Drugs Acting on the Hematologic System Flashcards

1
Q

provide essential building blocks for RBC production by increasing the hemoglobin necessary for oxygen transportation

A

hematinic drugs

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2
Q

a clinical condition that results from an insufficient supply of healthy RBCs, the volume of packed RBC and/or the quantity of hemoglobin

A

anemia

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3
Q

used to treat iron deficiency anemia (IDA)

A

Iron

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4
Q

medications under Iron

A
  • ferrous sulfate
  • ferrous gluconate
  • iron dextran
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5
Q

what is the MOA of Iron

A

production of hemoglobin; 80% of iron in the plasma goes into the bone marrow where they are used for erythropoiesis

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6
Q

pregnant women may need supplements to replace the ________ used by the developing fetus

A

iron

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7
Q

________ are used for patients who can’t absorb oral preparations, aren’t compliant with oral therapy, or with bowel disorders

A

parenteral iron therapy (iron dextran)

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8
Q

most common adverse reaction of iron

A

gastric irritation

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9
Q

________ darkens the stool and liquid ones can stain the teeth

A

iron

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10
Q

used to treat pernicious anemia

A

vit. B12

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11
Q

medications under vit. B12

A
  • cyanocobalamin
  • hydroxocobalamin
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12
Q

MOA of vit. B12

A

replaces vit. B12

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13
Q

treats folic acid deficiency

A

folic acid

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14
Q

stimulates RBC production

A

epoetin alfa

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15
Q

what is the MOA of epoetin alfa

A

boosts the production of erythropoietin

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16
Q

decreased erythropoietin can lead to ________, necessitating epoetin alfa administration

A

chronic normocytic anemia

caused by chronic renal failure

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17
Q

epoetin alfa

pharmacotherapeutics: anemia associated with ________; therapy in patients with HIV infection

A

zidovudine

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18
Q

________ is used to decrease the need for transfusion in patients with certain types of leukemia

A

epoetin alfa

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19
Q

most common adverse reaction of epoetin alfa

A

hypertension

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20
Q
  • prepared commercially from animal tissue
  • prevents blood clot formation
  • cannot dissolve already formed clots
A

heparin

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21
Q

Heparin

________ and ________ were developed to prevent deep vein thrombosis in surgical patients

A
  • dalteparin sodium
  • enoxaparin sodium
22
Q

what is the MOA of heparin

A
  • prevents formation of new thrombi
  • activates antithrombin III
23
Q

MOA of heparin in low doses

A
  • increases the activity of antithrombin III
  • inhibits clot formation
24
Q

MOA of heparin in large doses

A

inhibit fibrin formation after a clot has been formed

25
Q

________: prolongs blood clotting time, thrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time

A

heparin therapy

26
Q

treatment for disseminated intravascular coagulation

a complication of other diseases resulting in accelerated clotting

A

heparin

27
Q

Heparin

acts ________ when taken with oral anticoagulants

A

synergistically

28
Q

Heparin

risk of ________ when taken with NSAIDs, iron dextran, or an antiplatelet drug

A

bleeding

29
Q

most common adverse reaction of heparin is ________ - can be revered by administering __________

A

bleeding; protamine sulfate

30
Q

major oral anticoagulants (3)

A
  • coumarin compounds
  • warfarin sodium
  • dicumarol
31
Q

what is the MOA of oral anticoagulants

A

alter the ability of the liver to synthesize vitamin K dependent clotting factors

32
Q

antidote for bleeding caused by warfarin

A

vitamin K

33
Q

used to prevent arterial thromboembolism, particularly in patients at risk for MI, stroke, and arteriosclerosis

A

antiplatelet drugs

34
Q

medications under antiplatelet drugs (4)

A
  • aspirin
  • dipyridamole
  • sulfinpyrazone
  • ticlopidine
35
Q

what is the MOA of antiplatelet drugs

A

interfere with platelet activity in different drug-specific and dose-related ways

prevents platelet aggregation

36
Q

low doses of ________ inhibit clot formation by blocking the synthesis of prostaglandin, thus preventing the formation of the platelet-aggregating substance thromboxane A2

A

aspirin

37
Q

________ inhibits the binding of fibrinogen to platelets during the first stage of the clotting cascade

A

ticlopidine

38
Q

Antiplatelet Drugs

for previous MI or unstable angina to reduce the risk of death and in men to reduce risk of TIA

A

aspirin

39
Q

Antiplatelet Drugs

for after MI to decrease the risk of sudden cardiac death

A

sulfinpyrazone

40
Q

aspirin + heparin, oral anticoagulants and dipyridamole = __________

A

increased risk of bleeding

41
Q

sulfinpyrazone + aspirin and oral anticoagulants = __________

A

increased risk of bleeding

42
Q

MOA of thrombolytic drugs

A

converts plasminogen to plasmin which dissolves thrombi, fibrinogen, and other plasma proteins

43
Q

used to treat certain thromboembolic disorders and have also been used to dissolve thrombi in arteriovenous cannulas and IV catheters to reestablish blood flow

A

thrombolytic drugs

44
Q

Thrombolytic Drugs

for acute MI, pulmonary embolism, acute ischemic stroke

A

alteplase

45
Q

Thrombolytic Drugs

for acute MI

A

anistreplase

46
Q

Thrombolytic Drugs

for acute MI, pulmonary embolus, DVT, arterial thrombosis, arterial embolism, and thrombosis

A

streptokinase

47
Q

Thrombolytic Drugs

interact with heparin, oral anticoagulants, antiplatelet drugs, and NSAIDs thus ____________

A

increasing the risk for bleeding

48
Q

________ inhibits streptokinase and can be used to reverse its fibrinolytic effects

A

aminocaproic acid

49
Q

Thrombolytic Drugs

adverse reactions especially with streptokinase and anistreplase

A

bleeding and allergic reactions

50
Q

medications under bile-sequestering drugs

A
  • cholestyramine
  • colestipol HCl
51
Q

MOA of bile-sequestering drugs

A

lower blood levels of LDL

52
Q

Bile-Sequestering Drugs

combine with ________ in the intestines to form an insoluble compound that is then excreted in the stool

A

bile acids