digestive system Flashcards

1
Q

what is the name of the cavity in which abominopelvic viscera reside

A

peritoneum

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2
Q

describe how the 9 regions are derived from surface anatomy of bony landmarks

A

the trans-tubercular plane is formed along L5

the subcostal plane is formed along L3

two sagittal planes are formed along the two mid-clavicular lines

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3
Q

what are the 4 divisions of the abdominal cavity that can be used instead of the usual 9

A

right upper and lower quadrants
left upper and lower quadrants

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4
Q

where does the transpyloric plane sit

A

along L1

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5
Q

what viscera sits along the transpyloric plane

A

pylorus of the stomach (D1 and D-J flexure)

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6
Q

what are the four main layers of the GI tract

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis propria
serosa

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7
Q

what are the 3 ‘regions’ of the GI tract

A

foregut
midgut
hindgut

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8
Q

what blood vessel supplies the foregut

A

coeliac artery

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9
Q

what blood vessel supplies the midgut

A

superior mesenteric artery

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10
Q

what blood vessel supplies the hindgut

A

inferior mesenteric artery

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11
Q

from where to where does the foregut run

A

mouth to mid-duodenum

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12
Q

from where to where does the midgut run

A

mid-duodenum to 2/3 along transverse colon

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13
Q

from where to where does the hindgut run

A

2/3 along transverse colon to anus

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14
Q

where does pain in the foregut localise to

A

epigastric area

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15
Q

where does pain in the midgut localise to

A

periumbilical area

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16
Q

where does pain in the hindgut localise to

A

suprapubic area

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17
Q

what is the upper GI tract comprised of

A

oesophagus
stomach
duodenum

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18
Q

what is the function of the mouth in the upper GI tract

A

mastication/chew/mechanical breakdown

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19
Q

what is the function of the oesophagus in the upper GI tract

A

conduit

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20
Q

what is the function of the stomach in the upper GI tract

A

mechanical digestion (absorption)

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21
Q

what is the function of the duodenum in the upper GI tract

A

digestion (bile and pancreatic juice)
absorption

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22
Q

describe the oesophagus

A

muscular tube for peristalsis
mostly squamous epithelium
more distally = columnar epithelium
has the lower oesophageal sphincter

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23
Q

what three areas does the oesophagus run through

A

neck, thorax and abdomen

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24
Q

what is the gastro-oesophageal junction (GOJ)

A

oesophagus through diaphragm > enters cardia of the stomach

anatomically important to prevent reflux

histologically important as it goes from squamous to columnar epithelium

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25
Q

what can causes reflux

A

hiatal hernia

here, part of the stomach essentially goes through the diaphragm due to it being weakened > reflux

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26
Q

describe the stomach

A

4 regions
highly variable in shape and size
mechanical digestion
2 openings/curvature surfaces

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27
Q

what are the 4 regions of the stomach

A

cardia, fundus, body, pyloric region/antrum

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28
Q

what does the stomach do

A

digestion (pepsin/HCL acid)
absorption (H20, alcohol, aspirin)

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29
Q

what supplies blood to the stomach

A

it is part of the foregut so it is supplies by the coeliac trunk

it has two networks:
- R/L gastric artery of lesser curve
- R/L gastro-omental artery of greater curve

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30
Q

what are the 3 branches of the coeliac trunk

A

left gastric artery
common hepatic artery
gastroduodenal artery

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31
Q

what is superior and inferior to the stomach

A

omentum

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32
Q

what is anterior to the stomach

A

abdominal wall, diaphragm, liver left lobe

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33
Q

what is posterior to the stomach

A

pancreas, left kidney, spleen

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34
Q

what does the duodenum do

A

digestion (1L of bile which is produced by the liver and stored by the gall bladder and 1L of pancreatic juice)

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35
Q

describe the duodenum in relation to the peritoneum

A

1st and 4th parts are within the peritoneum

2nd and 3rd parts hide behind the peritoneum

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36
Q

describe the duodenum

A

starts at the Pylorus of the stomach

  • superior part in line with L1
    -descending part in line with L2
    -inferior part in line with L3
  • ascending part curves back up towards L2

ends at duodenojejunal junction

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37
Q

what is anterior to the duodenum

A

stomach

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38
Q

what is posterior to the duodenum

A

portal vein
super mesenteric artery
gastroduodenal artery

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39
Q

what is medial to the duodenum

A

pancreas
bile duct

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40
Q

what is lateral to the duodenum

A

right kidney

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41
Q

what can duodenal ulcers lead to

A

peptic ulcer disease > upper GI bleeding / perforation / peritonitis

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42
Q

describe the small bowel

A

consists of duodenum, jejunum, ileum
villi > increase SA
major site for digestion / absorption

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43
Q

what is the small bowel structurally comprised of

A

muscular tube
peristalsis (linked w the enteric NS)
slow progress of content
circular folds

