Behavioural Economics II Flashcards
What is behavioural economics?
The economics of real humans. It provides a way of bringing economics and psychology closer together.
Is the assumption of maximising utility right?
consumers do not always do stuff that maxmise their utility, they tend to do activities that present a negative internality on oneself.
What is the problem of dealing with biases in decision making?
It really depends on the poor decision, because if people are eating a little bit of unhealthy food, do you stop this.
In general equilibrium what did we assume about consumers choices?
consumer sovergithy -the consumer has some controlling power over goods that are produced, and the idea that the consumer is the best judge of their own welfare.
Now we are going to draw an edgeworth box with possibility of behavioural biases, which will yield a pareto inefficient allocation. Firstly what did the edgeworth box in week the general equilibrium show?
It modelled decision utility which generates consumption bundles.
Now we are going to draw an edgeworth box with possibility of behavioural biases, which will yield a pareto inefficient allocation. Suppose there are 2 individuals, and 2 goods and each individual has endownments of each good, so now show the denotation the 2 goods, but not showing whether its individual A or B so hint you will write J E {A,B}
Then show that individuals can have endownments of both goods, but they have a share of them and use j.
How we going denote utility function for the decision utility and experience utility ( Also use J)
If consumer A is behavioural how will we show this?
Do we know a priori which in which direction a market will be distorted by behavioural biases?
No we cannot say what the implied distortion might be (there may be things that are good 4u in experience utility sense that you don’t buy or could be the opposite)
Now draw a basic edgeworth box where individual A and B trade, through the prices determined in equilibrium which clear the market and are trading at a pareto efficient point ( this is showing decision utility). Show the original endownments where individual A as more of good 1 then individual b and individual b has more of good 2 than individual A>
Now suppose there is a diveregence between decision utility and experience utility, can we make a pareto improvement now?
Its possible now if we use experience utility from equilibrium point using decision utility to move in a north west direction ( according to experience utility) and generate a pareto efficient improvement. There the old equilibrium point is no longer pareto efficient, as its based on decision utility.
How do we know that the old equilibrium was not pareto efficient?
The old point there is now pareto inefficient because pareto improvement is possible, we don’t need both agents better off! we only need 1 to be bettter off ( A) and B to not be worse off ( B indifference curve stays the same). SO THEREFORE EQUILBRIUM PRICES AND CONSUMPTION DECISIONS BASED ON DECISION UTLITY ARE NO LONGER PARETO EFFICIENT.
What have we lost because of the divergence between experience and decision utility?
The first fundamental welfare thereom, as markets work on the basis of decision utility but we are measuring individuals welfare based on experience utility.
Does the divergence between experience and decision ultiy as shown on edgeworth box have equity implications
If there are groups of people ( individual A) who are making bad decisions means that individual A is not as well off as she expects given decision utility.
What is a culumative disturbtion function and what is uniform distrubtion?
Are used to calculate area under the curve to the left from the point of interest
Uniform distrubtion = every result is equally likely.
Now we are going to create a model to explore government intervention, suppose there are 2 goods food (good 1) and gym membership(good 2)
food is normalise at one and gym membership costs p. gym membership is a discrete good, so you either by or not ( we are going to study who buys gym membership with or without behavioural biases, if they do not buy gym membership all their income is spent on food but firstly what are peoples preferences?
If delta = 0 you don’t buy gym membership, if its =1 you buy membership, u is the value of gym membership and x = food.
u is a range of valuations of gym membership in the population
What is the budget constraint of consumer who has endowment m of food which they can consume or trade for gym membership? what are we assuming about m
M is large enough so everyone can buy food and a membership.
What is the utility of buying a gym membership and what is utltiy of not?
When will you buy a gym membership?
Utility of buying a gym membership = u - p + m ( you get ultity for going but you have to reduce income -p. )
Ultity of not going gym = m ( consume all income on food .
You buy gym membership when your valuation is higher than price.
We want to show a cumulative distribution of valuations of gym membership which is what?
G(u) = is tells how many people have a
valuation less than or equal to u
What is the demand for gym membership? remember those who buy gym membership have a valuation greater than price, how does it look on graph?What does it mean if price goes up
1 - G(p) ( where G(p) is the proportion who don’t want to go gym whos valuation are less than p. As G(p) is an increasing function, its a downward sloping function ( if price goes up there will be people who go and buy a gym membership, as there will be more people who have a valuation of gym membership less than high p)