Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Inman RD Exam General Knowledge > Domain 1 - Food Science, Nutrient Composition of Foods > Flashcards

Domain 1 - Food Science, Nutrient Composition of Foods Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Get Smarter flashcards
1
Q

what is the water content of fruits and vegetables

A

75-93%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the cause of crispness (state of turgor) of fruits and vegetables

A

osmotic pressure of water filled vacuoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the limiting amino acid in soybeans

A

methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is protopectin converted to

A

pectin (indicates ripe fruit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is pectin converted to

A

pectic acid (overripe fruit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what accelerates ripening of fruits during storage?

A

ethylene gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what temp should frozen fruit be stored at?

A

0 degrees F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what fruits ripen best at room temp?

A

avocado, banana, pear, tomato

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how can you delay aging in apples?

A

store in a controlled atmosphere (reduced oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

why do fruits low in vitamin C darken rapidly when cut? how can you prevent this?

A

enzymatic action - to prevent dip in citrus juice, add sugar before freezing, heat to boiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does a Brix hydrometer measure

A

% sucrose by weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe chlorophyll…… more like borophyll

A

green, Insoluble in water
olive green in acid (pheophytin)
bright green in alkaline (chlorophyllin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe carotenoids

A

yellow/orange, insoluble in water
little color effect in acid or alkaline
lycopene - red in tomato/watermelon, overtone in aprictos (antioxidant/phytochemical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are 2 types of flavinoids

A

anthocyanins, anthoxanthis (flavones) - they are both soluble in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe anthocyanins

A

red, blue, purple
Soluble in water
bright red in acid
bluish tone in alkaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe anthoxanthins

A

white
soluble in water
colorless in acid
yellow in alkaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what provides flavor in peas and corn

A

sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what provides flavor in onion and cabbage

A

sulfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is glutamic acid used in

A

MSG (form of salt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what provides flavor is fruits (3 things)

A

acids, sugars, aromatic compounds (such as tannins - cause astringent feeling in mouth, underripe banana)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe Grade A canned fruits and vegetables

A

fancy - desserts, salads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe Grade B canned fruits and vegetables

A

choice - processed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe Grade C canned fruits and vegetables

A

standard - puddings, pies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the grades of fresh produce

A

fancy, extra #1, extra #2, combination, #2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the green color under potatoes skin due too

A

chlorophyll that develops when potato is exposed to light during storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

potatoes contain what compound which is a natural toxicant

A

solanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are benefits of microwaving vegetables

A

less time, retain color, vitamins, not a large difference in eating quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe a #10 can (most important!)

A

6 cans per case, 6lb 9oz, 13 cups in each can, 20-25 servings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

describe a #3 can

A

12 cans per case, 46 oz, 5 3/4 cups, serves 12-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe a #2 1/2 can

A

24 cans per case, 1lb 13 oz, 3.5 cups, serves 6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe a #2 can

A

24 cans per case, 1lb 4 oz, 2.5 cups, serves 4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe a #300 can

A

24 cans per case, 14-16 oz, 1 3/4 cups, serves 3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the structural part of the tendon that surrounds muscle, and what happens to it in heat

A

collagen - in heat it is hydrolyzed to gelatin and becomes tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what happens to elastin in heat

A

little change, it is resistant to heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

in potatoes, starch changes to what during storage

A

sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

muscle is composed of bundles of fibers called what

A

myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what holds fibers in bundles

A

sheet of connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what identifies a cut of meat

A

shape of bone (round bone - leg, t-bone - back and ribs, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what % protein is meat/poultry/fish

A

16-23%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what vitamins/minerals are meat/poultry/fish high in

A

thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, iron, copper, trace minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

pork is an especially good source of what

A

thiamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

calcium content is higher in what types of fish

A

canned fish with bones, oysters, shrimp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

fish has ____ fat and _____ moisture than meat

A

less, more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

why is TVP mixed with ground meats

A

more servings, lower costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

soy protein adds ______ due to _____ content

A

juiciness, water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the main contributor to meat color

A

myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

myoglobin exposed to oxygen turns front red to what color

A

brown, and green with further breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how does acid (vinegar) and salt increase tenderness