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44
Q

what are the two junctions found in the small bowel

A

duodeno-jejunal junction to show the start of the Jejunum

ileo-caecal junction to show the start of the ileum

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45
Q

what supplies blood to the jejunum and ileum

A

SMA
- jejunal and ileal branches
- form arcades

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46
Q

what are the differences between the jejunum and ileum

A

jejunum has long vasa recta whereas ileum has short

jejunum has few large hoops of arcades whereas ileum has lots of small hoops

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47
Q

how does blood get drained from jejunum and ileum

A

jejunal/ileal veins >
drains into SMV >
joins splenic vein to form portal vein

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48
Q

what can cause small bowel obstruction

A

lumen - gallstones
wall - inflammation
extrinsic - adhesions / trapped in hernia

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49
Q

what is the large bowel comprised of

A

caecum and appendix
ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, anus

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50
Q

describe the appendix

A

blind ending tube connected to caecum

embryological remnant > no function

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51
Q

what is gastroenteritis

A

diarrhoea w or without abdominal pain, possibly w vomiting and fever

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52
Q

what is the primary function of the digestive system

A

transfer nutrients, water, and electrolytes from food into the internal environment

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53
Q

what are the accessory digestive organs

A

salivary glands
liver
gallbladder
pancreas

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54
Q

what is the function of salivary glands

A

secretions help in lubrication, anti bacterial and begin digestion

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55
Q

what is the function of the pancreas

A

vital for digestion, enzymes for all food categories and alkaline solution

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56
Q

what is the function of the liver

A

secretes bile continuously

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57
Q

what is the function of the gallbladder

A

bile storage

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58
Q

what is the function of the small bowel

A

digestion and most absorption

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59
Q

what is the function of the large bowel

A

completes absorption of water and electrolytes

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60
Q

describe the mucosa

A

3 layers:
mucous membrane - protective surface barrier, epithelial tissue w exocrine, endocrine and absorptive cells

lamina propria - middle layer of CT containing gut associated lymphoid tissue

muscularis mucosa - smooth muscle > contract > expose diff areas of surface folding

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61
Q

describe the submucosa

A

CT containing larger blood and lymph vessels and a nerve network (submucosal plexus)

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62
Q

describe the muscularis externa

A

major smooth muscle coat (circular and longitudinal layers

contains myenteric plexus

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63
Q

describe the serosa

A

outer CT which secretes serous fluid

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64
Q

what are the 4 physiological aspects of digestion

A

motility
secretion
digestion
absorption

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65
Q

what is motility

A

muscular contractions > propel and mix food

phasic smooth muscle
tone (constant low level contraction)

2 types of phasic digestive motility

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66
Q

what are the 2 types of phasic digestive motility

A

propulsive (peristalsis) which is a forward mvmt

mixing (segmentation) which mixes food in with digestive juices and exposes to absorptive surfaces

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67
Q

what is secretion

A

exocrine glands secrete digestive juices and endocrine glands secrete hormones
e.g salivary glands > amylase
stomach > pepsin
liver > bile

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68
Q

what is digestion

A

food is both mechanically and biochemically broken down into smaller units

this is done through hydrolysis in digestion of proteins, fats and carbs

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69
Q

what is absorption

A

small units are transferred into blood and lymph

carbs and proteins > Na+ dependent symport > blood

fats > passive process > lymph

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70
Q

what are the four regulatory functions of motility and secretion

A

autonomous smooth muscle function
intrinsic nerve plexuses
extrinsic nerves
gut hormones

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71
Q

what is the process behind autonomous smooth muscle function

A

non contractile interstitial cells of Cajal (‘pacemakers’) > est rhythmic and slow wave potentials that spread to smooth muscle

depolarisation = increase permeability to Ca2+

depolarisation = increase permeability to K+

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72
Q

what happens during smooth muscle contraction

A

increase intracellular Ca2+ conc > calmodulin > MLCK > myosin > actin myosin interaction > cross bridge cycling > contraction

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73
Q

what happens during smooth muscle relaxation

A

NO is released from enteric neurons > triggers cyclic GMP > stimulates PKG > myosin dephosphorylated > relaxation

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74
Q

what are intrinsic nerve plexuses

A

myenteric plexus - located b/w longitudinal and circular layers of muscles > control of digestive tract motility

submucosa plexus - main role of sensing luminal environment, regulating GI blood flow and controlling epithelial cell function

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75
Q

what are extrinsic nerves

A

originates from outside digestive system from ANS

acts on intrinsic nerves, hormone secretion and acting directly on effector cells

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76
Q

what are GI hormones

A

enteroendocrine cells in mucosa release hormones into blood > excite/inhibit smooth muscle and exocrine cells

e.g gastrin, secretin, motion

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77
Q

what happens during mastication

A

grind and break up food into smaller sizes
mix w saliva
stimulate taste buds

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78
Q

what does saliva do

A

washes particles away and acts as a solvent for taste

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79
Q

what does saliva contain

A

mucus, amylase, lingual lipase, lysozyme, bicarbonate buffer

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80
Q

what 2 reflexes causes an increase in salivation

A

pressure and chemoreceptors in the mouth > simple reflex

thinking of food, seeing food, smelling food > conditioned reflex

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81
Q

what is the pathway for increased salivation

A

salivary centre in medulla > autonomic nerves > salivary glands > increased salivation

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82
Q

what are the three stages of swallowing

A

oral stage (voluntary)
pharyngeal stage (involuntary)
oesophageal (involuntary)

