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MBChB YR2 Dermatology > Disease Profile: Other > Flashcards

Disease Profile: Other Flashcards

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Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

Describe the first line management of mild-moderate acne

A

Topical treatment for 3/12 then review - benzoyl peroxide or retinoids +/- topical antibiotic

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2
Q

Name three drugs associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)

A

Antibiotics (penicillin, sulfonamides, cephalosporins), carbamazepine, phenytoin

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3
Q

Why is biotin important?

A

Essential co-factor for carboxylase enzymes

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4
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of vitamin B2 deficiency

A

Cheilosis, angular stomatitis, painful red dry tongue

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5
Q

What is acute generalised exanthematous pustulosis?

A

Drug reaction involving widespread rash with numerous small, non-follicular, sterile pustules around the neck, axillae and groin

Usually starts a few days after drug exposure and resolves with peeling

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6
Q

What is discoid eczema?

A

Ezcema which occurs in circular or oval patches, patients often atopic, very often infected

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7
Q

Describe the management of a drug eruption

A

Discontinue drug if possible

Topical steroids may help

Antihistamines may help if type I or with symptoms of itch

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8
Q

Name 3 options for the management of eczema in secondary care

A

Phototherapy - mainly, systemic immunosuppression, biological agents (for atopic - target IL-4/IL-13)

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9
Q

Why is skin prick testing not first line for testing of allergy if it is more specific and sensitive?

A

Anaphylaxis risk

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10
Q

Describe the clinical features of a type II allergic adverse drug reaction

A

Cytotoxic reactions - pemphigus and pemphigoid

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11
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of contact irritant dermatitis

A

Non-specific physical irritation rather than a specific allergic reaction e.g. soap, water, cleaning products, water, nappy rash, ‘lip-lick’ chelitis

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12
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of acne

A

Non-inflammatory lesions (comedones) - blackheads and whiteheads

Inflammatory lesions - papules, pustules, cysts, nodules on an erythematous base

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13
Q

When are mild topical steroids indicated in psoriasis?

A

Flexural disease, palmar plantar disease and scalp psoriasis

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14
Q

What occurs in the allegic stage of a type I hypersensitivity (allergy)?

A

On re-exposure to allergen, the allergen will bind to IgE coated mast cells → cell degranulation (release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators)

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15
Q

What is a cutaneous drug eruption?

A

Adverse drug reaction of the skin - can be immunologically mediated (allergic) or non-immulogically medicated (non-allergic)

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16
Q

How would you manage a patient under 12 with mild-moderate acne which has not improved after 3 months of topical therapy?

A

Erythromycin or clarithromycin BD

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17
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of acute eczema

A

Papulovesicular, erythematous lesions, itch, ill-defined, oedema, ooze/scaling/crusting

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18
Q

What causes venous (stasis) dermatitis?

A

Incompetent veins in the leg, commonly due to increased venous pressure by obesity, leak RBCs into the tissue resulting in swelling, haemosiderin, pigmentation and inflammation

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19
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of psoriasis

A

Symmetrically distributed, red scaly plaques with well-defined edges, itching

Commonly on scalp, elbows and knees

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20
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for atopic eczema?

A

Itching + 3 or more of:

Visible flexural rash

History of flexural rash

Personal/family history of atopy

Generally dry skin

Onset before age 2

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21
Q

What should all patients with type I hypersensitivity (allergy) be given to use in the event of anaphylaxis?

A

Adrenaline autoinjector

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22
Q

How would you define acne that consists of scattered comodones, papules and pustules?

A

Mild

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23
Q

What is the safest method of investigating a type I hypersensitivity (allergy)?

A

Specific IgE blood test

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24
Q

What are target lesions?

A

Annular shaped macules that are raised with a red rim and centre with a wedge of normal skin inbetween; feature of erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis

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25
Q

Which investigation would you perform in suspected contact allergic dermatitis?

A

Patch testing

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26
Q

When would you consider a wound swab of a leg ulcer?

A

If ulcer increasingly painful/exudate/malodour/enlarging

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27
Q

How would you define acne that consists of numerous papules, pustules and mild atrophic scarring?

A

Moderate

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28
Q

What is sebopsoriasis?