A

increase water-holding capacity of muscle and lowers pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how should meat be aged and ripened

A

hold in cold storage for about 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

change in muscle protein by enzymes increase _____ of muscle

A

water-holding capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what may extend storage life of meat

A

anaerobic (sous vide) packaging - vacuum packed, stored unfrozen at 0 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is MAP (modified atmosphere packaging)

A

air in packaging is removed and replaced with gases (carbon dioxide, nitrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

when is USDA inspection and grading of meat done

A

at slaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

which act assures the consumer that animals are healthy at slaughter and meat is fit for consumption

A

Wholesome Meat Act of 1967

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the grades of meat

A

prime, choice, select, standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are grades of meat based on

A

maturity of animal, marbling, color, texture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

which grade has the least marbling and which has the most

A

standard has least, prime has most

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

which cuts of meat are most tender

A

loin (pork chops), backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

which cuts of meat are medium tender

A

shoulder (chuck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

which cuts of meat are least tender

A

flank, brisket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the proper temp for a roast

A

325 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

when should a meat thermometer be inserted

A

before cooking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

a ____ cooked roast yields less waste

A

slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what meats have a safe internal temp of 145 F

A

pork, beef, veal, lamb, steaks, roast, fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what meats have a safe internal temp of 160 F

A

ground beef, ground veal, ground lamb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what meats have a safe internal temp of 165 F

A

turkey, chicken, duck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

collagen is hydrolyzed to _____

A

gelatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

why must tough cuts of meat be cooked well done

A

they have more collagen which needs more time to be softened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

why do meat surfaces become brown

A

breakdown of pigments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

heat _____ globin

A

denatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

when meats are heated, iron is _______

A

oxidized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

why are cured meats pink

A

nitrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what types of cuts should be cooked with dry heat

A

tender cuts such as backbone, loin, sirloin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are dry heat cooking methods

A

frying, broiling, roasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is “carry-over cooking”

A

after roasting, meat is removed from oven and for about 10 minutes internal meat temp will rise 15-25 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

how long should a roast stand before carving

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what types of cuts should be cooked with moist heat

A

less tender cuts with more connective tissue, tough cuts (round, chick, brisket)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

how should a bottom round be cooked

A

in water for several hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what are moist heat cooking methods

A

braising, simmering, steaming, stewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

_______ enzymes such as _____ tenderizes meat

A

proteolytic, papain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

fresh fish with head attached should have ______ red gills, _____ skin

A

bright, shiny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is surimi

A

purified and frozen minced fish with a preservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

egg yolk is a naturally occurring _______

A

oil in water emulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

a good quality egg is indicated by what

A

high proportion of thick white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

in an egg, what becomes larger with age

A

air space within the egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what holds an egg yolk in the center

A

chalazae (yolk anchor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what vitamins/minerals is egg rich in

A

vitamin A, D, riboflavin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is color of yolk dependent on

A

amount and type of pigment in a hen’s diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what are grades of eggs

A

AA, A, B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

grading of eggs is based on what

A

thickness of white, location and condition of yolk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is candling

A

passing an egg in front of bright light to view contents, helpful when grading and judging quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what are the sizes of eggs

A

jumbo, xl, large, medium, small, peewee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

how long can egg freshness be maintained in cold storage (29-32F)

A

6 months

94
Q

a fresh egg will _________ in a pan of cold water and has a ______ shell

A

sink to the bottom, dull and rough

95
Q

at what temperature does protein coagulate

A

62-70 C

96
Q

what is syneresis

A

weeping, liquid released from a coagulated product

97
Q

when does syneresis occur

A

when cooked at too high of a temp or too low of a temp for a long time - leads to tough, watery product

98
Q

what will stiffen an egg white foam

A

acid - it will tenderize the protein and allow it to extend more easily

sugar will also stabilize egg white foams

99
Q

how are egg white foams compared

A

measure specific gravity (relative density of a substance in relation to that of water)

weight of given volume / weight of same volume in water

100
Q

egg whites at room temperature whip more quickly and yield a larger volume due to _______ surface tension

