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Multiple Choice - E-8-1s > E-1 Multipe Choice > Flashcards

E-1 Multipe Choice Flashcards

1
Q

How did the US respond to the Cuban Missile Crisis

A
  • Strat Air Command and Tac Air Command geared up for possible invasion of and war with Cuba.
  • President Kennedy imposed a naval blockade to prevent any more material from reaching Cuba
  • President Kennedy Negotiated with Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev to remove the missiles
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2
Q

In what phase of attack do defense actions focus on individual and weapon systems survival

A

Attack response

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3
Q

Attack ____ defense actions focus on saving lives, detecting and mitigating hazards, mission restoration and sustainment

A

Attack recovery

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4
Q

What do installation commanders declare to initiate passive defense actions in wartime

A

Alarm conditions

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5
Q

_____ initiate or limit individual and air base wide movement and action _____ let individuals know what to wear for minimum protection

A

Alarm conductions; MOPP levels

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6
Q

Who will disseminate reports of contaminated hazard areas, UXO and casualty and damage assessments after an attack

A

The emergency Operations Center (EOC)

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7
Q

If you do not have a RSDL or M295 individual decon kit us ____% chlorine solution

A

.50%

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8
Q

Which MOPP level is ordered when CBRN attacks could occur with little or no warning or when CBRN contamination is present or suspected

A

MOPP 1

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9
Q

Contamination ____ actions prevent CBRN contamination of mission essential resources and include covering and limiting entry to facilities and detecting and identifying

A

Avoidance

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10
Q

Individual protection measures in CBRN environment do not include

A

Hardening

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11
Q

Collective protection does not provide personnel what

A

Specialized recovery equipment

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12
Q

Protective measures taken in response to terrorist or CBRN attack do not include

A

CBRN reconnaissance

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13
Q

DoDD 2311.01E, DoD law of War Program, requires all of the following of each military department except what

A

Establishing tribunals to try alleged LOAC violations

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14
Q

Which article of the US constitution stats that treaty obligations of the US are the supreme law of the land

A

Article VI

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15
Q

Which LOAC principle permits the use of only the degree of regulated force not prohibited by the laws of war that obtains the enemy’s partial or complete submission with the least expenditure of life, time and physical resources

A

Military necessity

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16
Q

Attacks must be limited to military objectives… those objects that make an effective contribution to military action ad whose total or partial destruction, capture or neutralization offers a definite military advantage… according to which LOAC principle

A

Military necessity

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17
Q

Which LOAC principle requires defenders to separate military targets from civilians and civilian objects as much as feasible

A

Distinction

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18
Q

Combatants are immune from prosecutions fro their belligerent acts if they

A

Are authorized by a sovereign state and act in accordance with the LOAC

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19
Q

Lawful military ____ are those that by their own nature, location, purpose or use make an effective contribution to military action and whose total or partial destruction, capture or neutralization offer a defenent military advantage

A

Objectives

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20
Q

Which statement about the LoaC is false

A

Civilian aircraft may never be lawfully attacked

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21
Q

Illegal acts justified as a last resort to stop illegal acts first committed by the adversary are

A

Reprisals

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22
Q

before using force in self defense, consider all of the following except

A

US National Interest

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23
Q

AF personnel can find guidance on standards of conduct in

A

DoDD 5500.07, DoD 5500.07-R and AFI 1-1

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24
Q

What may result if civilian personnel violate the punitive provisions of DoDD 5500.07, Standards of Conduct, DoD 5500.07R, The joint ethics regulation and AFI 1-1, AF Standards

A

Administrative actions such as reprimands and disciplinary action without regard to the issue of criminal liability

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25
Q

Ethical values are core beliefs, such as duty, honor and integrity that

A

Motivate attitudes and actions

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26
Q

Which aspect of honesty prevents confusion, misinterpretation and inaccurate conclusions

A

Straightforwardness

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27
Q

What word describes being faithful to your convictions and acting with honor

A

Integrity

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28
Q

What ethical value is synonymous with fidelity, faithfulness, allegiance and devotion and requires balancing various interests, values and institutions

A

Loyalty

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29
Q

Which ethical value is the counterbalance to the temptation to pursue the mission at any cost

A

Caring

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30
Q

Fraternization is a ____ form of unprofessional relationship

A

Aggravated

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31
Q

Fraternization is specifically prohibited in the MCM and is punishable under what article of the UCMJ

A

Article 134

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32
Q

If a military member violates a lawful order to cease and unprofessional relationship or conduct he or she is subject to what

A

Subject to prosecution under the UCMJ

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33
Q

With regard to professional relationships, who is expected to exhibit the highest standards of professional conduct and to lead by example

A

Officer and NCOs

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34
Q

Administrative counseling admonitions and reprimands are what

A

May be issued to Reserve members who commit an offense while in Non Title 10 Status

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35
Q

What is used to document an infraction serious enough to warrant a letter of admonishment

A

A letter of counseling or record of individual counseling

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36
Q

Which document must the commander place inn unfavorable information file

A

Suspended or unsuspended article 15 punishment of more than one month 31 days or more