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83
Q

what happens during the oral stage

A

tongue pushes portion of food to the back of the oral cavity

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84
Q

what happens during the pharyngeal stage

A

breathing stops and airways close

soft palate and uvula lifted to close nasopharynx

epiglottis is bent over airway as larynx is elevated

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85
Q

what happens during the oesophageal stage

A

pharynx muscles contract to force bolus into oesophagus

upper oesophageal sphincter opens when larynx is lifted and then closes as soon as bolus passes

peristalsis to push food down

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86
Q

what 2 sphincters are in the oesophagus

A

pharyngo-oesophageal (upper) which prevents excess air entering the GIT

gastro-oesophageal (lower) which keeps out stomach contents

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87
Q

what is primary peristalsis

A

preceded by pharyngeal phase, controlled by swallowing centre

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88
Q

what is secondary peristalsis

A

can occur without pharyngeal phase if oesophagus is distended

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89
Q

describe the anatomy of the stomach

A

muscular antrum
oxyntic mucosa (acid producing) in the body
pyloric gland area (mucus secreting)
pyloric sphincter is a barrier to small bowel

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90
Q

what are the functions of stomach

A

store food > release into SI at appropriate rate

secrete HCL and enzymes

create chyme (mix food w secretions)

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91
Q

how does gastric filling occur

A

the interior of the stomach has deep folds (rugae) which flatten during meals > increase from 50ml to 1L

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92
Q

what is receptive relaxation and when does it occur

A

relex relaxation of the stomach as it receives food where the folds flatten out > happens during gastric filling

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93
Q

what happens during gastric mixing

A

ICC create slow wave potentials > threshold in smooth muscle cells > peristalsis > mixing

pyloric sphincter closes tightly

contractions > mix food w secretions > liquid chyme

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94
Q

what happens during gastric emptying

A

constant tonic contraction of pyloric sphincter keeps it almost closed but open enough for fluids to pass through

small portion of chyme enters duodenum w each contraction

chyme hits closed pyloric sphincter and tumbles back into antrum to continue mixing and digesting

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95
Q

what factors increase antral motility and rate of emptying

A

volume of chyme and fluidity
distension

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96
Q

what factors inhibit antral motility

A

fat in the duodenum (slowly digested)

acid in the duodenum (chyme must be neutralised)

hypertonicity of duodenum

distension of duodenum

intrinsic nerve plexuses, autonomic nerves (neural response) and secretin and CCK (hormonal response) in duodenum

external e.g pain and emotion

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97
Q

what is the process behind emesis (vomiting)

A

deep respiration > glottis closed > uvula raised > stomach, oesophagus and gastroesophageal sphincter is relaxed > respiratory muscles contract > stomach squeezed b/w descending diaphragm > increased intra-abdominal pressure > salivation, sweating , rapid HR

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98
Q

what can cause vomiting

A

chemical factors
tactile stimulation at back of throat
irritation or distension of stomach and duodenum
visual cues

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99
Q

what are the 2 areas of gastric mucosa that secrete juices

A

oxyntic mucosa in the body and fundus

pyloric gland area in the antrum

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100
Q

what do exocrine cells in the oxyntic mucosa secrete

A

mucous cells (stimulated by contents) > alkaline mucus > lubricating, pepsin inhibited, alkaline secretion

chief cells (stimulated by ACh and gastrin) > pepsinogen > protein digestion

parietal cells (stimulated by ACh, gastrin, histamine) > HCL and intrinsic factor > HCL activates pepsinogen, kills microorganisms / intrinsic factor binds w vitamin b12 which is essential for normal function of RBC

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101
Q

what do endocrine cells in the pyloric gland area secrete

A

enterochromaffin-like cells (stimulated by ACh, gastrin) > histamine > stimulates parietal cells

G cell (stimulated by protein products, ACh) > gastrin > stimulates ECL, parietal and chief cells

D cell (stimulated by acid) > somatostatin >inhibits gastrin and acid secretion

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102
Q

what are the 3 phases of gastric secretion

A

cephalic phase
gastric phase
intestinal phase

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103
Q

what happens during the cephalic phase

A

sight, smell , taste or though of food > cerebral cortex stimulates parasympathetic NS > vagus nerve stimulates gastric secretion and motility by increasing muscle and gland activity

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104
Q

what happens during the gastric phase

A

stretch and chemoreceptors provide info (e.g distension or semi digested protein) > activates short and long reflexes and G cells

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105
Q

what happens during the intestinal phase

A

gastric secretion decreases as protein in the stomach is removed, pH falls very low in stomach, and food enters duodenum

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106
Q

digestion

A

body - semi solid mass of food > salivary amylase digestion of carbs can continue

antrum - food mass well mixed w HCL and pepsin

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107
Q

absorption

A

no food or water absorbed
SMALL amount of lipid soluble compounds can diffuse across cell membranes e.g ethanol

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108
Q

the small intestine is made of what 3 regions

A

duodenum (25cm)
jejunum (1-2m)
ileum (2-4m)

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109
Q

what two factors affect S.I motility

A

segmentation and migrating motility complex

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110
Q

what is segmentation

A

primary method of motility during digestion

circular smooth muscle contract for few seconds at a time and then relax (not move like a wave similar to peristalsis)

mixes and slowly propels chyme forward > ample time for digestion and absorption (decreased frequency of seg. along length of SI)

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111
Q

how is segmentation controlled

A

initiated by ICC (pacemaker) > threshold > contract

segmentation = slight/absent b/w meals but vigorous right after a meal

increase strength of contraction due to parasympathetic and decrease strength of contraction due to sympathetic