A

lower

101
Q

what helps an egg yolk act as an emulsifier

A

lecithin

102
Q

what stabilizes the egg yolk emulsion

A

lipoproteins

103
Q

why do eggs yolks yield stiffer, more stable emulsions than egg whites

A

they have more protein by weight

104
Q

what can hasten coagulation in egg cooking

A

vinegar and salt

105
Q

why do egg yolk surfaces turn green when overcooked or cooled to slowly

A

iron from the yolk and sulfur from the whole egg create ferrous sulfide

106
Q

in dry heat cooking of eggs, what will result from undercooking

A

excess shrinkage

107
Q

in dry heat cooking of eggs, what will result from overcooking

A

tougher product

108
Q

the larger the % sag, the ______ tender the gel

A

more

109
Q

egg substitutes are often ______ in sodium

A

higher

110
Q

what differences occur when using egg substitutes

A

color and flavor differences

111
Q

dried eggs are ____ % white, ____ % yolk

A

70, 30

112
Q

dried eggs can be vacuum packed in what

A

nitrogen gas

113
Q

what is added to improve foaming ability in bakers special eggs

A

sucrose

114
Q

if eggs are stored in the fridge for too long, whites become _____, yolks ______, and odors are ______

A

watery, flatten, absorbed

115
Q

if eggs are stored in the fridge for too long, ______ and ______ is lost

A

water and carbon dioxide

116
Q

loss of carbon dioxide causes eggs to be more _______

A

alkaline

117
Q

milk is a good source of what vitamins and minerals

A

calcium, phosphorus, riboflavin

Vitamin A, D

118
Q

milk is not a good source of what mineral

A

iron

119
Q

what is the % composition of milk (water, macronutrients)

A

87% water, 3.7% fat, 4.9% cho (lactose), 3.5% protein (complete hbv)

120
Q

the protein in milk is ____ % casein

A

80% (precipitated at ph 4.6, forms soft curd)

121
Q

liquid that drains from curd of clotted milk is known as what

A

whey

122
Q

how is milk pasteurization done

A

heat to 145 F for 30 min or 160 F for 15 seconds

123
Q

what is the purpose of pasteurization

A

destroy pathogenic bacteria

124
Q

name the components of whey (5)

A

lactose, lactalbumin, lactoglobulin, water soluble vitamins, minerals

125
Q

types of milk

high pressure breaks fat globules to 1/5 regular size; film of protein surrounds each globule; more susceptible to action of lipase, but the pasteurization process destroys lipase

A

homogenized

126
Q

types of milk

400 USP units added per quart of milk by feeding the cow this vitamin, irradiating the milk, or adding the vitamin

A

vitamin D milk - must be labeled

127
Q

name the 4 concentrated milks

A 
evaporated milk (60% water removed) 
sweetened milk (add 15-18% sucrose or glucose)
dried whole milk (26% fat, does not keep well) 
dried skim milk (not more than 1.5% fat, keeps well)
128
Q

name the 3 fermented milks

A

cultured buttermilk
sweet acidophilus
kefir

129
Q

2% milk has ______ % fat, low fat milk has _____ % fat, and skim milk has ______ % fat

A

1.5-2.25%
.5-2%
<0.5%

130
Q

in cultured buttermilk, add ____ ____ bacteria to skimmed or partly skimmed milk

A

lactic acid bacteria

131
Q

in place of using buttermilk in place of regular milk in a recipe, increase ________

A

baking soda

132
Q

sweet acidophilus milk (skim milk + sweet acidophilus bacteria) reduces ______

A

lactose

133
Q

the coagulated product of fermentation of milk sugars by lactic acid bacteria is known as

A

yogurt

134
Q

when milk is heated, what happens to they whey protein?

A

it precipitates out on bottom of pan or on surface of milk

135
Q

how do you prevent milk from curdling?

