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BIOL 432 > Digestive Anatomy > Flashcards

Digestive Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what are the major sites of mechanical and chemical digestion?

A

mechanical - stomach - some chemical digestion with little absorption
- also occurs i mouth

chemical - small intestine - major site of chemical and H2O absorption

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2
Q

what do the parietal and visceral peritoneum develop from? what structures are intraperitoneal and retroperitoneal?

A

parietal - somatic mesoderm
visceral - splanchnic mesoderm

intraperitoneal - stomach, liver, small intestine
retroperitoneal - kidney

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3
Q

describe what the following mesentery connects: lesser omentum, greater omentum, mesoderm colon, mesentery proper, mesentery of sigmoid colon

A

lesser omentum - liver and lesser curvature of stomach

greater omentum - greater curvature of stomach down to edge of transverse colon
- forms double layer that goes back on itself

mesocolon - transverse and sigmoid colon

mesentery proper - surrounds small intestine

mesentery of sigmoid colon - attaches to sigmoid colon

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4
Q

describe the following mesentery: transverse mesocolon, root of the mesentery, mesentery proper what is connected to the ascending and descending colon?

A

transverse mesocolon - suspends transverse colon from posterior abdominal wall

root of the mesentery - attaches small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall - scrunched
- follows superior mesentery vein

mesentery proper - double layer that surrounds small intestine, 21 feet long, attaches via root of mesentery
- parietal peritoneum

ascending and descending colon are retroperitoneal

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5
Q

what structures pass through the hilum of the liver?

A

hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, common bile duct

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6
Q

what structures are retroperitoneal? which are primary and which are secondary?`

A

pancreas, ascending and descending colon, duodenum (small intestine), kidneys

kidneys are the only primary retroperitoneal structure
- all other structures were intraperitoneal during fetal development
- reorganization before birth causes them to be retro

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7
Q

what are the branches of the celiac trunk? describe the branches that come off of them

A

L gastric - lesser curvature
- gives off R gastric artery - goes to hepatic artery

splenic - supplies spleen
- gives off short gastric arteries
- gives off L gastromental artery - greater curvature of stomach

common hepatic
- gives off gastroduodenal artery
- once gastroduodenal is given off, becomes hepatic proper

gastroduodenal - gives off R gastroomental artery - links up with L gastroomental on greater curvature of stomach

hepatic proper - joins portal vein to deliver nutrients to the liver

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8
Q

describe the branches of superior mesenteric branches. what does it supply? where do we see arches? what does the interior mesenteric supply>

A

superior mesenteric branches to small intestine via mesenteric proper
- duodenum - single arches
- ileum - multiple arches

superior mesenteric supplies all of the small intestine, ascending and transverse colon

inferior mesenteric - descending colon
- branches into superior rectal

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9
Q

describe the vasculature of the middle and inferior rectal arteries

A

common iliac - internal iliac - middle rectal

internal iliac gives off internal pudendal and inferior rectal

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10
Q

what is the innervation of the digestive system? how does it correlate with the vasculature system?

A

same portion of the digestive system that is supplies by the Celiac trunk and superior mesenteric arteries are supplied by VAGUS

pelvic splanchnic nerve (parasympathetic) - portion of digestive system supplied by inferior mesenteric and branches of internal iliac

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11
Q

describe the veins of the digestive system. get from the inferior mesenteric to the portal vein

A

splenic vein receives inferior mesenteric vein
- joins the superior mesenteric to form the portal vein

gastric veins drain straight into portal veins

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12
Q

describe the general GPAT layout from inside out

A

GPAT - general plan of the alimentary tract

mucosa - epithelium + loose irregular CT (lamina propia)
- noncornified stratified squamous or simple columnar
- muscularis mucosa - deepest layer of mucosa - found wherever muscularis externa is made of muscle

submucosa - dense irregular CT
- submucosal glands in esophagus and duodenum
- lymphatic follicles - payers patches in ileum

muscularis externa - smooth muscle - peristalsis using:
- inner circular - constricts lumen
- outer longitudinal - stretch organ

serosa - visceral peritoneum

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13
Q

What is the GPAT of the mouth like?

A

mucosa - non cornified stratified squamous with loose irregular CT

submucosa - dense irregular CT

muscularis externa - skeletal muscle
- buccinator: cheek - sucking in - facial nerve
- orbicularis Boris - sphincter muscle - facial nerve
- mylohyoid muscle

serosa - cornified stratified squamous ET
- loose irregular/dense irregular ct

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14
Q

what are the muscles of the mouth that contain the palatine tonsil?

