Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RMC Patho Exam 2 > Disorders of Cardiac Function, Heart Failure, Circ. Shock > Flashcards

Disorders of Cardiac Function, Heart Failure, Circ. Shock Flashcards

1
Q

The pericardium is a

A

Double layered serous membrane surrounding the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In between the two layers of the pericardium is the

A

Pericardial sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The pericardial sac contains

A

Serous fluid (about 50 mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pericarditis is

A

An inflammatory process of the pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acute pericarditis is

A

Pericardial inflammation of less than 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The most common cause of acute pericarditis is

A

Viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acute pericarditis is often associated with

It allows what?

A

Increased capillary permeability

> > Allows plasma proteins to leave capillaries and enter the pericardial space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute pericarditis leads to fibrin exudate that

A

Heals or progresses to scar tissue and forms adhesions between the layers of serous pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the triad of acute pericarditis?

A

The three symptoms

Chest pain
Pericardial friction rub
ECG changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do most patients describe the pain of acute pericarditis?

A

Abrupt in onset
Sharp (may radiate to the neck, back, abdomen, or side)

Acute = Abrupt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An effusion is the

A

Accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A sudden accumulation of ___ mL may raise intracardiac pressure to levels that

A

200 mL

Seriously limit the venous return to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cardiac tamponade results in

A

Increased intracardiac pressure
Reduced diastolic filling
Reductions in stroke volume (SV) and cardiac output (CO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Manifestations of an effusion

A

May be asymptomatic unless abrupt

|&raquo_space; Then there are signs of decreased cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cardiac tamponade is very serious since

A

The heart can’t fill or eject properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cardiac tamponade is very serious since

A

The heart can’t fill or eject properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cardiac tamponade is tachycardia or bradycardia?

A

Tachycardia

The heart is surrounded by fluid so it has limited space to pump; it tries to make up for limited space by pumping faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do each of the following respond in cardiac tamponade?

  1. Cardiac contractility
  2. Central venous pressure
  3. Jugular vein: distended
  4. Systolic BP: falls/decreases
  5. Pulse pressure
  6. Heart sounds

Plus, signs of …

A
  1. Increased
  2. Elevated
  3. Distended
  4. Falls/decreases
  5. Narrows
  6. Muffled

Circulatory shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In constrictive pericarditis what develops and where?

A

Fibrous, calcified scar tissue develops in the pericardial sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In constrictive pericarditis, the scar tissue ___ and interferes with ____

A

Contracts and interferes with diastolic filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes of constrictive pericarditis are

A

Radiation
Cardiac surgery
Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A prominent early finding of constrictive pericarditis is

Other manifestations are

A

Ascites (fluid collects in abdomen)

Pedal edema
Dyspnea on exertion
Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The coronary arteries supply what to where?

A

Oxygenated blood to the myocardium (heart muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CAD stands for

A

Coronary artery disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CAD is caused by

A

Impaired coronary blood flow

In most cases, caused by atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CAD can cause

A

> Myocardial ischemia (obstructed blood flow to heart
muscle) and angina (severe pain in chest)
MI/heart attack
Cardiac arrhythmias
Conduction defects
Heart failure
Sudden death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Atherosclerosis causes ____ that can ____

A

Plaque that can obstruct blood flow

Can eventually lead to thrombus formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Two types of plaque are

A

Stable (fixed)

Unstable (vulnerable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does stable plaque do?

Implicated in what?

A

Obstructs blood flow

Stable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Unstable plaque can ___ and cause ___

Implicated in what?

A

Rupture and cause platelet adhesion and thrombus formation

Unstable angina and MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Plaque disruption can occur ___ but is often triggered by ___

A

Spontaneously

Hemodynamic factors (increased BP, HR, cardiac contractility, and coronary blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Plaque disruption occurs most frequently during the first hour upon awakening, suggesting that

A

Physiologic factors* may promote atherosclerotic plaque disruption and platelet deposition

*such as surges in coronary artery tone and blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List the four steps of thrombosis and vessel occlusion

A
  1. Plaque disruption - involves lipid core, smooth muscle cells, macrophages, collagen
  2. Tissue factor released
  3. Coagulation pathway initiated
  4. Thrombin is generated and fibrin deposited
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ACS stands for

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ACS includes

A

UA (unstable angina)
Non-ST-segment elevation MI (NSTEMI)
ST-segment elevation MI (STEMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two key factors that help distinguish between UA, NSTEMI, and STEMI?