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112
Q

what is smooth muscle responsiveness altered by

A

distension, gastrin, nerve activity

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113
Q

how can neural control lead to contractions

A

ACh > binds to M3 receptors (which can be blocked by atropine) on ICCs and smooth muscle > open more ca+ channels > increased strength of contraction

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114
Q

what is the gastroileal reflex

A

chyme in stomach > gastrin secreted > gastrin acts on ileum smooth muscle > segmentation initiated at the same time as duodenum

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115
Q

what is migrating motility complex (MMC)

A

after meal mostly absorbed > repetitive peristaltic waves behind (seg. ceases)

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116
Q

what are the 3 phases of MMC

A

1 - 40-60 mins of relative quiet and few contractions

2 - 20-30mins w some contractions

3 - 5-10 mins of intense peristaltic contractions from upper stomach to end of SI

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117
Q

what is the overall function of MMC

A

sweeps meal remnants, mucosal debris and bacteria to colon

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118
Q

what controls MMC

A

b/w meals > SI endocrine cells secrete motilin (inhibited by feeding) > peristalsis

fasting continues > MMC repeats the phases again

119
Q

what is the ileocaecal juncture

A

barrier b/w LI and SI

contains ileocaecal valve and ileocaecal sphincter

120
Q

what does the ileocaecal sphincter do

A

under neural and hormonal control > relaxation on SI side > prevents contamination of small intestine by bacteria from colon

121
Q

what does the ileocaecal valve do

A

colon contents push it closed > pressure makes sphincter contract more forcefully

122
Q

what secretions occur in the SI

A

exocrine cells > succus entericus

mucus > lubrication

H2O > hydrolysis + liquid chyme

123
Q

how can secretion be increase

A

hormone secretin and enteric neutron stimulation

124
Q

what are the adaptations of the SI

A

all carbs, proteins, fats and most electrolytes, vitamins and water are absorbed indiscriminately

most absorption occurs in duodenum and jejunum

ileum > transport mech > absorption of bile salts + vitamin b12

mucosal > larger SA

epithelial cells > enzymes + transport mech

125
Q

how is SA increased of small bowel

A

circular fold > 3 fold
villus > 10 fold
microvilli (brush border) > 20 fold

126
Q

describe the structure of the villus

A

epithelial cells on surface
CT core > lamina propia
capillaries network + central lacteal

127
Q

what are crypts of lieberkuhn

A

invaginations > water + electrolyte secreted

crypt base > paneth cells > lysozymes and defensins

128
Q

describe the brush border structure

A

cores of microvilli extend into apical cytoplasm > cross linked w myosin

integral proteins > enzymes + channels > digestion + absorption of carbs + protein

129
Q

what enzymes exist in the brush border

A

enterokinase > activates proteolytic enzyme trypsinogen to trypsin

disaccharidases > digest disaccharides into monosaccharides

aminopeptidases > digest small peptide fragments into amino acids

130
Q

what is linked to Na+ absorption

A

absorption of h2o, nutrients and electrolytes

131
Q

how does Na+ transport occur

A

passive
> b/w cells thru tight junctions
>thru Na+ channel in membrane

active
> accompany another ion e.g Cl-
> accompany nutrient molecules e.g glucose
> exchange for another ion e.g H+

132
Q

what are the steps of CARB digestion and absorption

A
  1. polysaccharides > salivary amylase and pancreatic amylase > disaccharides >
  2. lactase, maltase, sucrase > monosaccarides >
  3. glucose/galactose enters cell by 2 Na+ and SGLT symporter
  4. fructose enters by facilitated diffusion (GLUT-5)
  5. glucose/galactose/fructose leaves cell by facilitated diffusion (GLUT-2)
  6. glucose/galactose/fructose diffuses into capillary
133
Q

what are the steps of PROTEIN digestion and absorption

A
  1. exogenous and endogenous proteins > pepsin + pancreatic proteolytic enzymes > small peptides and amino acids
  2. amino acids enter cells
  3. small peptides enter cell
  4. broken down into amino acids within cell (intracellular peptidases)
  5. exits cell by facilitated diffusion
  6. diffuses into capillary
134
Q

what are the steps for FAT digestion and absorption

A

1.large globes of dietary fat > emulsified by bile salts > small droplets

  1. lipase > hydrolyses triglycerides > free fatty acids + monoglycerides
  2. water-insoluble products > carried to epithelial surface in micelles
  3. monoglycerides + FFA passively diffuse thru cell membrane
  4. mono. + FFA resynthesised into triglycerides
  5. triglycerides > coated w lipoprotein > water soluble-chylomicrons
  6. chylomicrons leave cell by exocytosis
  7. chylomicrons enter central lacteal as they cannot fit in capillary due to size
135
Q

what is an example of disordered digestion

A

lactose intolerance

136
Q

what happens in lactose intolerance

A

absence of lactase in SI brush border
> undigested lactose in lumen creates osmotic drag for water > diarrhoea
> colonic bacteria > gas > distension and pain

137
Q

does pancreas have endocrine or exocrine tissue

A

it has both

exocrine > duct cells and acinar cells
endocrine > islets of langerhans

138
Q

what do duct cells secrete

A

sodium bicarbonate rich aqueous alkaline solution

139
Q

what do acinar cells secrete

A

pancreatic enzymes

140
Q

what are the 3 types of pancreatic enzymes and what do they act on

A

proteolytic > protein digestion
pancreatic amylase > carbs digestion
pancreatic lipase > fat digestion