A

add an acid slowly and agitate

136
Q

in milk, an acid precipitates _______

A

casein

137
Q

butter is 80% __________ and margarine is 80% ___________ or ____________

A

milk fat

vegetable oil or animal fat

138
Q

does butter or margarine turns rancid as it takes up oxygen an releases hydrogen

A

butter

139
Q

what are the types of cream

A 
heavy or thick 
medium 
whipped cream 
light or thin 
sour cream 
half and half
140
Q

which creams have the highest fat content

A

heavy or thick >36% fat
medium 30-36% fat
whipped cream 35% fat

141
Q

during cheese production, what enzyme is added, which coagulates casein and forms curd

A

rennet

142
Q

what are the 3 types of cheese

A

uncured (cottage cheese)
cured (additional whey removed, salt added, ripened)
processed (blend of several natural cheeses)

143
Q

what is the emulsifier added to processed cheese

A

disodium phosphate- makes cheese better for cooking; fat will not spread out

144
Q

what are the main structural parts of grains and cereals

A

starchy endosperm rich in protein
outer layer of hull and bran
scutellum within the germ - contains most of thiamin

145
Q

what vitamins and minerals are found in grains and cereals

A

vitamin E (in germ), thiamin (scutellum), riboflavin, phosphorus

146
Q

grains are ____% starch, ___ % fat found in the germ, and contain ______ proteins

A

75%, 2%, partially complete

147
Q

what is the inner portion of a wheat kernel called

A

farina

148
Q

quick-cooking cereals have ________ added

A

disodium phosphate - makes cereal alkaline so particles swell faster
avoid this on low sodium diets

149
Q

strength of gluten and protein content have a negative or positive relationship

A

negative - the stronger the gluten, the more protein; the weaker the gluten, the less protein

150
Q

name the 8 different wheat flours

A 
graham
bread (hard wheat)
all-purpose (blend of hard and soft wheat)
pastry (soft wheat) 
cake (soft wheat) 
enriched (with B vits, iron and folic acid)
instant blending
self-rising
151
Q

place the following flours in order from strongest gluten and most protein to weakest gluten and least protein: all-purpose, cake, pastry, bread

A

bread (strong gluten, 11.8% pro)
all-purpose (less gluten, 10.5% pro)
pastry (weaker gluten, 7.9% pro)
cake (least and weakest gluten, more starch, 7.5% pro)

152
Q

what is gluten made from and what does it do

A

it is made from gliadin and glutenin through process of hydration and mixing
it gives elastic properties, forms framework, holds in leavening agent

153
Q

what is the color of flour due to

A

carotenoids

154
Q

if an oxidizing agent is added to flour, what is it labeled as

A

bleached - natural agents cause oxidation and turn flour from creamy yellow to white

155
Q

adding bran increase or decreases volume of end product

A

decrease - increase flour and liquid to compensate

156
Q

name 3 leavening agents

A

steam
air
carbon dioxide (from yeast, baking soda, baking powder)

157
Q

how do you incorporate air into baked flour mixtures

A

beat, sift, fold, cream

158
Q

what does the action of yeast on sugar yield

A

carbon dioxide and alcohol

159
Q

________ is produced from the action of acid on baking soda

A

carbon dioxide

- acids include sour milk, cream of tartar, molasses

160
Q

baking soda + a dry acid + corn starch =

A

baking powder

161
Q

baking soda provides

A

carbon dioxide

162
Q

cornstarch keeps contents ____

A

dry

163
Q

a dry acid reacts with baking soda to release

A

carbon dioxide

164
Q

a dry chemical leavening agent used to increase the volume and lighten the texture of baked goods - it works by releasing carbon dioxide gas into a batter or dough through an acid-base reaction, causing bubbles in the wet mixture to expand and thus leavening the mixture

A

baking powder

165
Q

what are 3 types of baking powder

A

tartrate, phosphate, combination

166
Q

use ____ tsp baking powder per ___ cup flour

A

1 1/2 tsp baking powder per 1 cup flour

167
Q

old baking powder becomes more alkaline causing loss of _______ in baked goods

A

thiamin

168
Q

_____ keeps yeast from sticking in baked flour mixtures

A

salt

169
Q

_____ provides stability, retains leavening agent, distributes shortening by emulsification, introduces air, adds color and flavor in baked flour mixtures

A

egg

170
Q

____ adds tenderness by coating gluten products particles in baked flour mixtures

A

fat

171
Q

______ is hydroscopic, it modifies texture by tenderizing, and it softens gluten and prevents gluten development by absorbing some of the water that gluten needs

A

sugar

172
Q

too much sugar in a flour mixture results in

A

coarse cells, thick walls, a shiny crust and a crumbly product

173
Q

most of the sugar in honey is ____ and _____

A

glucose and fructose

174
Q

term used to distribute fat into dry ingredients

A

cut-in

175
Q

method of mixing used in foams- a down, across, up and across the top motion while rotating bowl

A

fold

176
Q

_______ are leavened with steam, air, chemical leavening agents
ex: muffins, biscuits, popovers

A

quick breads

177
Q

2 basic ingredients in quick breads are

A

egg and flour

178
Q

excess mixing causes what

A

loss of carbon dioxide, tunnels from top to bottom, tough and heavy product

179
Q

characteristics of a good muffin

A

round
pebbled top
pymmetrical shape
no long, narrow tunnels

180
Q

method of mixing cake

A

cream fat with sugar, add egg, add sifted dry ingredients in portions, alternating with portions of milk

181
Q

2 types of cakes

A 
shortened cake (layer, pound cake, etc.) 
foam cake (angel cake)
182
Q

shortened cake uses _____ as leavening agent, while foam cake uses ____ as leavening agent

A

chemical leavening; air

183
Q 
shortened cakes:
layer cake uses \_\_\_\_\_
pound cake uses \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_
rich cakes uses increased \_\_\_, \_\_\_, \_\_\_
gold cake uses egg \_\_\_\_\_
white cake uses egg \_\_\_\_\_
yellow cake uses \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_
A 
baking soda
air and steam 
fat, sugar, egg 
yolks
whites 
whole egg
184
Q

foam cakes:
angel cake: ___ ___ foam
sponge cake: ____ foam and ____ foam
chiffon cake: ____, ____, ____ and ____

A

egg white foam
yolk foam and white foam
liquid yolks, egg white foam, baking powder, oil

185
Q

in cake, the more _____ the more time is needed to reach the elevated coagulation temperature of the gluten

A

sugar
*as sugar increases, the volume of cake increases up to the point where the volume is so great, and the gluten so weak, that the gluten stands snap and the cake falls in the center (gummy, crystalline appearance)

186
Q

yellowing of cake is caused by

A

alkaline batter (excess baking soda)

187
Q

fallen center of cake may be caused by

A

excess sugar, excess fat, excess baking powder, inadequate mixing, oven temp too low, open door during early baking

188
Q

tough, dry crumb of cake is caused by

A

too much flour or egg, too much mixing, too little fat or sugar, over-baking

189
Q

coarse texture in cake is caused by

A

too much baking powder or sugar, oven temperature to low, inadequate mixing

190
Q

poor volume in cake is caused by

A

too little baking powder, improper level of sugar or fat

191
Q

cookies are a modified shortened cake, which are higher in ___ and lower in ____ and ____

A

higher in fat

lower in sugar and liquid

192
Q

pastries involve ____, ____, ____ and ____

A

flour, fat, liquid and salt

193
Q

lard and oil are ___% fat, butter is ___% fat

A

100%; 80%

*when substituting butter for lard, need to use more

194
Q

how is the tenderness in pie crust enhanced

A

by using oil, soft fats, or fat cut into very small pieces

195
Q

how is flakiness of a pastry promoted

A

by leavening fat in coarse particles. Fat in pieces melts and flows, leaving a hole where steam collects and pushes upward against the upper surface of the resulting cell. the cell is locked into that extended position, resulting in a flaky crust

196
Q 
proportion of liquid to flour parts in the following: 
pour batter (ex. waffles) 
drop batter (ex. muffins)
soft dough (bread) 
stiff dough (ex. pie crust)
A

liquid to flour

1: 1
1: 2
1: 3
1: 4

197
Q

Use high protein bread flour in __________

A 
yeast dough 
(low protein flour causes crumbly products with poor texture)
198
Q

what does yeast do

A

ferments sugar and releases carbon dioxide

199
Q

which method of preparing dough involves all ingredients being added before dough is allowed to rise