A

ECG changes

Biomarkers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ECG changes that occur with ACS involve

A

T-wave inversion
ST-segment elevation
Development of an abnormal Q wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ECG changes vary depending on

A

Duration
Extent
Location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ST segment elevation indicates

A

Myocardial ischemic injury (STEMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If there is no ST segment elevation, but they have other signs of an MI, that’s considered

A

NSTEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Serum biomarkers for ACS include

A

Cardiac-specific troponin I (TnI) and troponin T (TnT)

Creatinine kinase MB (CK-MB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What happens when myocardial cells become necrotic?

A

> Intracellular components are released into surrounding tissue, then picked up into circulation

> These biomarkers are noted in a blood draw/lab work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Troponin rises within ___

May remain elevated for ___

A

3 hours

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CK-MB rises within ___

Returns to normal in ___

A

4-8 hours

2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Between UA, NSTEMI, and STEMI, which two are very similar?

A

UA and NSTEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

List the five phases of UA/NSTEMI

A
  1. Unstable plaque ruptures or erodes with nonocclusive thrombosis
  2. Obstruction due to spasm, constriction, dysfunction, or adrenergic stimuli
  3. Severe narrowing of the coronary lumen
  4. Inflammation
  5. Physiologic state causing ischemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pain in UA/NSTEMI is

Has at least one of three factors

A

Persistent and severe

  1. Occurs at rest, lasting more than 20 minutes
  2. Severe and described as flank pain and of new onset (i.e., within 1 month)
  3. More severe, prolonged, or frequent than previously experienced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Is ST-segment elevated in either UA or NSTEMI?

A

No, it is depressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the difference between UA and NSTEMI?

A

UA: negative for serum biomarkers
NSTEMI: Positive for serum biomarkers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The principal biochemical consequence of STEMI is

A

Conversion of aerobic metabolism to anaerobic metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

STEMI results in

A

Inadequate energy for normal myocardial function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In regards to STEMI: what occurs at each of the following intervals?
60 seconds
Within minutes
20-40 minutes

A

Contractile function is lost in 60 sec.
Ischemic area non-functioning within minutes
Irreversible damage/necrosis in 20-40 min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

STEMI chest pain is described as

It is located where?

A

Constricting or suffocating

Substernal, radiating to the left arm, neck, or jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Is STEMI pain relieved by rest or nitroglycerin?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Other than pain, what are some manifestations of STEMI?

A 
Gastrointestinal (GI) complaints
Sensation of epigastric distress
Nausea and vomiting
Fatigue/weakness (esp. arms and legs)
Anxiety, restlessness, and feelings of impending doom
Productive cough (frothy, pink sputum)
Skin - pale, cool, and moist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Females experiencing STEMI have

A

Atypical ischemic-type chest discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The elderly experiencing STEMI complain of ___ more frequently than chest pain

A

SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In Myocardial ischemia, the blood flow through coronary arteries do not meet what?

A

The metabolic demands of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Myocardial ischemia is most commonly a result of

What else may be involved?

A

Atherosclerosis

Vasospam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Chronic stable angina is associated with

A

A fixed coronary obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In stable angina, does blood meet the demands of the body?

A

No, it does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are some precipitating factors of stable angina?

A

Increased demands of the heart

> such as physical exertion, exposure to cold, and emotional stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the characteristics of stable angina pain?

A

Steady constricting, squeezing, or suffocating

> increases in intensity only at the onset and end of the attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where is stable angina pain located?

A

Commonly located in the precordial or substernal area of the chest
> May radiate to the left shoulder, jaw, arm, or other areas of the chest

65
Q

Chronic stable angina is provoked by ___ and relieved by ___

A

Provoked by exertion or emotional stress

Relieved within minutes by rest or nitroglycerin

66
Q

What are the three categories of stable angina?

These three denote what?