141
Q

what are the major pancreatic proteases

A

trypsinogen (which is converted into trypsin by enterokinase)

chymotrypsinogen (which is converted into chymotrypsin by trypsin)

procarboxypeptidase (which is converted into carboxypeptidase by trypsin)

142
Q

what are some protective mechanisms of the pancreas

A

enzymes stored + release in inactive form

trypsinogen is activated to trypsin in duodenum

pancreas produces trypsin inhibitor

duodenum secretes mucus

143
Q

what does pancreatic amylase do

A

hydrolyses polysaccharides into disaccharides

144
Q

what does pancreatic lipase do

A

hydrolyses triglycerides into monoglycerides and FFA

145
Q

what is steatorrhoea

A

excess fat in faeces resulting from pancreatic insufficiency

146
Q

what does alkaline solution secreted from duct cells do

A

neutralises chyme by secreting NaHCO3- and absorbing H+

147
Q

outline the neutralisation regulation of pancreatic exocrine secretions

A

acid in duodenum > secretin released from duodenal mucosa > secretin carried by blood > stimulates pancreatic duct cells > increase secretion of NaHCO3 into duodenum > neutralised

148
Q

outline the digestive regulation of pancreatic exocrine secretions

A

fat and protein products in duodenum > CCK released from duodenal mucosa > CCK carried by blood > stimulates pancreatic acinar cells > increase secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes into duodenum > digestion

149
Q

what is the digestive role of liver

A

secretion of bile salts

150
Q

describe the blood flow to the liver

A

2 sources of reception: hepatic artery (from aorta) and hepatic portal vein

liver sinusoids - large expanded capillary spaces

hepatic vein leads from liver to IVC

151
Q

describe a hepatic lobule

A

blood flows from periphery to sinusoids to central vein (central veins converge to form hepatic vein)

bile secreted from hepatocytes to bile canaliculus to peripheral bile duct (bile ducts converge to form common bile duct)

152
Q

what is bile

A

secreted by liver continuously

contains bile salts, cholesterol, lecithin, bilirubin, aqueous alkaline fluid

diverted to gallbladder b/w meals

153
Q

what does the gallbladder do

A

storage of bile b/w meals

154
Q

how do gallstones form

A

crystals that have precipitated from components of bile

too much cholesterol, not enough bile

155
Q

how does bile get to duodenum

A

gallbladder/liver > bile duct > sphincter of oddi (regulates when contents from bile duct is released into duodenum > duodenum

156
Q

how doe bile salts facilitate fat digestion and absorption

A

emulsification (digestion)
micelles (absorption)

157
Q

how does emulsification work

A

hydrophobic heads of bile salts bury into lipid droplet while hydrophilic tails stick out > electrical repulsion > lipid emulsion

158
Q

how do micelles work

A

bile salts and lecithin aggregate in small clusters > water soluble > enable lipid digestion products to be transported to the small intestinal surface for absorption

159
Q

how does bile salt recycling work

A

most bile salts are reabsorbed by active transport in the terminal ileum and are returned by hepatic portal system to the liver > enterohepatic circulation

160
Q

what regulates bile secretion

A

choleretics (substances that increase bile secretion)

161
Q

what are the 3 types of choleretics

A

chemical - bile salts stimulate own secretion

hormonal - secretin stimulates aqueous NaHCO3 bile secretion to neutralise chyme

neural - vagal stimulation liver increase bile flow during cephalic phase

162
Q

what does CCK do in relation to bile release

A

CCK stimulates contraction of gallbladder and relaxation of sphincter of oddi > release bile into duodenum

163
Q

what is bilirubin

A

yellow pigment
modified by bacterial enzymes > makes faeces brown
can be excreted in urine if modified
can accumulate > jaundice

164
Q

what is hepatitis

A

inflammatory disease of the liver that can arise from viruses, obesity or toxic agents

repeated inflammation (e.g from alcoholism) can lead to cirrhosis, which results in decrease in active liver tissue and liver failure

165
Q

what is hydrolysis

A

addition of a molecule of water

166
Q

what are micelles

A

water soluble carrier vehicle

167
Q

what is SGLT1

A

it is a symport carrier that uses sodium conc gradient by Na/K ATPase pump to move sodium into a cell

168
Q

what happens when there is an overconsumption of fructose

A

fructose escapes into larger bowel and liver > bowel microbes utilise fructose via hexokinase to generate amino acids and SCFAs

169
Q

how does uptake of glucose happen in hepatocytes

A

glucose enters liver cell via GLUT2 > converted into glycogen for storage

170
Q

how does uptake of glucose happen in skeletal and adipose tissue

A

insulin > GLUT4 inserts into membrane to allow glucose to enter cell

171
Q

how does transport from GIT to lymph happen

A
  • thoracic duct joins left subclavian vein
  • gives plasma milky appearance
  • chylomicrons bypass portal circulation and liver
  • enter systemic circulation downstream of liver
172
Q

how does uptake of lipids occur

A

adipose cells - recombined to TAG for storage

muscle cells - stored or oxidised to acetyl-CoA

173
Q

how are lipids transported if they are insoluble in water (plasma)