A

palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal muscles

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15
Q

what are the chewing muscles

A

closes jaw: temporals and masseter

medial/lateral phregoid

innervated by trigeminal CN 3

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16
Q

what are the functions of the following tongue muscles and what innervates them: genioglossus, styloglossus, palatoglossus, hyoglossus

A

geniglossus - sticks tongue out
styloglossus - pulls tongue up and back when swallowing
palatoglossus - pulls tongue up
hyoglossus - depressing and stabilizing lateral movement

innervation of tongue muscles
- palatoglossus - vagus nerve
- all other muscles - hypoglossal

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17
Q

what are the innervations for tongue sensation and what are the sensations that they are responsible for?

A

anterior 2/3 - taste - facial nerve CN7
- mandibular nerve - trigeminal (CN3) - touch and temperature

posterior 1/3 - glossopharyngeal (CN 9) - special sensory

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18
Q

what are the frenula and where are they located

A

superior and inferior labial frenula - attach the lips to the gums

lingual frenula - attaches tongue to floor of mouth

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19
Q

describe the following papillae: circumvallate, filiform, fungiform

A

circumvallate - circular moat
- larger with tastebuds at bottom
- form chevron

filiform - most common, contains no tastebuds

fungiform - tastebuds near surface
- most concentrated at front 2/3 of tongue

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20
Q

describe the following regions of the tooth and what they contain: crown, neck and root. what is the pulp cavity?

A

crown - contains enamel and denton
- denton - living tissue similar to bone

neck - contains enamel that is deep to gum line
- gingiva - gum line
- contains denton

root - denton covered with cementum
- cementum - living tissue

pulp cavity - supplied nutrients and O2 to denton

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21
Q

what kind of ligament connects the gums to the tooth?

A

perioseteol ligaments - fibrous CT
- connwcra cementum and alveolar process
Gomphosis - cannot move
- fibrous, synartthrotic

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22
Q

what happens when you get a cavity to the denton? to the pulp cavity?

A

denton - filling
pulp cavity - root canal

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23
Q

what are the teeth in primary dentition? how many teeth in total?

A

central incisor, lateral incisor, cuspid (canine), 1st molar, 2nd molar

20 teeth total in kids

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24
Q

what are the teeth in secondary dentition? bold the ones that are not present in primary. ow many teeth in total?

A

central incisor, lateral incisor, cuspid (canine), 1ST BICUSPID (premolar), 2ND BICUSPID (premolar), 1st molar, 2nd molar, 3RD MOLAR (wisdom tooth)

32 teeth total

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25
Q

describe the serous and mucous cells of the salivary glands

A

serous - basic stain, balls of cells
- basophilic - lots of proteins for digestion
- nuclei at base - lots of room for Golgi and ER
- secrete into center to go into ducts

mucous cells - frothy
- ET making mucous for channel/duct
- function to bind food together

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26
Q

describe the following salivary glands: parotid, sublingual, submandibular

A

parotid - most common, glossopharyngeal CN9
- opens to mouth surface opposite of 2nd molar
- serous only

sublingual - multiple ducts that empty in front
- gleeking
- mixed - mucous with some serous

submandibular - makes J shape around jaw
- empties into side of flow of mouth
- serous with some mucous

27
Q

describe the following salivary glands: parotid, sublingual, submandibular

A

parotid - most common, glossopharyngeal CN9
- opens to mouth surface opposite of 2nd molar
- serous only

sublingual - multiple ducts that empty in front
- gleeking arm and retroperitoneal
- mixed - mucous with some serous

submandibular - makes J shape around jaw
- empties into side of flow of mouth
- serous with some mucous

28
Q

what are the stages of swallowing

A
  1. buccal phase - bolus moves from mouth past soft palate
  2. pharyngeal phase - tongue presses p against roof of mouth
  3. esophageal phase - peristalsis moves bolus down esophagus
  4. bolus enters stomach

no digestion in esophagus

29
Q

what are the two sphincters in the stomach? what nerve controls the stomach?

A

top - cardiac sphincter
bottom - pyloric sphincter

vagus nerve - uncharge of stomach peristalsis, secretion of enzymes and HCl

30
Q

Describe the GMAP of the stomach

A

mucosa - simple columnar without microvilli or goblet cells
- mucous/neck mucous cells - not goblet
- chief cells - makes enzymes and HCl
- parietal cells - release HCl
- G cells - bottom of gastric pit - secrete gastrin

submucosa - dense irregular CT

muscularis externa - smooth muscle - 3 layers - mechanical dig
- innermost oblique
- inner circular
- outer longitudinal

serosa - visceral peritoneum
- simple squamous and loose irregular CT

31
Q

what are the approximate lengths of the three regions of the small intestine?