A
  1. Occurs at rest
  2. New onset
  3. Increasing in intensity or duration

A risk for MI

67
Q

Infective endocarditis (IE) is a

A

Life-threatening infection of inner heart surface, heart valves and endocardium affected

an infection of the inner lining of the heart muscle

68
Q

IE occurs with valvular issues such as

A

Prolapse
Prosthetic heart valves
Implantable devices

69
Q

The leading cause of IE is

Other causes are

A

Staphylococcal infections

Streptococci and enterococci

70
Q

The major factor leading IE is

A

Seeding of the blood with microbes

71
Q

The portal of entry for IE may be an _____, or a _____

A

An obvious infection

A dental or surgical procedure

72
Q

______ _______ and ______can incite the formation of a thrombus along the endothelial lining

The thrombus is susceptible to

A

Endothelial injury, bacteremia, and altered hemodynamics

Bacterial seeding

73
Q

In IE, what forms on heart valves?

A

Vegetative lesions

74
Q

The vegetative lesions formed in IE are a collection of

As the lesions grow, they cause

A

Infectious organisms
Cellular debris
Fibrin strands

Valve destruction

75
Q

IE presents with

A

Fever and signs of systemic infection
Change in heart murmur
Evidence of embolic distribution of vegetative lesions

76
Q

In IE, small petechial hemorrhages frequently result when emboli lodge in the

A

Small vessels of the skin, nail beds, and mucous membranes

77
Q

Rheumatic heart disease (RHD) can develop into

A

Chronic valvular disorders that cause permanent dysfunction

78
Q

RHD is a complication of ___ and a possible ____

A

Streptococcal throat infection

Immunologic response

79
Q

RHD is an immune mediated response to

A

Group A (beta-hemolytic) streptococcal (GAS) throat infection

80
Q

Most patients with rheumatic fever (RF) have a history of

A

Sore throat, headache, fever, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, swollen glands
> Like strep throat

81
Q

The most common and the first manifestation of RF is

A

Polyarthritis

82
Q

Polyarthritis affects

A

One joint and moves to another

83
Q

Acute rheumatic carditis can affect

A

The endocardium, myocardium, or pericardium

84
Q

Subcutaneous nodules occur in the

A

Wrist, elbow, ankle, and knee joints,

85
Q

Erythema marginatum are

A

Lesions on trunk, upper arm, thigh

86
Q

Sydenham chorea presents with

A

Irritability, behavior problems, involuntary activities

87
Q

RHD/RF are associated with what conditions?

A 
Polyarthritis
Acute rheumatic carditis
Subcutaneous nodules
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham chorea
88
Q

Function of the heart valve is to narrowing of the valve orifice and failure of the valve leaflets to open normally

A

Promote unidirectional blood flow through the heart

89
Q

Dysfunction of the heart valves results from

A 
Congenital defects
Trauma
Ischemic damage
Degenerative changes
Inflammation
90
Q

The most commonly affected valves are

A

The mitral and aortic valves

91
Q

Two types of mechanical disruptions occur with valvular heart disease

A

Stenosis

Regurgitation

92
Q

Stenosis is the

How does this effect the chamber emptying through the narrowed valve?

A

Narrowing of the valve orifice and failure of the valve leaflets to open normally

It increases the volume and the work of the chamber emptying through the narrowed valve

93
Q

Regurgitation occurs when

This causes

A

The valve does not close properly, permitting backward flow of blood

The blood to flow back into the emptying chamber

94
Q

Manifestations common to most mitral and aortic valvular disorders (if progressed) are

A

Murmur

Manifestations associated with left ventricular failure and pulmonary congestion
> Dyspnea
> Orthopnea (Discomfort when breathing while lying down flat)
> Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (a sensation of shortness of breath after 1-2 hrs of sleep)
> Fatigue

95
Q

Heart failure is a complex syndrome resulting from ___ that results in manifestations of

A

Any function or structural disorder of the heart

Decreased cardiac output and/or pulmonary or systemic congestion.