A

Overlap of seborrhoeic dermatitis and psoriasis, affects scalp, face, ears and chest, colonised by malassezia

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29
Q

Describe the clinical features of a type IV allergic adverse drug reaction

A

T cell-mediated delayed hypersensitivity reactions - erythema/rash

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30
Q

Name three drugs associated with acneiform drug eruptions

A

Glucocorticoids (steriod acne), androgens, lithium

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31
Q

When is dithranol indicated in psoriasis?

A

Short contact regiments for stable chronic plaque disease

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32
Q

Describe the histology of lichen planus

A

Irregular sawtooth acanthosis

Hypergranuloss and orthohyperkeratosis

Band-like upper dermal infiltrate of lymphocytes

Basal damage with formation of cytoid bodies

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33
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of a dermatofibroma

A

Unchanging firm lesion, skin-coloured or brownish

Occasionally itchy

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34
Q

Where is acne most common and why?

A

Distribution reflects sebaceous gland sites - face, upper back, anterior chest

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35
Q

When would you consider systemic treatment in mild-moderate acne?

A

Poor response to topical treatment at 3 month review

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36
Q

How may you identify the drug behind a cutaneous drug eruption if the causative drug is not obvious from history/examination?

A

If suspect phototoxic drug reactions - phototesting

Biopsies can identify type of drug reaction and exclude other diseases

Patch and photopatch test, skin prick testing

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37
Q

How might you investigate a suspected dermatofibroma if you aren’t certain enough to diagnose clinically?

A

Dermoscopy, biopsy

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38
Q

What causes dyshidriotic eczema (pompholyx eczema)?

A

Occurs when there is a very sudden acute flare up of eczema and the spongiotic vesicles join together, resulting in the formation if intensely itchy tiny blisters developing in the hands and feet

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39
Q

What is the second-line treatment for a patient with type I hypersensitivity (allergy)?

A

Corticosteriods

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40
Q

When is systemic (immune) therapy indicated in psoriasis?

A

Severe or non-responsive disease

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41
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of venous ulcers

A
  1. Elevation of venous pressure in the legs e.g. by abdominal obesity which resists venous return from the legs
  2. Veins dilate and valves become incompetent, varicose veins develop
  3. Increased hydrostatic pressure in the vessels → red blood cell leakage into the tissue resulting in swelling, haemosiderin, pigmentation and inflammation
  4. The skin cannot heal well due to poor blood supply, so begins to break down
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42
Q

What lifestyle advice would you give to a patient with type I hypersensitivity (allergy)?

A

Allergen avoidance

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43
Q

What causes arterial leg ulcers?

A

Insufficient blood supply due to peripheral vascular disease

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44
Q

Name three drugs associated with drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)

A

Sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, allopurinol

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45
Q

What is nodular pruigo?

A

Skin condition characterised by very itchy firm lumps, associated with atopic eczema; more common in black people

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46
Q

Describe the histology of acute eczema

A

Inflammatory infiltrate (lymphocytes) in the upper dermis, spongiosis, vesicles

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47
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of fixed drug eruptions

A

Well demarcated round/ovoid plaques

Can present as eczematous lesions, papules, vesicles or urticaria

Red, painful

Occur on hands, genitalia, lips, occasionally oral mucosa

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48
Q

What occurs in the sensation stage of a type I hypersensitivity (allergy)?

A

Production of specific IgE by B cells (helped by T cells) in response to initial allergen exposure, residual IgE antibodies bind to circulating mast cells via Fc receptors

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49
Q

Describe the clinical features of photo-induced/photosensitive eczema

A

Caused by a reaction to UV light so there is usually a well defined edge e.g. cut-off collar

Patients often atopic

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50
Q

Name three patient risk factors for a cutaneous drug eruption

A

Young adults, female, concomitant disease

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51
Q

Describe the clinical features of adult eczema

A

Generalised dryness and itching, hand eczema may be the primary manifestation

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52
Q

How would you manage moderate eczema?

A

Moderate topical steroid e.g. betamethasone valerate 0.025%, if face affected start with mild steroid

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53
Q

Where do the majority of venous ulcers tend to occur?

A

Gaiter area

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54
Q

Why is vitamin B2 important?