A

non polar lipids binds with amphipathic lipids (phospholipids and cholesterol) and proteins to water-miscible lipoproteins

174
Q

what is the structure of lipoproteins

A

non polar core
single surface layer of amphipathic lipids

175
Q

how does the degree of lipid in a lipoprotein affect density

A

the more lipid it contains, the lower the density

176
Q

what are the four major types of lipoproteins

A

chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL

177
Q

what two types of lipoproteins are TAG rich

A

chylomicrons and VLDL

178
Q

what is the function of chylomicrons and VLDL

A

deliver energy rich TAG to cells in the body

179
Q

what does LDL do

A

delivers cholesterol to cells, which is taken up by receptor-mediated endocytosis

180
Q

what does HDL do

A

involved in reverse cholesterol transport

> travels in circulation to gather excess cholesterol > returns to liver > eliminated in bile or converted to bile salts

181
Q

what is the role of the liver in the transport of lipoproteins

A

removes LDL and other lipoproteins from circulation by receptor-mediated endocytosis

receives excess cholesterol from HDL

182
Q

why are LDLs considered bad

A

deposit in sub endothelial space in arterial walls

183
Q

why are HDLs considered good

A

prevents accumulation of cholesterol in blood

however, the link between HDL and cardioprotection is weakening as research advances

184
Q

what are the main functions of the LI

A

drying and storage

185
Q

what does faeces contain

A

bacteria, mucus, undigested fibre, unabsorbed biliary components, fats

186
Q

what is the LI comprised of

A

appendix, caecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, rectum, anal canal

187
Q

what are haustra

A

divided pouches of the colon
not fixed in place > contractile activity of circular muscle layer (similar to segmentation)

188
Q

what are taeniae coli

A

3 separate bands of longitudinal muscle > layers gathered into haustra

myenteric plexus concentrated beneath

189
Q

what is the internal anal sphincter made of

A

circular smooth muscle

190
Q

what is the external anal sphincter made of

A

skeletal muscle

191
Q

what is the main difference in mucosal architecture of LI compared to SI

A

Li has no villi > smother/decrease SA

192
Q

what are haustral contraction

A

main motility of colon

initiated by ICC

segmental

slow and non propulsive

shuffles chyme back and forth for absorption of salt and water

193
Q

what are mass movements

A

another method of motility of colon

propulsive (ascending > transverse colon)

large segments of LI contract > drives faeces 1/3 to 3/4 way through colon in few seconds

194
Q

how is the LI innervated

A

taeniae coli > intrinsic innervation (myenteric plexus)

extrinsic - parasympathetic > proximal colon = vagus nerve / distal colon = pelvic nerve

extrinsic - sympathetic > proximal colon = superior mesenteric ganglion / distal colon = inferior mesenteric ganglion / rectum and anal canal = hypogastric plexus

195
Q

what controls haustral contractions

A

locally mediated reflexes which changes the likelihood of slow wave reaching threshold

196
Q

what control mass movements

A

neural and hormonal stimuli in response to a meal

197
Q

what is gastrocolic reflex

A

food enters stomach > release of gastrin + activate extrinsic autonomic nerves (parasympathetic) > stimulate colon motility > mass mvmt

198
Q

what causes defecation reflex

A

mass mvmt > distension of rectum (internal anal sphincter relaxes which opens anal canal) > defecation reflex > external anal sphincter can be relaxed voluntarily

199
Q

how is defecation neurally controlled

A

short reflex (myenteric plexus) > contraction of muscle in rectum and sigmoid colon > relaxation of internal sphincter

long reflex (spinal cord) > action reinforced by parasymp neurons

sensation to defecate = mediated by cerebral cortex

200
Q

what voluntary components can assist in defecation

A

ab contractions
expiration against closed glottis
pelvic floor muscles relax

201
Q

what happens during constipation

A

abnormal transit thru colon

delayed transit > increase H2O absorbed > hard dry faeces

can occur due to obstruction, decrease def. reflex, emotion, age

202
Q

what is hirschsprung’s disease

A

congenital megacolon
absence of enteric NS in distal colon involving internal anal sphincter and rectum > area has increased tone and narrow lumen > no propulsive activity

203
Q

what does LI absorb

A

actively absorbs Na+
Cl- passively absorbed
absorbs water osmotically
absorbs electrolytes and vitamin K

204
Q

what does LI secrete

A

protective alkaline mucus to neutralise acids and lubricate passage

205
Q

what does the microbiome in the colon do

A

synthesise vitamin K, promote calcium, magnesium, zinc absorption

contribute to host metabolism through fermentation
> produce enzymes to break down nutrients that the host cant (e.g cellulose)
> produce gases (flatulence), SCFA, heat
> SCFA used as energy source for colonocytes
> products influence colon motility

206
Q

what two bacteria are the leading causes of food poisoning

A

salmonella and campylobacter

207
Q

how does food poisoning occur

A

bacteria passes epithelium > inflammatory response > diarrhoea

208
Q

what is metabolism

A

chemical reactions in living organisms that maintain life

209
Q

what is intermediary (fuel) metabolism

A

reactions that involve degradation, synthesis, and transformation of energy rich organic molecules

