Distribution of Wealth and Inequality Flashcards
What is equity in economics?
Equity means fairness in the overall distribution of income and wealth.
Is the market system fair?
No, we will discuss different ways of thinking about inequality and its measurement.
What does distrubtion mean?
spread the product throughout the marketplace ( whether everyone can access the product/service.
What is income again in the general equilibrium model?
aij = talent of producing good
pj = price
so aij x price = wage rate
Looking at income in the general equilibrium model, what can we say about it in terms of distrubtion?
There is nothing natural within the market system, that equalizes income, the distubtion of income that occurs is a function of wages, there is no way the market moves towards equality, as it depends on talents and scarity of things people produce.
To summarise again So we said that there is nothing that equalises income, as?
prices are determined by supply and demand, so there is no reason to think that the market system will tend towards equality.
Summarising what are the 4 things from last week that determine distribution of income in general equilibrium?
1) Distrubtion of endownments ( property rights)
2) Market prices
3) Distubtion of talents ( if talent is high demand, you get higher price)
4) Distubtion of effort ( labour supply)
Data we have on income inequality is not a good reflection of the income inequality because what and what are remedies to this ?
Complicated by the fact that people live in a mutli-person household, thus doesn’t show at individual level, but household level ( including children)
Remedy of this is that data now uses equivalized income ( adjusting for household composition)
What is inequality mostly explained by?
Inequality is mostly explained by disturbtion of wages ( last lecture showed this), distrubtion is similar to income.
What are 2 ways to measure inequality?
Lorenz curve and Gini coefficient.
What does Lorenz curve represent, what are the axes and draw a line of equality?
Lorenz curve represents income distribution.
Y axis is share of income ( 0-1)
X axis share of people. (0-1)
A line of equality, means equal society = income equlivalised ( 50% of households have 50% of income.
So if 70% have more than 70% income there is inequality
What is equivalised income?
Equivalised income is the total household income that’s been recalculated to take into consideration differences in household demographic composition and size. If households show identical equivalised incomes, their standard of living can be said to be equal.
Now draw a lorenz curve that shows the y axis ( share of income), x axis ( share of people), a line of perfect equity and a line of not perfect equity and what does the gap show? What does this mean if the lorenz curve you draw is closer or away from the line of equality?
e.g. the first 10% of people own less than 10% of the income in society ( hence inequality)
The closer the lorenz curve to the line of perfect equality the more equal the distribution of income is, and the further away the lorenz curve is from the lone of perfect equality the more unequal the distribution of income is.
Why does the lorenz curve always go through the axes (0,0 ) and (1,1)?
100% of population owns 100% of income and 0% of population have 0% of income.
What is the Gini coefficient and show the quadrants of it on the lorenz curve attached?
What are is the link between Gini coefficient and Lorenz curve?
Gini coefficient converts lorenz curve into a number, which tells us how much distance there is between lorenz curve and line of perfect equity.
0 = perfect equality ( no area B)
1 = Perfect inequality ( means last person owns all the income)
What does this say and what would happen if curves intersect?
Here shows, lorenz dominance, every point of distrubtion, the share of the population is getting a smaller share of income. If the curves intersect we cannot say Lorenz dominance, hence we look at Gini coefficient.
In problem sets and exams, we will not be likely to be given quadratic functions to draw lorenz curve, but linear, so what does it mean for the lorenz curve?
It will be linear.
What is the formula for gini coefficient and how is it composed?
m bar is average income AND mi is your income
M is individuals in population and ordered poorest to richest
People’s income get weighted by a rank ( the more weight you get the lower income)
In words its the weighted average of the gaps between your income and average income, weighted by your rank in the income distribution.
In general again income disturbtion is a product of what, is it the only source of income differences?
It is a by-product of the market system.
Labour markets are not the only source of income differences, e.g. firms use capital , natural resources and tech, and own them, which they can have a patent, which they can sell and make money.
In last weeks class we were thinking about the impact of a productivity change and we see the impact on disturbtion, how does this feed through via price changes, the distrubtion of income and also utility. What did we find?
If B is less productive, price of that good goes up, so A has less utility. and income falls for B.
So far what have we done?
We have thought of ways to measure income inequality, as we can typically measure, if income is what we care about then there isn’t straightforward issues measuring peoples incomes( adjusting for family size, what we count for income extra)
Last term we focused on people maximising utility, is utility the same as income because if its not and we think utility is the thing we should be caring about then is their a risk that things we say about income, is not going to translate immediately to thing we care about, utility. So if i asked a question who is better of between 2 individuals, how would we do this?
It would probably be a judgement based on income, it could be utility, but its all value judgement
Now we are going to go on from now that we care about utility inequality in terms of welfare and not income, what is the standard assumption we make about utility? What is the problem of this?
It is ordinal ( we cannot compare utility, it can look at relative things, but not absolute judgements)
If we are studying social welfare, we need to be able to compare the ultity of individuals. ( this is important ( especially in policy making) , because any policy advice will have some who gain and some who lose, and unless you can provide advice on are the benefits to gainers bigger or smaller to the loses to the losers, you will not be much help to a policy maker, just pointing out their are gainers and losers. )
In policy can there be a science of welfare as utility is ordinal so we cant compare ultity?
In small scale policy, there might be gainers and losers and so economists might wish to say which policy is best and worst without getting into how much people gain and loses .
What is the difference between ordinal and cardinal utility and what is income?
Ordinal utility = so we can only say something is better or worse but not by how much
Cardinal utility = allows us to think about how much better or worse off something is.
Income is a cardinal measure of utility.
What is the maxmin princple?
According to this principle the system should be designed to maximize the position of those who will be worst off in it
One thing to notice is that interpersonal comparisons is quite separate from ordinality and cardinality.
ordinal comparability = we can say whether someone is better or worse
o§ than some else but not by how much ( this is all that is needed for maxmin ( we need to identify whos first off not if they are 10 times worse off )
cardinal comparability = we can measure how much better o§ or worse
o§ someone is than someone else
What is a basic reason to use income and not use income for a measure of welfare?
Income is cardinal and comparable across individuals.
Problem lets say one person works 60 hours a week and one doesn’t work 60 hours a week but gets samem income, income says they are equally well off, but there is a disultiy of work, hence they might not well off.
According to consumer theory what would be the demands of this cobb douglas preferences weighted by parameter n
By plugging in optimal consumption into ultity function, what is utility function?
So utility not proportional to income, but proportional to income raised to the power 1-aida, hence this is a ulitiy function concave in income. HENCE DIMISIHING MARGINAL UTLITY OF INCOME.