A

Essential co-factor in numerous metabolic reactions

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55
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of phototoxic drug reactions

A

Drug metabolites interact with UV light (usually triggered by UVA) → free radical release → direct tissue or cell injury → severe rash

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56
Q

Name three drugs associated with drug-induced bullous pemphigoid

A

ACE inhibitors, penicillin, furosemide

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57
Q

What is small plaque psoriasis?

A

Plaques <3 cm, often late set of onset

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58
Q

When is phototherapy indicated in psoriasis?

A

More severe or widespread disease, first line for guttate psoriasis

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59
Q

Which patient group are dermatofibromas more common in?

A

Immunosuppressed patients

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60
Q

What is eczema herpeticum?

A

Disseminated viral infection (herpes simplex) characterised by monomorphic punched-out lesions; most commonly seen as a complication of atopic eczema

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61
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of contact allergic dermatitis

A

Type IV hypersensitivity (T cell) reaction to external antigen e.g. nickel, chemicals, topical therapies, plants

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62
Q

Name a drug which can trigger linear IgA disease

A

Vancomycin

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63
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of vitamin K deficiency

A

Bleeding tendency, seen in the skin as purpura and easy bruising

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64
Q

Which patients with psoriasis should use emollients?

A

Should be used by all patients

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65
Q

What is drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)?

A

Widespread erythema, facial oedema, fever, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly which usually starts 2-6 weeks after initial exposure

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66
Q

Name two endocrine disorders which predispose to acne

A

PCOS, hyperandrogenism

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67
Q

How would you investigate vitamin K deficiency?

A

Measure coagulation and serum vitamin K

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68
Q

Which physical findings are associated with phototoxicity caused by quinine, thiazides, demeclocycline?

A

Exaggerated sunburn

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69
Q

How would you define acne that consists of numerous papules, pustules, severe atrophic scarring, cysts, nodules?

A

Severe

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70
Q

What is rosacea?

A

Chronic inflammatory skin disease that may be triggered by a number of factors e.g. alcohol, stress

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71
Q

Which investigation is used to confirm anaphylaxis?

A

Serum mast cell tryptase level

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72
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of type I hypersensitivity (allergy)

A

Urticaria, angioedema, wheeze/asthma, anaphylaxis

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73
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of vitamin A deficiency

A

Keratotic follicular papules on the thighs and upper arms, dry skin

74
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of rosacea

A

Recurrent facial flushing followed by erythema with papules and pustules (rash)

75
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of vitamin B6 deficiency

A

Dermatitis of face, scalp, neck, shoulders, buttocks and perineum, glossitis

76
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of biotin deficiency

A

Hyperkeratosis around hair follicles, bent hairs, inflamed gums, poor wound healing

Fatigue, malaise, muscle and bone pain

77
Q

Describe the management of severe cystic acne

A

Commence systemic antibiotic therapy and refer immediately for consideration of systemic isotretinion treatment (roaccutane)

78
Q

Describe the clinical features of a type III allergic adverse drug reaction

A

Immune complex mediated reactions - purpura/rash

79
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of atopic eczema

A

Defective skin barrier allows access/sensitisation to allergen and promotes colonisation by microorganisms

80
Q

Name three drug risk factors for a cutaneous drug eruption

A

Chemistry - β-lactam compounds, NSAIDS, high molecular weight/hepten-forming drugs

Topical route

Higher dose/longer half-life

81
Q

What is erythrodermic psoriasis?

A

May or may not be proceeded by another form of psoriasis, acute and chronic forms, may result in systemic illness with temperature dysregulation, electrolyte imbalance, cardiac failure

82
Q

What causes stasis (varicose) dermatitis?

A

Physical trauma to skin of the lower legs caused by increased hydrostatic pressure of the blood (venous insufficiency) resulting in extravasion of RBCs

83
Q

How would you investigate biotin deficiency?

A

Measure serum biotin

84
Q

Describe the effect of anaphylaxis on breathing

A

Bronchospasm (wheeze) with tachypnoea

85
Q

Describe the effect of anaphylaxis on circulation

A

Hypotension (+ collapse) and/or tachycardia

86
Q

Describe the effect of anaphylaxis on the airway

A

Pharyngeal or laryngeal oedema

87
Q

What is the third-line treatment for rosacea?

A

Isotretinoin

88
Q

What lifestyle advice would you give to a patient with rosacea?

A

Avoid triggers

89
Q

Which aspect of the history is very important in diagnosing a type I hypersensitivity (allergy)?

A

Consistent reaction with every exposure to allergen

90
Q

Describe the management of lichen planus

A

Topical steroid + antihistamine

91
Q

Why does acne occur at puberty?

A

Increased androgens at puberty which causes hypercornification and can also increase sebum production

92
Q

Name the most common lichenoid disorder

A

Lichen planus

93
Q

Mutations in which gene is associated with severe/early onset atopic eczema?

A

Mutations in fillagrin gene - involved in skin barrier function

94
Q

What is the Koebner phenomenon?

A

Appearance of new skin lesions on previously unaffected skin secondary to trauma; seen in eczema and psoriasis

95
Q

What is the second-line treatment for rosacea?

A

Topical therapies + oral antibiotics (doxycycline)

96
Q

Crusting of an eczema lesion indicates secondary infection by which organism?

A

Staph. aureus

97
Q

What causes psoriasis?

A

Inflammation triggered by environmental factors in genetically susceptible individuals (HLA genes)

98
Q

Describe the clinical features of a type I allergic adverse drug reaction

A

Anaphylactic reactions, urticaria

99
Q

What is chronic plaque psoriasis?

A

Psoriasis that is treatment resistant

100
Q

How would you manage mild eczema?

A

Topical steroid

101
Q

What is wound bed preparation with reference to a leg ulcer?

A

Removal of devitalized tissue by debridement, can be autolytic, sharp debridement, biological or surgical

102
Q

Describe the histology of psoriasis

A

Thickened epidermis with more keratin in the keratin layer, retention of nuclei in keratinocytes (parakeratosis), accumulation of inflammatory cells, particularly neutrophils, in the upper epidermis (micro-abscesses), elongated rete pegs

103
Q

What causes lichen simplex?

A

Physical trauma to skin - scratching

104
Q

Define a type I allergy

A

IgE-mediated antibody response to external antigen

105
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of an exanthematous drug eruption

A

Widespread symmetrically distributed rash 4-21 days after taking drug

Pruritus and mild fever common

Usually mild and self-limiting but can progress to a severe life-threatening reaction

106
Q

How would you investigate vitamin A deficiency?

A

Measure serum vitamin A

107
Q

Define psoriasis

A

Common chronic inflammatory dermatosis

108
Q

When would you consider a challenge test in diagnosis of allergy?

A

If skin prick test negative but history very convincing

109
Q

When should you aim to heal simple venous ulcers by?

A

12 weeks

110
Q

Name three features which indicate an exanthematous drug eruption may be severe (life-threatening)?

A

Involvement of mucous membrane and face, fever >38.5℃, facial erythema and oedema

111
Q

What is acrodermatitis enteropathica?

A

Autosomal recissive disorder resulting in insufficient zinc absorption

112
Q

Which patient group is most likely to develop rosacea?

A

More common in females, age 30-40 years

113
Q

Why is vitamin A important?

A

Responsible for epithelial proliferation, keratinsation and development

114
Q

How would you investigate vitamin B2 deficiency?

A

Measure the activity coefficient of erythrocyte glutathione reductase

115
Q

Name a medication sometimes used for asthma in the context of allergy

A

Mast cell stabilisers (e.g. sodium cromoglycate)

116
Q

Which physical findings are associated with phototoxicity caused by nalidixic acid, tetracyclines, naproxen, amiodarone?

A

Increased skin fragility

117
Q

Which physical findings are associated with phototoxicity caused by psoralens?

A

Delayed 3-5 days erythema and pigmentation

118
Q

What are phototoxic cutaneous drug reactions?

A

Non-immunological skin reaction arising in an individual exposed to enough photo-reactive drug and light of the appropriate wavelength

119
Q

List some general measures for the management of eczema

A

Remove potential triggers, avoid irritants, loose cotton clothing, emollients

120
Q

How would you manage severe eczema?

