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principles year 1 > DUMS questions > Flashcards

DUMS questions Flashcards

1
Q

what is Boyles law

A

the pressure (p) of a given quantity of gas varies inversely with its volume (v) at constant temperature

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2
Q

what is LaPlaces law

A

the tension within the wall of a sphere filled to a particular pressure depends on the thickness of the sphere

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3
Q

what is Daltons law

A

a law stating that the pressure exerted by a mixture of gases in a fixed volume is equal to the sum of the pressures that would be exerted by each gas alone in the same volume.

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4
Q

what is Henrys law

A

at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid.

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5
Q

what is the Bohr effect

A

the decrease in the oxygen affinity of a respiratory pigment (such as hemoglobin) in response to decreased blood pH resulting from increased carbon dioxide concentration in the blood

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6
Q

what is the Haldane effect

A

physicochemical phenomenon which describes the increased capacity of blood to carry CO2 under conditions of decreased haemoglobin oxygen saturation

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7
Q

which neurotransmitter acts on muscurinic receptors and what is the action in the airway

A

Acetylcholine
Constricts the airways

Muscarinic receptors in airway smooth muscle cause constriction when activated. Hence the use of muscarinic antagonists like ipratropium and tiotropium in asthma and COPD to reverse this effect.

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8
Q

describe the difference between foetal haemoglobin and adult haemoglobin

A

Foetal haemoglobin is comprised of two alpha and two gamma subunits and has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin. This is why infants with some congenital heart defects can be asymptomatic until they are weeks old, when foetal haemoglobin is lost.

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9
Q

what cranial nerves carry on parasympathetic fibres

A

Cranial nerves II, VII, IX and X carry exclusively parasympathetic nerve fibres

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10
Q

what cranial nerves are only motor nerves

A

III,IV, VI,XI,XII

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11
Q

what cranial nerves are only sensory nerves

A

I,II, VIII

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12
Q

what cranial nerves are both sensory and motor

A

V,VII,IX,X

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13
Q

what is the ductus arterioles

A

The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary trunk to the aorta in the foetal circulation and closes to form the ligamentum arteriosum three weeks after birth.

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14
Q

what is the ductus venosus

A

The ductus venosus is a shunt that allows oxygenated blood in the umbilical vein to bypass the liver and is essential for normal fetal circulation. Blood becomes oxygenated in the placenta and travels to the right atrium via umbilical veins through the ductus venosus, then to the inferior vena cava.

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15
Q

what is the foramen oval

A

The foramen ovale shunts oxygenated blood from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the pulmonary circulation.

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16
Q

what is the ligament arteriosum

A

is the small fibrous remnant of the fetal ductus arteriosum, located between and connecting the proximal left pulmonary artery and the undersurface of the junction of the aortic arch and descending aorta, at the aortic isthmus.

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17
Q

what is Neo-adjuvant treatment

A

treatment given before surgery to shrink the tumour for surgical removal

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18
Q

what is adjacent treatment

A

given after surgery to reduce the risk of reoccurrence

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19
Q

what is palliative treatment

A

treatment that is non curative and simply aims at improving quality of life

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20
Q

what is radical treatment

A

treatment that is curative

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21
Q

what are tumour suppressor genes

A

normal genes that inhibit cell division. If you lose both copies then cancer can form

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22
Q

what are proto-oncogenes

A

Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that stimulate cell division.

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23
Q

what are oncogenes

A

In cancer, these proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes which enable uncontrolled cell proliferation.

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24
Q

what are telomeres

A

Telomeres are repeats in genetic code in normal cells that mean they can only divide a certain number of times as each time they divide telomere repeats decrease. In cancer there is often a mutation that reactivates telomerase resulting in cells gaining unlimited replicative potential.

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25
Q

what is a holoenzyme

A

possess a co-factor, which is an associated substance essential for that enzyme’s function.

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26
Q

what is an apoenzyme

A

has no cofactor

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27
Q

what are isozymes

A

Isozymes are like isomers – they catalyse the same reaction but have different structures and chemical properties.

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28
Q

what is a zymogen

A

an inert substance which can be chemically converted into an enzyme.

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29
Q

what is gherlin

A

is a hormone produced by enteroendocrine cells of the gastrointestinal tract, especially the stomach, and is often called a “hunger hormone” because it increases food intake.