A

duodenum - 10 inches
jejunum - 8-9 feet
ileum - 10-11 feet

32
Q

what are Brunner’s glands and where are they located?

A

submucosal glands located in the duodenum
- protects duodenum from the pH of stomach chyme

increased pH in jejunum is also due HCO3- from pancreas

33
Q

what are Peyer’s patches and where are they located?

A

lymphatic follicles that are located primarily in the submucosa of the ileum
- also contains diffuse lymphatic tissue in the mucosa and submucosa

34
Q

what is a lacteal and where is it located?

A

lymphatic vessel located in the small intestine that absorbs fat

35
Q

describe the GPAT of the small intestine

A

mucosa - simple columnar with microvilli
- first location with microvilli
- contains goblet cells
- CT - loose irregular CT
- muscularis mucosa

submucosa - dense irregular CT
- duodenum - Brunner’s grlands
- ileum - Peyers patches
- submucosal plexus - enteric NS

muscularis externa
- inner circular
- myenteric reflex - ct between the two
- outer longitudinal

serosa - visceral peritoneum
- loose irregular CT and simple squamous

36
Q

what are enteroendocrine cells and where are they located?

A

in base of columnar cells small intestine - clear looking cells that secrete 3 hormones

37
Q

what are paneth cells? and where are they located? what are their functions>?

A

pink staining granules in the base of the columnar cells of SI
- non specific immunity - 2nd wall of defense protecting epithelia
- help ID the organ as small intestine

38
Q

what are the three orders of folding in the small intestine?

A
  1. microvilli - folds of plasma membrane
    - nonmotile, contain actin
  2. villus - fold of loose irregular CT of mucosa
  3. place circulars - fold of submucosa
    - think of a scrunched up sleeve
    - wrinkles in wall of SI

all increase SA for increased absorption

39
Q

what is the cecum? what sphincter does it contain?

A

first part of the large intestine that connects it to the small intestine
contains the ileocecal valve - sphincter

40
Q

what is haustra? what is the teniae coli?

A

haustra - pouches formed by tone/contraction of the outer longitudinal (muscularis externa) muscle of the colon

teniae coli - three evenly distributed bands of smooth muscle that create haustra
- does not completely surround colon

41
Q

describe the GPAT of the large intestine

A

mucosa - nothing on surface - smooth
- simple columnar with microvilli
- MANY goblet cells, only 25% but loos like 100%
- secrete mucous to lubricate feca mater
- muscularis mucosa

thick submucosa - dense irregular CT

muscularis externa
- internal circular
- external longitudinal - 3 bands forming teniae coli

42
Q

what parts of the colon are intraperitoneal and retroperitoneal? what innervates each part of the colon? what are the blood supply?

A

ascending colon
- retroperitoneal
- vagus innervation
- superior mesenteric

transverse colon
- intraperitoneal
- vagus innervation
- superior mesenteric

descending colon
- retroperitoneal
- pelvic splanchnic innervation (PS)
- inferior mesenteric

sigmoid colon
- intraperitoneal
- pelvic splanchnic innervation (PS)
- inferior mesenteric

43
Q

describe the GPAT for rectum

A

same as GPAT for large intestine
- more goblet cells
- valves help move fecal matter

last 2.5 inches is anal canal
- thickens to become external anal sphincter - innervated by pudental

44
Q

what are the veins of the rectum?

A

middle rectal veins - branches off the internal iliac vein
- formed internal hemorrhoids

internal rectal veins - branches of the internal pudendal vein
- forms external hemorrhoids

45
Q

describe the GPAT of the anal canal. what does the inner circular layer form?

A

mucosa - non cornified stratified squamous
- muscularis mucosa

muscularis externa
- inner circular layer forms internal anal sphincter
- autonomic NS - parasympathetic stimulation causes it to relax

46
Q

describe the defecation reflex

A
  1. stretching of the sigmoid colon and rectum by feces triggers afferent signals to spinal cord
  2. efferent signals return to the rectum via parasympathetic pelvic splanchnic nerves to stimulate peristalsis of the rectum and relaxation of internal anal sphincter
  3. lower motor neuron fibers to the external anal sphincter cause it to relax
47
Q

describe the livers lobes. what splits the two lobes and what does it contain?

A

Right and L lobes
split by the falciform ligament - mesentery
- contains the ligamentum teres - collapsed umbilical vein

48
Q

on the posterior view of the liver, what are the two other lobes? what is the porta hepatis and where is it located?