96
Q

List some disorders that can cause heart failure

A

CAD (Coronary Artery Disease)
Hypertension
DCM (Dilated Cardiomyopathy)
Valvular heart disease

97
Q

Systole is ventricular

A

Ejection (normal is 70 ml ~ 2.5 ounces)

98
Q

Diastole is ventricular

A

Filling (normal is 110 ml ~ 4 ounces)

99
Q

Stroke volume is the

This is the difference between

A

Amount of blood ejected with each heartbeat

End-diastolic and end-systolic volumes

100
Q

Ejection fraction (EF) is the fraction of

Remember the formula

A

The volume ejected at the end of diastole

Stroke volume/end-diastolic volume = EF

101
Q

Cardiac output is the

It is the product of (formula)

A

Amount of blood pumped each minute

```
Stroke volume (SV) and heart rate (HR
CO = SV x HR)
~~~

102
Q

Pre-load is the

A

End-diastolic pressure when the ventricle has been filled

103
Q

Afterload is the

A

Work post contraction required to move blood into the aorta

104
Q

With heart failure, the CO

A

Does not meet the body’s demands

105
Q

Heart failure is categorized as _________ and _________

A

Systolic vs. Diastolic

Right vs. Left ventricular dysfunction

106
Q

What is a normal EF?

A

55% - 70%

107
Q

Systolic dysfunction is when

Preload is increased/decreased

Blood accumulates in the

A

The ventricle cannot eject an adequate cardiac output
(EF < 40%)

Increased

Pulmonary veins

108
Q

Increased preload can lead to

A

Accumulation of blood in the atria and the venous system (which empties into the atria), causing pulmonary or peripheral edema

109
Q

In diastolic dysfunction, EF is ____ but left ventricle doesn’t ______ which reduces _______

Blood accumulates in

A

Preserved
Fill adequately during diastole
Cardiac output

The pulmonary venous system

110
Q

Causes of diastolic dysfunction are

A

Increased age, female gender, hypertension

111
Q

Right ventricular dysfunction results in

Because of this, there is a congestion of blood in

A

The inability to move blood from systemic venous circulation to the pulmonary circulation

The systemic venous system

112
Q

The major effect of right ventricular dysfunction is

A

Peripheral edema

113
Q

If you had a patient with right ventricular dysfunction, what would you expect to see?

A 
Peripheral edema
Dependent edema and ascites
GI tract congestion
Anorexia/Weight loss
GI distress
Liver congestion
Impaired liver function.
114
Q

Left ventricular dysfunction impairs the

This ______ cardiac output

A

Movement of blood from pulmonary circulation to arterial circulation

Decreases

115
Q

In left ventricular dysfunction, blood accumulates in

A

The left ventricle, left atrium, and pulmonary circulation

116
Q

If you had a patient with left ventricular dysfunction, what would you expect to see?

A 
Activity intolerance and signs of decreased tissue perfusion
Cyanosis and signs of hypoxia
Cough with frothy sputum
Orthopnea
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
117
Q

Manifestations of heart failure depend on

A

Extent and type of dysfunction

118
Q

What is a frequent cause of sudden cardiac decompensation?

A

A dietary excess of sodium

119
Q

Respiratory manifestations are due to congestion of

A

Pulmonary circulation

120
Q

Exertional dyspnea is

A

Perceived shortness of breath when related to increased activity

121
Q

Orthopnea is

A

Shortness of breath when supine

122
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the

A

Sudden attack of dyspnea during sleep

123
Q

Cheyne Stokes respiration is a

Characterized by

A

Pattern of periodic breathing

Gradual increase in depth (and occasionally rate) of breathing to a maximum, followed by a decrease resulting in apnea

124
Q

Acute pulmonary edema is where the

A

Capillary fluid moves into alveoli

life threatening!

125
Q

A patient with acute pulmonary edema would present with

Fatigue, Weakness, and Mental Confusion are due to

A

Pulse is rapid
Skin is moist and cool
Lips and nail beds are cyanotic

Decreased CO

126
Q

Nocturia is

A

A nightly increase in urine output that occurs relatively early in the course of heart failure.

127
Q

Oliguria is

A

Decrease in urine output as a late sign related to severely reduced CO and resultant renal failure

128
Q

What causes cardiac cachexia and malnutrition?

A

Fatigue & depression interfering with food intake
Congestion of the liver and GI structures impairing digestion and absorption
Producing feelings of fullness
Circulating toxins and mediators released from poorly perfused tissues that impair appetite and contribute to tissue wasting.

129
Q

Cyanosis is the

A

Bluish discoloration of skin and mucous membranes

130
Q

Cyanosis is caused by

A

Excess desaturated hemoglobin in the blood

131
Q

Arrhythmias and Sudden Cardiac Death are due to

A

Interruption of normal electrophysiology of heart caused by altered structure and hypoxemia

132
Q

Circulatory shock is an acute failure of the circulatory system to

A

Provide adequate oxygen to body tissues

133
Q

Most immediate compensatory mechanisms are

What is the lifespan of these mechanisms?