210
Q

what is anabolism

A

synthesis of larger macromolecules

211
Q

what is catabolism

A

degradation of larger macromolecules

212
Q

what are our fuel intakes

A

dietary protein, carbs, an triglyceride fat

213
Q

what are the absorbable units of our fuel intake

A

amino acids, glucose, monoglycerides and fatty acids

214
Q

what is the metabolic pool

A

absorbable units that can either be used anabolically to store energy for later or catabolically for fuel use

amino acids, glucose, fatty acids

215
Q

what molecules do we store fuel as

A

proteins, glycogen, triglycerides

216
Q

how do we use fuels

A

oxidation of pool to form ATP

217
Q

how are fuels lost

A

urea formed from amino acids and CO2 formed from oxidation of AA, glucose, and FA

218
Q

amino acids to protein is called…

A

protein synthesis

219
Q

protein to amino acids is called…

A

proteolysis

220
Q

amino acids to glucose is called…

A

gluconeogenesis

221
Q

glucose to glycogen is called…

A

glycogenesis

222
Q

glycogen to glucose is called…

A

glycogenolysis

223
Q

glucose to FA is called…

A

lipogenesis

224
Q

fatty acids to triglycerides is called

A

lipogenesis

225
Q

triglycerides to FA is called…

226
Q

glucose to ATP is called…

A

glycolysis

227
Q

what happens during glycolysis

A

glucose converted to 2 pyruvate
ADP forms ATP
2 ATPs per glucose molecule
no o2 required

228
Q

what happens during citric acid cycle

A

acyl unit from acetyl CoA (from pyruvate when sufficient O2) combines w oxaloacetate to form citrate > further reactions form ATP, NADH and FADH2

229
Q

what happens in the electron transport chain

A

energy from e- of NADH and FADH2 is transferred to ATP
o2 required

230
Q

what happens in the absorptive state

A

just fed by meal so…

insulin > increase glucose oxidation / increase glycogen synthesis / increase fat synthesis / increase protein synthesis

231
Q

what happens in postabsorptive state

A

fasting so…

glucagon > increase glycogenolysis / increase gluconeogenesis / increase ketogenesis / increase protein breakdown

232
Q

what are the main nutrient classes

A

macronutrients (proteins, carbs, fats)

micronutrients (vitamins, minerals, trace elements)

233
Q

what is energy required for

A

voluntary activity
maintenance of life (BMR) e.g breathing, body temp, HR
growth e.g children and body builders

234
Q

what does energy requirement depend on

A

body size and composition
age
activity

235
Q

what are dietary fats

A

primarily composed of triglycerides

saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated

236
Q

what does saturated fats mean

A

no double bonds (found in animal and dairy fats)

237
Q

what does monounsaturated fats mean

A

one double bond (found in olives and nuts)

238
Q

what does polyunsaturated mean

A

several double bonds (found in plant oils, fish oils

239
Q

what are the functions of dietary fats

A

provision of energy
component of membranes
precursors of prostaglandins
precursors of cholesterol
absorption of fat soluble vitamins
essential fatty acids (linoleic, alpha linoleic)

240
Q

what are omega 3 fatty acids

A

double bond 3 carbons from the methyl end of fatty acid chain

DHA, EPA, and alpha linolenic acid (which converts to EPA)

oily fish > DHA and EPA
walnuts and canola oil > alpha linolenic acid

241
Q

what are trans fatty acids

A

trans double bond
found in animal products
can be manufactured
increased LDL cholesterol > CVD link

242
Q

what are the 4 types of carbs

A

sugars
starches
oligosaccharides
dietary fibres

243
Q

what are the 3 types of sugars

A

monosaccharides
disaccharides
sugar alcohols e.g sorbitol, mannitol

244
Q

what are the functions of mono and disaccharides

A

energy
formation of glycoproteins formation of glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans

245
Q

what are the health effects of sugars

A

obesity and weight gain > risk of DM and CVD

246
Q

what is starch

A

alpha glucan polysaccharides

amylose and amylopectin

no adverse general health effects

247
Q

what are maltodextrins and glucose syrups

A

made from hydrolysis of starch

chains of 3 or more glucose units w some mono and disaccharides (glucose polymers)

used as energy supplements

potentially cariogenic

248
Q

what are the 3 classes non digestible carbs in dietary fibre

A

resistant starch
non starch polysaccharides
resistant oligosaccharides

249
Q

what is resistant starch

A

starch that is not digested (e.g they are physically enclosed in cell wall)

250
Q

what is non starch polysaccharides (NSP)

A

comprises cellulose, pectins, hemicelluloses

not digested in upper GU

insoluble NSP adds to stool bulk and aids peristalsis and reduces toxin conc

soluble NSP increase in blood lipids and glucose so it is important for glucose homeostasis and lipid metabolism

NSP increase satiety

251
Q

what are resistant oligosaccharides

A

resistant or partially resistant to digestion in upper GI tract

encourage growth of bifidobacteria and lactobacilli in colon

potentially cariogenic

252
Q

what are the functions of dietary proteins

A

growth and repair
maintenance of muscle
hormones and enzymes

253
Q

why is protein required

A

it is needed fro nitrogen balance

positive N-balance in growth and pregnancy

negative N-balance in starvation and trauma

254
Q

define basal metabolic rate

A

amount of energy your body needs to maintain homeostasis

255
Q

What disorders affect the oral cavity and swallowing

A

Xerostomia
Dysphagia

256
Q

What happens during Xerostomia

A

Hyposalivation or excessive clearance due to things like damage to salivary glands, cancer treatment and dehydration
Most common cause in medication related