A

Potent topical steroid e.g. betamethasone valerate 0.1% on inflamed areas

For more sensitive areas moderate potency e.g. betamethasone valerate 0.025%

121
Q

Define a chronic leg ulcer

A

Open lesion between the knee and ankle joint that remains unhealed for at least 4 weeks

122
Q

How would you investigate underlying arterial disease in a patient presenting with a leg ulcer?

A

ABPI

123
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of vitamin B3 deficiency

A

Dermatitis, delirium, diarrhoea, death

124
Q

Describe the management of a leg ulcer

A

Pain control, de-sloughing agent if necessary, 4 layer compression bandaging

125
Q

Which physical findings are associated with phototoxicity caused by chlorpromazine, amiodarone ?

A

Immediate prickling with delayed erythema and pigmentation

126
Q

Name a disease associated with lichen planus

A

Hepatitis C

127
Q

Describe the clinical features of nail psoriasis

A

Pitting, onycholysis, yellowing and ridging

128
Q

What is guttate psoriasis?

A

Widespread small plaques most commonly after a streptococcal throat infection (strep throat), seen in patients 15-25, often resolves after several months

129
Q

What causes the majority of chronic leg ulcers (60-80%)?

A

Venous blood stasis

130
Q

Give three examples of immunological cutaneous drug reactions

A

Drug-induced alopecia, phototoxicity, atrophy due to topical steroids

131
Q

What is the Auspitz sign?

A

Bleeding points where surface scale of psoriasis is removed

132
Q

How would you treat telangiectasia + rhinophyma caused by rosacea?

A

Laser therapy

133
Q

What is the first-line treatment for rosacea?

A

Topical metronidazole

134
Q

Name two long term complications of rosacea

A

Rhinophyma (thickening of the skin), telangectasia

135
Q

What is palmoplantar psoriasis?

A

Psoriasis involving palms and/or soles with keratoderma and painful fissuring

136
Q

When would you consider skin prick testing for allergy?

A

If specific IgE negative but history convincing (suspect false negative)

137
Q

Which immune cells will be present in drug-induced eczema?

A

Eosinophils

138
Q

Where do the majority of arterial ulcers tend to occur?

A

The foot

139
Q

Why is vitamin K important?

A

Essential cofactor for several blood coagulation factors

140
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of acne

A

Increased androgens at puberty leads to hypercornification

Pilosebaceous units become plugged with keratin, and then become infected with corynebacterium acnes

Keratin and sebum build up to produce comedones

Rupture of comedones will cause the inflammatory lesions

141
Q

Name the hypersensitivity reactions associated with drug-induced eczema

A

Type I or Type IV

142
Q

What is the first-line treatment for a patient with type I hypersensitivity (allergy) after avoidance?

A

Anti-histamines

143
Q

Why is vitamin C important?

A

Required for many metabolic pathways

Required for structure and function of skin so vital for wound healing

144
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of acrodermatitis enteropathica

A

Infants develop diarrhoea, alopecia, dry/brittle hair and perioral, facial and acral dermatitis

145
Q

What is a dermatofibroma?

A

Proliferation of fibroblasts induced by reaction to insect bite/minor trauma

146
Q

Name three drugs associated with acute generalised exanthematous pustulosis drug eruptions

A

Antibiotics, calcium channel blockers, antimalarials

147
Q

What are lichenoid disorders?

A

Conditions characterised by damage to basal epidermis

148
Q

What is Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?

A

Life-threateing mucocutaneous drug reactions that are considered variants of a disease spectrum; they are characterised by varying extents of blistering/epidermal detachment and mucosal ulceration

149
Q

How would you investigate vitamin B3 deficiency?

A

Clinical diagnosis - diffifult to measure niacin levels

150
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of lichen planus

A

Itchy flat-topped violaceous papules on the flexor surfaces of wrist/forearm, ankles and legs

Oral lesions - lacy white lesions on the inside of the cheek

151
Q

What is flexural psoriasis?

A

Psoriasis that affects body folds and genitals in smooth, well-defined patches which are colonised by candida yeasts

152
Q

How would you manage a patient over 12 with mild-moderate acne which has not improved after 3 months of topical therapy?

A

Lymecycline OD OR doxycycline OD OR erythromycin/carithromycin BD

153
Q

Which physical findings are associated with phototoxicity caused by calcium channel blockers?