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37
Q

What document does the commander use to place someone on a control roster

A

AF IMT 1058

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38
Q

An airman is not administratively demoted for failure to

A

Qualify for the responsitiblties noted in AF IMT 174

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39
Q

Unless the MAJCOM FOA or DRU commander delegates demotion authority who’s is the appellate authority for SMSgt and CMSgt

A

Air Force Vice Chief of Staff

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40
Q

The Manual for Court Marital is revised annual. What does it not include

A

Law of armed Conflict

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41
Q

______ is less sever entrant on liberty than arrest its xerographic limits are usually broader and the offender performs full military duties unless otherwise direxcted

A

Restriction in lieu of arrest

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42
Q

In the armed forces arrest doesn’t no

A

Mean a Physical restraint

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43
Q

With of the following individuals cannot authorize searches

A

Staff judge advocates

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44
Q

Under article 15, what is the maximum length of correctional custody a captain can impose on a sSgt

A

7 Days

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45
Q

Regarding NJP after consulting with the SJA a commander may annotations any of the following on AF Form 370A/B/C except what

A

NJP is not appropriate and the matter will be forwarded for court martial

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46
Q

______ cancels any executed or unexecuted portion of a punishment under ARicle 15 and restores any property, privileges or rights affected by that portion of the punishment

A

Set Aside

47
Q

A Special court marital usually consist of military judge and apparel of _____ or more members

A

Three

48
Q

What court martial panel vote is required for confinement exceeding 10 years

A

At least 3/4 concurrence

49
Q

What court martial sentence requires a unanimous vote by a palenl of 12 members

A

Death

50
Q

What is the first level of formal appellate review

A

US Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals

51
Q

If your outdoors in junior not in formation and you hear the national anthem or to the colord=s during the raising and lowering of the us Flag what should you do

A

Stand, Face the Flag and Salut =e

52
Q

How do military personnel enter automobiles and small boats

A

In revers order of Rank

53
Q

Major ceremonies for DV are key to a minimum, with full honors usually reserved for sttuatry appointees and military service vernal or flag officers, foreign dignitaries and occasions where cemeoneis promoted _____ goodwill

A

International

54
Q

kThe rank of NCO was established when

A

The early 12th Century

55
Q

The primary participants with speaking parts and other duties in the Order of the Word induction ceremony include the chief master sergeant of the mess, first sergeant, duty sergeant and the

A

Sergeant at arms

56
Q

_____ are primarily adapting to the requirements of the military profession acquiring needed knowledge of military customs, courtesies and AF standard and striving to gain occupational proficiency

A

ABs

57
Q

Members of which tier of the enlisted force structure are cointuint their occupational growth while becoming expert technicisans

A

NCO

58
Q

NCOs must be alert for signs off substance abuse, depression suicide or post combat stress. This imperative is related to what form of readiness

A

Mental Readiness

59
Q

Wich statement does not support the responsibility f NCOs to epitomize excellence, lead by example and ensure a positive organizational climate that promotes dignity and respect for all airmen

A

Appropriately recognize and reward individuals whose military conduct and duty performance clearly exceed established standards

60
Q

As part of their general respoinsbilties, NCOs must seek ways to reduce _____ and improve efficiency

A

Costs

61
Q

What is an SNCOs primary purpose

A

To accomplish the mission

62
Q

Only an SNCOc an hold the enlisted duty title of

A

Squadron superintendent

63
Q

______ manage enlisted career field for MAJCOMs disseminate policies and program requirements throughout the MAJCOM and provide expertise to AETC to develop new training programs ro improve existing ones

A

Enlisted MAJCOM Functional Managers (MFMs)

64
Q

Where do enlisted AF career Filed Managers usually suerve

A

At Headquarters Air Force

65
Q

Which CMSAF was held prisoner by the germans during WWII and helped cheat the WAPS

A

Paul W. Airey

66
Q

CMSAF _____ wan an armament and gunnery instructor known for his no nonsense approach and ability to listen and focused on resolving racial tensions assignment concerns and promotion problems during the Vietnam conflict

A

Donald L Harlow

67
Q

Which CMSAF was the first African American to serve in the highest enlisted post of any military service and broke down barriers for women in the AF and established the services commitment to epee for all airmen

A

Thomas N Barnes

68
Q

Which statement about military ethics is inaccurate

A

According to Dr James H Toner the proper wording of AMNs priorities should be unit AF and Country

69
Q

One of the telltale signs of military professionals is

A

Preparation

70
Q

Who created the Chief of Staff, US AF professional reading program in 1996

A

General Ronald Fogleman

71
Q

General ______ revised the CSAF professionl reading program in 2012 adding books, films, tech, entertainment, design briefings and online resources

A

Norton A SSchwartz

72
Q

What distinguishes the military profession from all other professions

A

The Unlimited Liability Clause, the expectation that members will lay down their lives for their friend, families or freedoms

73
Q

At the craftsman skill level, members in retraining status are subjectt to the same trainmen requirement as this in upgrade trigging but must spend a minus of ____ m months in UGT

A

6 Months

74
Q

UTM intermvie nelwooy assigned personnel within _____ days to determine trainmen status and CDC enrollment progression

A

30 Days

75
Q

UTM conduct a comprehensive orientation for trainees initially entering UGT within ____ days of aqssigemtn

A

60 Days

76
Q

Wich reagrd to tranigen respoinbiles who has the single greatest impact on mission accomplishment

A

Supervisors

77
Q

What document is used to identify and certify all past an current training qualifications

A

Career Field Education and Training Plan

78
Q

What triangin document is approved by the AFCFM for a paritcual Jobe type or duty position within an AFS

A

Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS)

79
Q

CDCS do Not

A

Normally contain information on specific equipment or taks

80
Q

CCAF gains academic recongini9ton for technical training conducted by AF schools. In what year was it activated

A

1972

81
Q

The CCAF is accredited to award wha tdegrees

A

Associate master and doctoral

82
Q

Members who earn CCAF degrees must have 634 semester hours, a 5 level when the program is completed and a minimum of ____ resident semester hours

A

16 resident semester hours

83
Q

How many combined semester hours of general education requirements are required for a CCAF degree

A

15 Hours

84
Q

Students may earn CCAF collegiate credit for certain national professional credentials that are CCAF approved to satisfy what appicaliabl requirements

A

Technical education and program electives

85
Q

Which statement regarding the Airframe edna Powerpalnt certification program is false

A

It process a focus and specialized aircraft macitence professional

86
Q

The CCAF ____ certification program was designed for CCAF assigned curriculum dewvlpers, writers and managers

A

Instructional systems development (ISD)

87
Q

The CCAF ____ provided information on specific occupational specialties, civilian occupational equivalencies , CCaf degrees programs, and etc…

A

Credentialling Opportunities On Line Program

88
Q

Wich following respnsabilites of the Joint Service3 Aviation Maintenance Technician Certification Council is inaccurate

A

Maintain DoD and US Coat Guard Continuity and relatohsipo with CCAF instructional Systems Development

89
Q

SNCOS must ensure resources that appear to besot free are used in the most cost effective manner. Assets may appear to be cost free if you do not

A

Control the deteimation of these resources
Control the allocation of the sresource
Have the authority to change the mix the total resources allocated

90
Q

Who selects the resource managmet team members fore each resoinblity center visit

A

Base Comptroller

91
Q

With statement about the AF equipment management system is. false

A

It is not used to report capitalized assets depreciation

92
Q

ROS are used to research and investigate the loss, damage, destruction or theft of government property. Which publication identifies how to process an ROS

A

AFMAN 23-220

93
Q

Who is usually responsible for initiating a ROS

A

The organization possessing the lost or damaged property

94
Q

Wich Statement describing the four steps the ROS investigating official performs during an investigation is inaccurate

A

Obtain oral statements from those inerviewed

95
Q

In the description of each attachment to an official memorandum, cite the office of origin, type of communication, date and number of copies if more then one. Where should you type Attachments

A

Flush with the left margin, 10 lines below the last line of text or three lines below the signature element

96
Q

A separate page Memo for Record

A

Can include a MEMO fOR or TO line to specifically target the addressee

97
Q

With statement about identity management is inaccurate

A

Current AF guidance details how to us PKI to sign and encrypt email

98
Q

/What may be used for all ORGS messaging requirements

A

Organization simple mail transfer protocol mailboxes

99
Q

All of these are ways to be clear and concise with your email except

A

Avoiding bold, italics or color

100
Q

With use of govenemnet computer hardware or software is always prohibited

A

Installing or using software in violation of the vendors license agreement

101
Q

Scan approved ____ for viruses before and after use if scans are not automated

A

Removable media devices

102
Q

Report any suspected information systems abnormalities imiddeatly to who

A

Organizational information assurance officer

103
Q

A meetings success or failure can usually be traced to what phase

A

Planning the meeting

104
Q

With stage of meetings is probably the most diffuicult

A

Storming Stage

105
Q

While groups in the ____ stage of meetings resist collaborating and try to rely solely on personal and professional experience, they do begin to understand one another

A

Stroming Stage

106
Q

How did the norming stage of a meeting get its name

A

Because the team accepts the ground rules or norms

107
Q

What does follow up for meetings involve

A

Sending out the meeting minutes and starting the whole cycle over again

108
Q

When preparing the minutes fora meeting do all of the follow gexcept

A

Date the minutes for the day the meeting was held

109
Q

On meeting minutes

A

Pay attention to uniformity of margins and text

110
Q

The minutes of a meeting document the action taken on the last meetings minutes and reports. In what order do you report the business covered in the meeting

A

Current business, old business, new business

111
Q

A Bullet Background Paper presents concisely written statements centered on a single idea or a collection of accomplishments with their respective impacts. It does not provide

A

A compact yet complete solution for the deciosn maker

112
Q

In a bullet background paper

A

The identification line on the first page should include the a/uthors grade and name, org, office symbol, telephone number, typist initials and date

113
Q

To develop a good bulelt back ground paper you should not

A

Include all support data in the body of the paper

Multiple Choice - E-8-1s (5 decks)

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