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30
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for glycogenesis

A

glycogen synthase

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31
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for glycogenolysis

A

glycogen phosphorylase

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32
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for gluconeogensis

A

fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

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33
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for lipogenesis

A

acetyl-coA carboxylase

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34
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for glycolysis

A

phosphofructikinase-1

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35
Q

what is the function of renin

A

renin is recreated by the kidneys and converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1

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36
Q

what is the function of ACE

A

ACE is found on plasma membranes of many cell types and converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

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37
Q

what is the Ig most abundant in the blood stream

A

IgG

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38
Q

what is the Ig that mediates type 1 hypersensitivity reactions

A

IgE

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39
Q

what is the Ig that is in the adaptive/humoral immune response

A

IgM

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40
Q

what Ig is responsible for the foetal immune protection

A

IgG - transferred across the placenta

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41
Q

what Ig is responsible for neonatal (less than 4 weeks old) immune protection

A

IgA - transferred to the neonate via colostrum and breast milk

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42
Q

what Ig is dominant in the secondary (memory) immune response

A

IgG

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43
Q

which cancer is associated with the c-MYC mutation

A

Burkitts lymphoma

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44
Q

what are psammoma bodies

A

collection of calcium found in biopsy samples of mesothelioma, a pleural malignancy caused by inhaled asbestos

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45
Q

what cancer is most likely to arise in non smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

46
Q

what is a common aggressive ling cancer associated with smoking

A

small cell carcinoma

47
Q

what is Gel and Coombs classification

A

for hypersensitivity reactions

48
Q

what is Dukes staging system for

A

colorectal cancer with histological appearance

49
Q

what muscle is striated

A

skeletal and cardiac

50
Q

how is the electrical conduction for skeletal cells

A
  • neurogenic (neuromuscular junctions)
51
Q

malignant epitelial neoplasms

A

carcinoma

52
Q

malignant neoplasms of connective tissue (bone, fat,muscle,nerve)

A

sarcoma

53
Q

glandular neoplasms

A

adenocarcinomas if malignant and adenomas if benign

54
Q

squamous cell neoplasms

A

squamous cell carcinoma if malignant or papilloma if benign

55
Q

malignant bladder epithelial cancer

A

transitional cell carcinoma

56
Q

mesenchymal benign forms of:

  • fat
  • bone
  • cartilage
  • skeletal muscle
  • smooth muscle
  • nerves
  • blood vessels
A
  • fat = lipoma
  • bone = osteoma
  • cartilage = enchrondroma
  • skeletal muscle = rhabdomyoma
  • smooth muscle = leiomyoma
  • nerves - neurofibroma schwannoma
  • blood vessels = haemangioma
57
Q

mesenchymal malignant forms of:

  • fat
  • bone
  • cartilage
  • skeletal muscle
  • smooth muscle
  • nerves
  • blood vessels
A
  • fat = liposarcoma
  • bone = osteosarcoma
  • cartilage = chondrosarcoma
  • skeletal muscle = rhabdomyosarcoma
  • smooth muscle = leiomyosarcoma
  • nerves = malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumour
  • blood vessels = Angiosarcoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma
58
Q

melanocytic benign cancer and malignant cancer

A

benign

  • freckle = ephelis
  • mole = naevus

malignant
- melanoma

59
Q

brain (glial) benign and malignant cancer

A 
benign = glioma 
malignant = gliosarcoma
60
Q

what are purple cocci in clusters, coagulase positive, identified on nasal swab from asymptomatic patient

A
  • purple = gram positive
  • clusters = staphylococci
  • staphylococci can be divided into coagulase positive (staph.aureus) and coagulase negative (staph epidermis, staph saprphyticus)
  • staph.aureus is frequently found in the upper respiratory tract and on skin but can be an opportunistic pathogen
61
Q

what are purple cocci in chains, undergoes ‘green’ haemolysis on blood agar, identified in sputum sample from patient presenting with a cough and fever

A
  • cocci in chain are streptococci
  • streptococci can be divided into alpha haemolytic (turns green on blood agar die to partial haemolysys eg strep pneumonia, Group A strep, Group B strep) and non haemolytic (eg enterococcus)
62
Q

large pink bacilli identified in stool sample from patient presenting with bloody diarrhoea

A
  • gram negative bacteria stain pink under gram stain
  • large gram negative bacilli are referred to as coliform
  • E.coli, like many other coliform, is a gut commensal
63
Q

what is an immuonglobin with a pentameric shape

A

IgM

64
Q

difference between bohrs law and the halide effect

A
  • The Haldane effect describes how oxygen concentrations determine hemoglobin’s affinity for carbon dioxide
  • The Bohr effect, on the other hand, describes how carbon dioxide and H+ affect the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
65
Q

what cell is responsible for the destruction of large parasites which cannot be phagocytosis

A

Mast cell

66
Q

what cells are MHC-II receptors on

A

macrophages and dendritic cells

MHC-II are present on professional antigen presenting cells

macrophages are professional antigen presenting cells

67
Q

what cells do MHC-II cells present to

A

CD4+ T cells

68
Q

what type of hypersensitivity reaction is sarcoidosis

A

type IV an example of delayed hypersensitivity

69
Q

what does a negative enthalpy suggest

A

exothermic

70
Q

what does a positive enthalpy suggest

A

endothermic

71
Q

what happens when Gibbs free energy is positive

A

non spontaneous (endergonic)

72
Q

what happens when Gibbs free energy is negative

A

spontaneous (exergonic)

73
Q

what is body temperature in kelvin

A

310K

74
Q

what is precontemplation

A

he intends to take action in the next 6 months

75
Q

what is contemplation

A

he intends to take action in the next 6 months and has taken some behavioural action