A

Sympathetic nervous system
Renin release

They are not effective over the long term and become detrimental

134
Q

In sympathetic nervous system mechanism, what happens?

A

Blood vessels vasoconstrict
Heart rate increases
Myocardial muscle contracts
Bronchioles relax

135
Q

Renin release results in an increase in ___ which contributes to

A

Angiotensin II, augmenting vasoconstriction

Aldosterone-mediated increase in sodium and water retention by the kidneys

136
Q

What are the different types of shock?

A

Cardiogenic
Hypovolemic
Distributive
Obstructive

137
Q

In cardiogenic shock, the heart fails to

A

Pump blood sufficiently to meet the body’s demands

138
Q

The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is

A

Myocardial Infarction

139
Q

Clinical manifestations of cardiogenic shock are

A 
Hypoperfusion w/ hypotension
Lips, nailbeds & skin cyanotic
Arterial and Systolic BP decrease
Decreased urine output
Neurologic changes (alterations in cognition or consciousness)
140
Q

In cardiogenic shock, decreased CO and SV leads to

Eventually ___ is impaired

A

Compensatory mechanisms like HF

Coronary artery perfusion

141
Q

In hypovolemic shock there is an acute loss of

This is caused by the

And what kicks in?

A

15-20% of circulating blood volume

Loss of whole blood, internal hemorrhage, third-space losses

Compensatory mechanisms

142
Q

In hypovolemic shock, manifestations are due to

A

Compensatory mechanism

143
Q

The early signs of hypovolemic shock are

Other manifestations are

A

Thirst
Increased HR
Decreased urine output
Change in mentation

Cool and Clammy skin, decreased arterial BP, metabolic acidosis, coagulopathy, hypothermia, circulatory failure

144
Q

Distributive shock is also called

A 
Vasodilatory shock
Normovolemic shock (blood volume remains normal)
145
Q

Distributive shock is characterized by

A

Loss of blood vessel tone
Enlargement of the vascular compartment
Displacement of the vascular volume away from the heart and central circulation

146
Q

What are the three types of distributive shock?

A

Neurogenic
Anaphylactic
Septic

147
Q

Neurogenic shock is caused by

A

Decreased sympathetic control of blood vessel tone

148
Q

Examples of neurogenic shock

A 
Spinal shock (occurs in people w/ spinal cord injury)
Fainting as a result of emotional causes
General anesthetic agents (can cause a neurogenic shock–like reaction)
149
Q

Anaphylactic shock represents the

A

Most severe systemic allergic reaction

150
Q

Examples of anaphylaxis are reactions to

A

Medication (penicillin)
Foods
Venoms
Latex

151
Q

Sepsis is

Septic shock is

A

Suspected or proven infection, plus a systemic inflammatory response syndrome

Severe sepsis with hypotension

152
Q

Septic shock results in the release of

A

Pro-inflammatory and anti-inflammatory mediators

153
Q

Some manifestations of neurogenic shock are

A

Lower HR, in contrast to other types

Dry and warm skin

154
Q

Some manifestations of anaphylactic shock are

A 
Abdominal cramps
Apprehension
Warm or burning sensation of the skin
Itching, hives
Coughing, choking, wheezing
Chest tightness
Difficulty breathing
155
Q

Some manifestations of septic shock are

A 
Hypotension
Warm flushed skin
Decrease in systemic vascular resistance (in contrast of other types)
Hypovolemia
Reduced cerebral blood flow
156
Q

Obstructive shock results from

A

Mechanical obstruction of blood flow in central circulation

157
Q

Some causes of obstructive shock are

Which is the most common?

A 
Dissecting aortic aneurysm
Cardiac tamponade
Pneumothorax
Atrial myxoma
Evisceration of abdominal contents in to the thoracic cavity due to ruptured hemidiaphragm
Pulmonary embolism ***MOST COMMON***
158
Q

In obstructive shock, there is elevated _____ because of impaired _______

A

Right heart pressure

Impaired right ventricular function.

159
Q

If a patient came in with obstructive shock, you’d expect to see

A

Signs of right ventricular heart failure

> > Such as elevated central venous pressure and jugular venous distention

RMC Patho Exam 2 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions