DYSMORPHOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q
  • Single, local tissue morphogenesis abnormality that produces a chain of subsequent defects
  • DiGeorge sequence of primary fourth branchial arch and 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch defects that lead to aplasia or hypoplasia of the thymus and parathyroid glands, aortic arch anomalies, and micrognathia
A

Malformation sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  • Mechanical (uterine) forces that alter structure of intrinsically normal tissue
  • Oligohydramnios produces deformations by in utero compression of limbs (dislocated hips, equinovarus foot deformity), crumpled ears, dislocated nose, or small thorax
A

Deformation sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • In utero tissue destruction Amnionic membrane rupture sequence after a period of normal sequence, leading to amputation of morphogenesis
  • Amnionic membrane rupture sequence, leading to amputation of fingers/toes, tissue fibrosis, and
    destructive tissue bands
A

Disruption sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • Poor organization of cells into tissues or organs
  • Neurocutaneous melanosis sequence with poor migration of melanocyte precursor cells from the
    neural crest to the periphery, manifesting as melanocytic hamartosis of skin, meninges, and so
    forth
A

Dysplasia sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • Appearance of multiple malformations in unrelated tissues without an understandable unifying cause; with enhanced genetic investigation, a single etiology may become identified
  • Trisomy 21, Teratogens
A

Malformation syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • Mendelian autosomal recessive
  • Abnormal vertebral segmentation
  • Neural tube defects
  • DLL3 mutations; mutations can also be present in other genes
A

SPONDYLOCOSTAL DYSOSTOSIS SYNDROMES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • Autosomal semidominant
  • Reduced or absent iris
  • PAX6 mutations
A

ANIRIDIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • Autosomal semidominant
  • Deafness
  • White forelock
  • Wide-spaced eyes
  • Pale eye pigment
  • PAX3 mutations
  • MITF mutations
A

WAARDENBURG SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  • Loss of function or heterozyg
  • Microcephaly
  • Cyclopia
  • Single central incisor
  • SHH mutations
A

HOLOPROSENCEPHALY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  • Chromosomal
  • Mental retardation
  • Characteristic dysmorphic features
  • Congenital heart disease
  • Increased risk of leukemia
  • Alzheimer disease
  • 50% increase of estimated 250 genes on chromosome 21
  • Trisomy 21
A

DOWN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • Multifactorial
  • Meningomyelocele
  • Defects in folate sensitive enzymes or folic acid uptake
A

NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • Teratogenic
  • Microcephaly
  • Developmental delay
  • Facial abnormalities
  • Behavioral abnormalities
  • Ethanol toxicity to developing brain
A

FETAL ALCOHOL SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • Teratogenic
  • Microtia
  • Congenital heart disease
  • Isotretinoin effects on neural crest and branchial arch development
A

RETINOIC ACID EMBRYOPATHY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Two major intrinsic causes of deformations

A
  • primary neuromuscular disorders and oligohydramnios
  • decreased amniotic fluid, which is caused by renal defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are those that result in fetal crowding to restrict fetal movement

A

The major extrinsic causes of deformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • caused by destruction of a previously normally formed part
  • 2 basic mechanisms
    > entanglement followed by tearing apart or amputation of a normally developed structure, usually a digit, arm, or leg, by strands of amnion floating within amniotic fluid (amniotic bands)
    > Interruption of the blood supply to a developing part, which can lead to infarction, necrosis, and/or resorption of structures distal to the insult
A

DISRUPTION

17
Q
  • pattern-recognition approach
    > compares the manifestations in the patient against am enormous and memorized (or computerized) knowledge of human pleiotropic disorders
    = History
  • pedigree or family history that is necessary to assess the inheritance pattern, or lack thereof
    > A 3-generation pedigree is sufficient for this purpose
  • perinatal history is an essential component of the history
    > pregnancy history of the mother, factors that may relate to deformations or disruptions (oligohydramnios), and maternal exposures to teratogenic drugs or chemicals
A

DYSMORPHIC CHILD

18
Q
  • those that either cause dysfunction (absence ofa digit) or require surgical correction (polydactyly)
  • Those that cause neither significant dysfunction nor require surgical correction (mild cutaneous syndactyly)
A
  • “major” birth defects
  • “minor” birth defects
19
Q

are the most sensitive methods for the detection of cytogenomic alterations associated with multiple congenital anomalies

A

Array CGH and single-nucleotide polymorphism genotyping with copy number variation (dosage detection)