76
Q

what is preparation

A

he intends to take action in the next 30 days and he has taken behavioural action

77
Q

what is action

A

he is undergoing the action

78
Q

what is maintenece

A

he has changed his behaviour for more than 6 months

79
Q

what is the hyper polarisation phase

A

when K channels are open and Na channels are in the resting state

80
Q

how does depolarisation occur

A

once the threshold is reached voltage gated Na channels open and cause depolarisation

81
Q

what is the testing for looking for large deletions or duplications in the genome

A

array comparative genomic hybridisation

82
Q

what is the definition of incidence

A

new cases of disease occurring in a population in a defined time period

83
Q

what is the definition of morbidity rate

A

frequency at which the disease appears in the population

84
Q

what is the definition if prevalence

A

number of existing cases of a disease within a population at a set point of time

85
Q

what organism can appear as a golden culture on a blood agar plate

A

staph aureus

86
Q

what is alpha heamolysis

A

partial or “green” haemolysis

87
Q

what is beta haemolysis

A

complete or “yellow” haemolysis

88
Q

what is gamma haemolysis

A

lack of haemolysis

89
Q

in which step of acute inflammation do WBCs bind tightly and flatten against the vessel wall

A

pavementing

90
Q

what type of tumour is a sarcoma

A

malignant connective tissue tumour

91
Q

which neurotransmitter is released within the synapses between post ganglionic sympathetic neurones and their effector cells

A

noradrenaline

92
Q

what are voltage gated ion channels

A

are transmembrane proteins that play important roles in the electrical signaling of cells. The activity of VGICs is regulated by the membrane potential of a cell, and open channels allow the movement of ions along an electrochemical gradient across cellular membranes

93
Q

what are ligand gated ion channels

A

also commonly referred to as ionotropic receptors, are a group of transmembrane ion-channel proteins which open to allow ions such as Na+, K+, Ca2+, and/or Cl− to pass through the membrane in response to the binding of a chemical messenger

94
Q

what is a primary cartilaginous joint

A

Primary cartilaginous joints are known as “synchondrosis”. The cartilage, hyaline or fibrocartilage, are usually converted to bone with age, exception to this are the joints holding the first rib to the manubrium of the sternum, and sternal synchondroses.

95
Q

what are secondary cartilaginous joints

A

These are permanent joints called symphyses and are composed of fibrocartilage. They are considered amphiarthroses, meaning that they allow only slight movement and are all found at the skeletal midline.A flat disk of fibrocartilage connect bones and remains unossified throughout life. Example is the joint in pubic symphysis.

96
Q

what are the 2 types of cartilaginous joints

A

synchondroses (primary cartilaginous) and symphyses (secondary cartilaginous).

97
Q

where is the bifurcation of the trachea

A

T4/5

98
Q

where is the sternal angle found

A

2nd rib

99
Q

where is the male nipple found

A

T4

100
Q

what nerve supplies mechanoreceptors to the upper respiratory tract

A

vagus nerve (CN X)

101
Q

what nerve controls contraction of the diaphragm during the inspiratory phase

A

phrenic nerve

102
Q

what nerve controls contraction and relaxation of its respective intercostal muscle

A

intercostal nerve

103
Q

what are synarthroses joints

A
  • Immovable
  • These are fixed or fibrous joints. They’re defined as two or more bones in close contact that have no movement. The bones of the skull are an example. The immovable joints between the plates of the skull are known as sutures.
104
Q

what are amphiarthroses joints

A
  • Slightly moveable
  • Also known as cartilaginous joints, these joints are defined as two or more bones held so tightly together that only limited movement can take place. The vertebrae of the spine are good examples.
105
Q

what are diarthroses joints

A
  • freely moveable
  • Also known as synovial joints, these joints have synovial fluid enabling all parts of the joint to smoothly move against each other. These are the most prevalent joints in your body. Examples include joints like the knee and shoulder.
106
Q

what is the ball and socket joint

A

Permitting movement in all directions, the ball and socket joint features the rounded head of one bone sitting in the cup of another bone. Examples include your shoulder joint and your hip joint.

107
Q

what is the hinge joint

A

The hinge joint is like a door, opening and closing in one direction, along one plane. Examples include your elbow joint and your knee joint.

108
Q

what is the condyloid joint

A

The condyloid joint allows movement, but no rotation. Examples include your finger joints and your jaw.

109
Q

what is the pivot joint

A

The pivot joint, also called the rotary joint or trochoid joint, is characterized by one bone that can swivel in a ring formed from a second bone. Examples are the joints between your ulna and radius bones that rotate your forearm, and the joint between the first and second vertebrae in your neck.

110
Q

what is the gliding joint

A

The gliding joint is also called the plane join. Although it only permits limited movement, it’s characterized by smooth surfaces that can slip over one another. An example is the joint in your wrist.

111
Q

what is the saddle joint

A

Although the saddle joint does not allow rotation, it does enable movement back and forth and side to side. An example is the joint at the base of your thumb.

principles year 1 (9 decks)

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