A

caudate lobe - L side of inferior vena cava
- superior lobe

quadrate lobe - found between ligamentum teres and gallbladder
- inferior of the two

porta hepatis - in between the caudate and quadrate
- contains the hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery and bile duct

49
Q

what is the largest gland in the body> describe its functions

A

liver - largest gland in the body
- hepatocyte - hepatic epithelial cell

functions:
- synthesizes proteins
- stores glucose as glycogen
- recycles RBC
- synthesizes bile salts for emulsification of lipids
- detoxification - smooth ER breaks down drugs/alcohol

50
Q

what are the protein that the liver synthesizes and what are their functions?

A

albumin - maintains osmotic P
transport proteins: transferrin, LDL, HDL, VLDL, lipids
clotting factors
complement

51
Q

what cells of the liver are important for RBC recycling?

A

Kupffer cells - macrophages in the liver sinusoids (blood)
- contain bilirubin - bile waste

caput Medusae - caused by cirrhosis

52
Q

describe how simple sugars, aa’s and lipids get to the liver

A

simple sugar/AA’s
- absorbed in small intestine: 1st cap bed villi
- travel to hepatic portal vein and to the liver

lipids - absorbed by lacteals in vili
- go to thoracic duct, brachiocephalic duct, heart
- enter the liver via the HEPATIC ARTERY

53
Q

what is a hepatic lobule? what is the hepatic portal triad and where is it located?

A

hepatic lobule - made of 6 borders of CT

hepatic triad - located at corners of louyles
- contains branches of the portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct

portal vein and hepatic artery run parallel toward center, bile duct opposite

54
Q

what is a hepatic lobule? what is the hepatic portal triad and where is it located?

A

hepatic lobule - made of 6 borders of CT
- arranges to that they are never more than 2 cells thick

hepatic triad (6) - located at corners of louyles
- contains branches of the portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct

portal vein and hepatic artery run parallel toward central vein (1), bile duct opposite to edge

55
Q

what is the second capillary bed in the liver? where does the fluid flow? what are the macrophages called

A

sinusoids - large diameter muscle free channels, simple squamous
- similar to capillaries - have fenestra
- no basement membrane/tight junctions - allows for easy addition of proteins, removal of AA/sugars
- always in contact with hepatocytes

flows toward central vein
- central veins flow together to form hepatic vein and go into the inferior vena cava

contain Kupffer macrophages

56
Q

what is the second capillary bed in the liver? where does the fluid flow? what are the macrophages called

A

sinusoids - large diameter muscle free channels, simple squamous
- similar to capillaries - have fenestra
- no basement membrane/tight junctions - allows for easy addition of proteins, removal of AA/sugars
- always in contact with hepatocytes

flows toward central vein
- central veins flow together to form hepatic vein and go into the inferior vena cava

contain Kupffer macrophages

57
Q

describe the bile canaliculi of the liver. which direction does it flow?

A

no plasma membrane of cell beside the plasma membrane of hepatocyte
- all flow toward bile duct - toward the hepatic triad

58
Q

what are the hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct lined with?

A

hepatic portal and hepatic artery - simple squamous
bile duct - simple columnar

59
Q

what is the space of disé in the liver and what is its function?

A

space between hepatocyte and sinusoid that allows food, glucose, AA to move out of blood sinusoids via fenestra
- this allows the hepatocyte to uptake them

60
Q

describe the biliary tree. what does it empty into?

A

R and L hepatic duct come together to form common hepatic duct
- received input from the gallbladder via cystic duct - becomes common bile duct

common bile duct meets the main pancreatic duct at the duodenum

61
Q

describe the structure of the gall bladder. what is its function? describe the cystic duct

A

gall bladder - stores bile
- contains thin wall of smooth muscle
- lined with simple columnar ET

sensitive to vagus and hormones

cystic duct - connects gall bladder to common hepatic duct to form common bile duct
- bile can flow in both directions depending on pressure

62
Q

describe gallstones and how they form

A

predicate of bile salts, typically formed in the gall bladder
- asymptomatic in gall bladder, symptomatic in ducts
- RUQ pain and shoulder pain

fat, 40, fecund (has children)

hormones in pregnant women can cause bile salts to form precipitates

63
Q

describe the sphincter of odi. what are the papilla surrounding it? what feeds into it? what happens if its blocked?

A

sphincter where hepatopancreatic ampulla enters duodenum
- received input from common bile duct and main pancreatic duct
- surrounded by major duodenal papilla

accessory pancreatic duct enters duodenum superiorly, surrounded by minor duodenal papilla

odi blocked - enzymes backed up and digest pancreas - pancreatitis

BIOL 432 (25 decks)

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