257
Q

How can Xerostomia be treated

A

Saliva substitutes
Pilocarpine (muscarinic receptor agonist)

258
Q

Why would a muscarinic receptor agonist be helpful for Xerostomia

A

Increase secretion by exocrine glands

Cholingeric action mimics the release of ACh from parasympathetic nerve endings > acts on muscarinic receptors in salivary glands

259
Q

What happens during Dysphagia

A

Disruption in swallowing process > aspiration, pneumonia, malnutrition, dehydration, airway obstruction

Can occur at any stage of swallowing

260
Q

Why is Dysphagia common in neurological conditions

A

The swallowing centre is in the brain stem so it is affected by things like strokes or traumatic brain injuries or other degenerative neurological disorders

261
Q

What disorders affect the oesophagus and stomach

A

Reflux
Peptic ulcers

262
Q

In reflux oesophagitis, how can acid defy gravity and move into the oesophagus to cause injury

A

Lower oesophageal sphincter relaxed > inspiration > subatmospheric intrapleural pressure favours backward mvmt > lower pressure in oesophagus compared to stomach > acidic stomach contents move into oesophagus

263
Q

How can reflux be treated

A

Antacids, histamine receptor inhibitors, proton pump inhibitors

264
Q

How can bacteria such as H.pylori lead to peptic ulcers

A

Secrete toxins > gastritis at site of infection > disruption tight junctions b/w epithelial cells > acid penetrate > increase gastric release by keeping pH high in antrum (low pH is an inhibitor for gastrin)

265
Q

What disorders affect the accessory organs

A

Biliary obstruction
Pancreatitis

266
Q

What happens during biliary obstruction

A

Blockage of any duct that carries bile from the liver or gallbladder to the SI
Can occur from choleiths, malignancy, infection, biliary cirrhosis
Jaundice occurs bc bilirubin can’t be eleimated in faeces

267
Q

What happens during pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic enzymes irritate + damage pancreas > premature activation of trysinogen due to excessive CCK, low pH, and dysregulated exocytosis > tissue loss, necrosis, pain

Results mainly from alcoholism, certain drug use and duct blockage

268
Q

What disorders affect the SI

A

Gluten allergy

269
Q

What happens during celiac disease (gluten enteropathy)

A

Autoimmune inflammatory disease

T Cells mediate injury > dev IgA and IgG antibodies directed against gluten peptides
Villi/microvilli damaged > decreased SA of SI > impaired nutrient absorption

Can results in malnutrition and bone loss

Duodenal biopsy is good for diagnosis

270
Q

What disorders affect the large intestine

A

Diverticula disease

271
Q

What is diverticula

A

Herniations protrude through smooth muscle at openings created by vasa recta in wall of colon > create small pouches lined by mucosa (most often found in sigmoid colon)

272
Q

What is diverticulosis

A

Having the condition of uninflamed diverticula

273
Q

What is diverticulitis

A

Inflammation of one or more diverticula, associated with fever, leukocytosis and pain

Can be caused by trapped fecal material > obstruction > distension, mucus secretion and bacterial overgrowth > vascular compromise and perforation > peritonitis

274
Q

Which blood vessels are the most likely source of bleeding in diverticulosis

A

Vasa recta, which branch from marginal and colic arteries

275
Q

What does RDI stand for

A

Recommended daily intake

276
Q

What does EAR stand for

A

Estimated average requirements

277
Q

What does AI stand for

A

Adequate intakes

278
Q

What does SDT stand for

A

Suggested dietary targets

279
Q

What does EER stand for

A

Estimated energy requirement

280
Q

What does AMDR stand for

A

Acceptable macronutrient distribution range

281
Q

What is the RDI of protein in men and women

A

Men = 0.84g/kg body weight
Women = 0.75g/kg body weight

Over 70 years:
Men = 1.07g/kg
Women = 0.94g/kg

282
Q

What is the AMDR for protein

A

12-25% of energy intake

283
Q

What is the upper limit of protein

A

25% of energy as protein

284
Q

What is the AMDR for fat

A

20-35% of energy intake

8-10% of energy intake as saturated fat

285
Q

What is the Omega 3 RDI of fat

A

Men = 0.6g/day
Women = 0.4g/day

Needs 1-2 fish meals per week

286
Q

What is the RDI of essential fatty acids

A

Men = 160mg/day
Women = 90mg/day

287
Q

What is the SDT of carbs as fibres

A

Men = 30g/day
Women = 25g/day

288
Q

What is the AMDR for carbs

A

Total CHO 45-65% of energy

289
Q

What is the energy intake of free sugars recommended by WHO

290
Q

What is outlined by Aus dietary guideline 1

A

Be physically active and eat nutritious foods to meet energy need

Children + adolescents = sufficient nutritious foods + active every day to grow

Older ppl = nutritious foods + active to maintain muscle strength + weight

291
Q

What does Aus dietary guideline 2 outline

A

Foods from veg, fruit, grains + fibres, lean meats, dairy and plenty of water

292
Q

What does Aus dietary guidelines 3 outline

A

Limit saturated fat, added salts and sugars and alcohol

293
Q

What does Aus dietary guideline 4 outline

A

Encourage, support and promote breastfeeding