A

Exposed telangiectasia

154
Q

What are fixed drug eruptions?

A

Well demarcated round/ovoid plaques which recur at the same site each time a drug is taken and resolves with persistent pigmentation when drug stops

Can re-occur at same site on re-exposure to drug

155
Q

Name two lasting effects of chronic acne on the skin

A

Atrophic scars, skin hyperpigmentation

156
Q

Which regions are most commonly affected in infantile eczema?

A

Primarily involves face, scalp and extensor surfaces of the limbs, nappy area usually spared

157
Q

What is unstable plaque psoriasis?

A

The rapid extension of existing or new plaques induced by infection, stress, drugs, or drug withdrawal

158
Q

Why is vitamin B3 important?

A

Essential co-factor in numerous metabolic reactions

159
Q

How can diabetes lead to chronic leg ulcers?

A

Diabetes impedes the normal stages of wound healing

160
Q

Why is vitamin B6 important?

A

Co-enzyme for many processes

161
Q

What is the most commonly used location for coal tar in the treatment of psoriasis?

A

Scalp

162
Q

How would you investigate vitamin C deficiency?

A

Usually clinical diagnosis

163
Q

Which patient group is most likely to develop acne?

A

Age 12-24, family history

164
Q

What is acne?

A

Inflammatory condition of the pilosebaceous unit

165
Q

What causes seborrheic eczema (‘cradle cap’)?

A

Probably a reaction to babies skin being colonised by natural bacteria

166
Q

Describe the management of a dermatofibroma

A

Completely benign - reassure, no excision required

167
Q

How would you investigate zinc deficiency?

A

Measure serum zinc

168
Q

Define eczema

A

Spongiotic inflammation of the skin resulting in itchy skin lesions - similar clinical and pathological features but different pathogenic mechanisms (i.e. different causes)

169
Q

What are urticarial drug reactions?

A

Usually an immediate IgE-mediated (type I) hypersensitivity reaction after rechallenge with drug, commonly β-lactam antibiotics, carbamazepine

Can also be due to a direct release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells on first exposure, commonly aspirin, opiates, NSAIDs, muscle relaxants, vancomycin, quinolones

170
Q

What is the first line topical therapy for psoriasis?

A

Vitamin D analogues - calciptriol/calcitriol

171
Q

Why is vitamin C important?

A

Essential co-factor in collagen formation e.g. hair, and for bone and teeth health

172
Q

What are exanthematous drug eruptions?

A

Most common type of drug eruption involving a type IV reaction most commonly associated with antibiotics (beta-lactams, sulfonamides), NSAIDs, anti-epileptics (carbamazepine, phenytoin), alopurinol and chloramphenicol

173
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of chronic eczema

A

Thickening (lichenification), elevated plaques, increased scaling, excoriation, secondary infection

174
Q

Name two treatment options for psoriasis in secondary care

A

Phototherapy, immunosuppression/immune modulation

175
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of biotin deficiency

A

Rare - usually only seen in malabsorptive states or inadequate parenteral nutrition

Facial dermatitis, glossitis, alopecia

176
Q

How would you investigate vitamin B6 deficiency?

A

Measure serum or urinary Vitamin B6

177
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of acquired zinc deficiency

A

More common, may be due to increased elimination of zinc secondary to burns or infection

Dermatitic rash of hands and feet mainly

Growth retardation in children

178
Q

Which regions are most commonly affected in childhood eczema?

A

Predominantly flexural

179
Q

Name 4 drugs associated with fixed drug eruptions

A

Antibiotics (tetrecycline, doxycycline), paracetamol, NSAIDs and carbamazepine

180
Q

When would skin prick testing be contraindicated in a patient with a cutaneous drug reaction?

A

Serum sickness reactions (Type III) or for Type IV reactions

Those with severe cutaneous adverse drug reactions

181
Q

What would you advise a parent of a child with an allergy to do in the event of an acute allergic reaction?

A
  1. At first sign of reaction give chlorphenamine
  2. If allergic reaction does not resolve or gets worse over next 30 mins seek urgent medical help and give prednisolone
  3. If child becomes blue or collapses give adrenaline IV and call 999

MBChB YR2 Dermatology (23 decks)

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