A

straight dough method

200
Q

which method of preparing dough involves combining liquid with yeast and part of flour and allow this batter (sponge) to ferment for several hours; add sugar, salt, fat, rest of flour; knead

A

sponge dough method

201
Q

which method of preparing dough:

  • reduces processing time
  • not as affected by fermentation time and temp
  • commercial process that substitutes intense mechanical energy to a large degree for traditional bulk fermentation
A

continuous bread-making method

202
Q

what is the final rising of the dough (fermentation) called

A

proofing time

  • shortened in sponge method
  • use strong flour, high in protein (bread flour)
203
Q

when baking at high altitudes, you may have to decrease amount of ________ and increase amount of _______

A

baking powder, liquid

204
Q

starch is compose of _____ and _____

A

amylose and amylopectin molecules

205
Q

______ is responsible for gelation in cooled, cooked pastes

A

amylose

206
Q

corn, rice and sorghum have only ______

A

amylopectin

  • non-gelling; stable to freezing and thawing
  • used in frozen foods
207
Q

place the following starches in order of the effectiveness of thickening ability:
wheat, waxy rice, tapioca, waxy sorghum, potato, waxy corn

A

potato (best thickener), waxy corn, waxy rice, waxy sorghum, tapioca, wheat

208
Q

wheat _____ is even less effective than pure wheat ______ because of the protein content

A

flour; starch

209
Q

pastry and cake flour have more starch and less gluten, so they thicken (better or worse)

A

better

210
Q

________ is the swelling that occurs when starch is heated in water close to the boiling point

A

gelatinization

*heat dissociates bonds, water moves in and swells granules

211
Q

during gelatinization, sugar increases ________ and reduces _____ and ______

A

translucency; viscosity; gel strength

212
Q

what happens if lemon juice (acid) is added to lemon meringue pie before cooking is complete and why

A

filling will be runny because acid breaks down starch and will give a runny product

213
Q

what occurs in starches with a high proportion of amylose and is undesirable (reduced quality)

A

retrogradation (recrystallization)

-gives a gritty texture

214
Q

what white sauce is half fat, half flour made by first melting the fat and adding flour

A

roux

215
Q

to get a clear, shiny, translucent sauce, use ______ as thickener

A

cornstarch

216
Q

name 3 crystal inhibitors (in crystallization)

A

acid (cream of tartar, vinegar)
fat (chocolate, milk)
protein (milk, egg whites, gelation)

217
Q

overrun ice cream is the increase in volume from ______ and ______

A

freezing and whipping

218
Q

how does fat interfere with crystal formation

A

it makes crystals small and smooth

*to make smoother ice cream, increase fat

219
Q

gelatin
___ calories per gram
incomplete protein with no _____, and low ____ and ____

A

4 kcal/g
no tryptophan
low in methionine and lysine

220
Q

an enzyme in fresh or frozen pineapple the breaks down protein and prevents gelation

A

bromelain

221
Q

for best flavor, coffee should be brewed at ____ F

A

185-203 F

*at high temps, tannin is extracted and coffee is bitter

222
Q

the FDA controls ______

A

additives (emulsifiers, humectant, stabilizers, anti-caking, nitrates etc.)

223
Q

monoglycerides
diglycerides
lecithin
disodium phosphate

all examples of what

A

emulsifiers

224
Q

gylcerol monostearate is what

A

humectant - retains h20

225
Q

propionate is what

A

preservative; mold inhibitor

226
Q

______ foods provide more benefits than the basic nutritional benefits

A

functional foods

227
Q

functional food that reduces total and LDL cholesterol; found in fortified margarines

A

plant sterols and stanol esters

228
Q

functional food that is found in grape juice and red wine; reduces platelet aggregation

A

resveratrol

229
Q

functional food that is found in tomatoes; may reduce prostate cancer

A

lycopene

230
Q

biologically active, naturally occurring chemical components in plant foods, act as natural defense for the plant - these are called what

A

phytochemicals

231
Q

example of a phytochemical; from the cruciferous vegetables; detoxification of carcinogens

A

thiols

232
Q

the additive influence of foods and constituents which, when eaten, have a beneficial effect on health

A

food synergy

Inman RD Exam General Knowledge (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions