuals cannot authorize searches
Staff judge advocates
44
Under article 15, what is the maximum length of correctional custody a captain can impose on a sSgt
7 Days
45
Regarding NJP after consulting with the SJA a commander may annotations any of the following on AF Form 370A/B/C except what
NJP is not appropriate and the matter will be forwarded for court martial
46
______ cancels any executed or unexecuted portion of a punishment under ARicle 15 and restores any property, privileges or rights affected by that portion of the punishment
Set Aside
47
A Special court marital usually consist of military judge and apparel of _____ or more members
Three
48
What court martial panel vote is required for confinement exceeding 10 years
At least 3/4 concurrence
49
What court martial sentence requires a unanimous vote by a palenl of 12 members
Death
50
What is the first level of formal appellate review
US Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals
51
If your outdoors in junior not in formation and you hear the national anthem or to the colord=s during the raising and lowering of the us Flag what should you do
Stand, Face the Flag and Salut =e
52
How do military personnel enter automobiles and small boats
In revers order of Rank
53
Major ceremonies for DV are key to a minimum, with full honors usually reserved for sttuatry appointees and military service vernal or flag officers, foreign dignitaries and occasions where cemeoneis promoted _____ goodwill
International
54
kThe rank of NCO was established when
The early 12th Century
55
The primary participants with speaking parts and other duties in the Order of the Word induction ceremony include the chief master sergeant of the mess, first sergeant, duty sergeant and the
Sergeant at arms
56
_____ are primarily adapting to the requirements of the military profession acquiring needed knowledge of military customs, courtesies and AF standard and striving to gain occupational proficiency
ABs
57
Members of which tier of the enlisted force structure are cointuint their occupational growth while becoming expert technicisans
NCO
58
NCOs must be alert for signs off substance abuse, depression suicide or post combat stress. This imperative is related to what form of readiness
Mental Readiness
59
Wich statement does not support the responsibility f NCOs to epitomize excellence, lead by example and ensure a positive organizational climate that promotes dignity and respect for all airmen
Appropriately recognize and reward individuals whose military conduct and duty performance clearly exceed established standards
60
As part of their general respoinsbilties, NCOs must seek ways to reduce _____ and improve efficiency
Costs
61
What is an SNCOs primary purpose
To accomplish the mission
62
Only an SNCOc an hold the enlisted duty title of
Squadron superintendent
63
______ manage enlisted career field for MAJCOMs disseminate policies and program requirements throughout the MAJCOM and provide expertise to AETC to develop new training programs ro improve existing ones
Enlisted MAJCOM Functional Managers (MFMs)
64
Where do enlisted AF career Filed Managers usually suerve
At Headquarters Air Force
65
Which CMSAF was held prisoner by the germans during WWII and helped cheat the WAPS
Paul W. Airey
66
CMSAF _____ wan an armament and gunnery instructor known for his no nonsense approach and ability to listen and focused on resolving racial tensions assignment concerns and promotion problems during the Vietnam conflict
Donald L Harlow
67
Which CMSAF was the first African American to serve in the highest enlisted post of any military service and broke down barriers for women in the AF and established the services commitment to epee for all airmen
Thomas N Barnes
68
Which statement about military ethics is inaccurate
According to Dr James H Toner the proper wording of AMNs priorities should be unit AF and Country
69
One of the telltale signs of military professionals is
Preparation
70
Who created the Chief of Staff, US AF professional reading program in 1996
General Ronald Fogleman
71
General ______ revised the CSAF professionl reading program in 2012 adding books, films, tech, entertainment, design briefings and online resources
Norton A SSchwartz
72
What distinguishes the military profession from all other professions
The Unlimited Liability Clause, the expectation that members will lay down their lives for their friend, families or freedoms
73
At the craftsman skill level, members in retraining status are subjectt to the same trainmen requirement as this in upgrade trigging but must spend a minus of ____ m months in UGT
6 Months
74
UTM intermvie nelwooy assigned personnel within _____ days to determine trainmen status and CDC enrollment progression
30 Days
75
UTM conduct a comprehensive orientation for trainees initially entering UGT within ____ days of aqssigemtn
60 Days
76
Wich reagrd to tranigen respoinbiles who has the single greatest impact on mission accomplishment
Supervisors
77
What document is used to identify and certify all past an current training qualifications
Career Field Education and Training Plan
78
What triangin document is approved by the AFCFM for a paritcual Jobe type or duty position within an AFS
Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS)
79
CDCS do Not
Normally contain information on specific equipment or taks
80
CCAF gains academic recongini9ton for technical training conducted by AF schools. In what year was it activated
1972
81
The CCAF is accredited to award wha tdegrees
Associate master and doctoral
82
Members who earn CCAF degrees must have 634 semester hours, a 5 level when the program is completed and a minimum of ____ resident semester hours
16 resident semester hours
83
How many combined semester hours of general education requirements are required for a CCAF degree
15 Hours
84
Students may earn CCAF collegiate credit for certain national professional credentials that are CCAF approved to satisfy what appicaliabl requirements
Technical education and program electives
85
Which statement regarding the Airframe edna Powerpalnt certification program is false
It process a focus and specialized aircraft macitence professional
86
The CCAF ____ certification program was designed for CCAF assigned curriculum dewvlpers, writers and managers
Instructional systems development (ISD)
87
The CCAF ____ provided information on specific occupational specialties, civilian occupational equivalencies , CCaf degrees programs, and etc...
Credentialling Opportunities On Line Program
88
Wich following respnsabilites of the Joint Service3 Aviation Maintenance Technician Certification Council is inaccurate
Maintain DoD and US Coat Guard Continuity and relatohsipo with CCAF instructional Systems Development
89
SNCOS must ensure resources that appear to besot free are used in the most cost effective manner. Assets may appear to be cost free if you do not
Control the deteimation of these resources Control the allocation of the sresource Have the authority to change the mix the total resources allocated
90
Who selects the resource managmet team members fore each resoinblity center visit
Base Comptroller
91
With statement about the AF equipment management system is. false
It is not used to report capitalized assets depreciation
92
ROS are used to research and investigate the loss, damage, destruction or theft of government property. Which publication identifies how to process an ROS
AFMAN 23-220
93
Who is usually responsible for initiating a ROS
The organization possessing the lost or damaged property
94
Wich Statement describing the four steps the ROS investigating official performs during an investigation is inaccurate
Obtain oral statements from those inerviewed
95
In the description of each attachment to an official memorandum, cite the office of origin, type of communication, date and number of copies if more then one. Where should you type Attachments
Flush with the left margin, 10 lines below the last line of text or three lines below the signature element
96
A separate page Memo for Record
Can include a MEMO fOR or TO line to specifically target the addressee
97
With statement about identity management is inaccurate
Current AF guidance details how to us PKI to sign and encrypt email
98
/What may be used for all ORGS messaging requirements
Organization simple mail transfer protocol mailboxes
99
All of these are ways to be clear and concise with your email except
Avoiding bold, italics or color
100
With use of govenemnet computer hardware or software is always prohibited
Installing or using software in violation of the vendors license agreement
101
Scan approved ____ for viruses before and after use if scans are not automated
Removable media devices
102
Report any suspected information systems abnormalities imiddeatly to who
Organizational information assurance officer
103
A meetings success or failure can usually be traced to what phase
Planning the meeting
104
With stage of meetings is probably the most diffuicult
Storming Stage
105
While groups in the ____ stage of meetings resist collaborating and try to rely solely on personal and professional experience, they do begin to understand one another
Stroming Stage
106
How did the norming stage of a meeting get its name
Because the team accepts the ground rules or norms
107
What does follow up for meetings involve
Sending out the meeting minutes and starting the whole cycle over again
108
When preparing the minutes fora meeting do all of the follow gexcept
Date the minutes for the day the meeting was held
109
On meeting minutes
Pay attention to uniformity of margins and text
110
The minutes of a meeting document the action taken on the last meetings minutes and reports. In what order do you report the business covered in the meeting
Current business, old business, new business
111
A Bullet Background Paper presents concisely written statements centered on a single idea or a collection of accomplishments with their respective impacts. It does not provide
A compact yet complete solution for the deciosn maker
112
In a bullet background paper
The identification line on the first page should include the a/uthors grade and name, org, office symbol, telephone number, typist initials and date
113
To develop a good bulelt back ground paper you should not
Include all support data in the body of the paper