Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DI > DI Quiz 2 > Flashcards

DI Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What tissue opacity is labeled “1”?

A

Fat -in the pericardial sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Label image

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Label the image

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the diagnostic imaging modality of choice to look for signs of left-sided heart failure (cardiogenic pulmonary edema) in the dog?

A

thoracic rads (always take rads 1st)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This image is showing what?

A

pericardial fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This CT image is pointing to

A

pericardial fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Conspicuity of cranial lobe vessels is better in ____ lateral

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name the vessels

A

left and right side vessels seen distinctly in L lateral

they are superimposed in R lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dilation is more _____ than hypertrophy.

A

conspicuous (visible)

hypertrophy occurs at expense of lumen volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ventricular hypertrophy can be seen sometimes, but it depends on

A

the degree. Appearance is nonspecific- more specific than for dilation

need echocardiogram for characterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ventricular Hypertrophy: right versus left

A
  • Left
    • rads of little value
  • Right
    • increased sternal contact
    • elevation of apex from sternum
    • backward “D”
    • causes:
      • pulmonic stenosis- congenital
      • heartworm dz
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

These rads are an example of

A

ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ventricular dilation can be seen sometimes, but depends on the

A

degree.

appearance is nonspecfic

need echocardiogram for characterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Vertebral Heart Score (VHS

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Changes due to dilation in VD/DV

  • Right ventricle
  • Left ventricle
  • Left auricle
  • MPA
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Right atrial dilation

A
  • very rare as an isloated abnormality
    • tricuspid dysplasia
  • common in combo with other abnormalities
    • appearance is nonspecific
    • need echo for characterization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Left atrial dilation

A
  • Common
    • mitral valve disease
    • most common heart dz you will see
  • Fairly specific
    • we are going to cover in detail
  • Echocardiogram still better for complete characterization- can confirm and grade it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does this image show?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does this image show?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does this image show?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does this image show?

A

double wall sign

Left Atrium dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Large ____ causes splaying of main stem bronchi

A

Left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does this image show?

A

enlarged left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Caudal vena cava changes normally with _____

A

respiration

very rarely is an important structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Aortic arch

A

enlarges in congenital aortic stenosis

not a common problem

geriatric changes in cats very common

mineralization of aortic bulb in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Main pulmonary artery

A

enlarges commonly in heartworm disease

also pulmonic stenosis- not that common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the arrow pointing at?

A

kink- incidental

tortuous aorta: geriatric cat

NOT significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the arrow pointing to?

A

Aortic bulb mineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the arrow pointing to?

A

main pulmonary artery

MPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If radiographs are characterized by low sensitivity and specifity, why bother?

A

a global view is obtained

pulmonary vessels can be assessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What clinical sign does heart failure present with?

A

coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pulmonary vessels in lateral view

A

veins are ventral to arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pulmonary vessels in VD/DV view

A

veins are medial to the arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Rule of thumb: in DV view, vessels should be be _____ compared to the 9th rib at their point of intersection

A

the same size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pumonary Vein > artery

A

venous hypertension

mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pulmonary Artery > vein

A

pulmonary hypertension

heartworms, pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pulmonary Artery & vein increased

A

shunt: L to R

fluid overload

fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pulmonary Artery & vein decreased

A

dehydration

decreased right ventricle output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Does this show vessel enlargement?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Does this show vessel enlargement?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Does this show vessel enlargement?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which sided heart failure is more common?

A

left sided

mitral valve degeneration

cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pulmonary edema with left heart failure

A
  • patterns depends on stage & tx
    • interstitial
      • difficulat to dx
    • bronchial
      • con confuse with inflammatory dz
    • alveolar
      • expected pattern
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lungs always look more opaque in what view?

A

lateral rads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Veins may not be enlarged with left heart failure because of

A

prior diuretic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This patient has?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What do these rads show?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is seen in the rad?

A

A diffuse bronchial pattern often seen in cats

donuts- asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does this rad show?

A

cat with pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does this rad show?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In dilated cardiomyopathy, cardiogenic pulmonary edema has an airway pattern that can easily be confused with _______

A

inflammatory lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In dilated cardiomyopathy, enlarged arteries AND veins are common due to

A

fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is wrong with this heart?

A

enlarged- pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

T/F: radiographic findings are sensitive and specific with regard to cardiac evaluation

A

FALSE: NOT sensitive or specific

(except for LA dilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pericardial effusion

A

cardiac silhouette eventually becomes round

will be a phase where it is not round in all views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Underlying causes of pericardial effusion

A
  • metabolic
    • uremia
  • neoplastic
    • pericardial
    • cardiac
  • inflammatory
  • trauma
    • blunt trauma
    • LA split
  • idiopathic- most common but we need to rule out everything else
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Whats abnormal with this rad?

A

rounded heart from pericardial effusion

trachea is pushed dorsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is abnormal with this rad?

A

rounded heart from pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does X show in this ultrasound?

A

pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

PPDH- peritoneal pericardial diaphragmatic hernia

A
  • anatomic defect b/t peritoneal and pericardial cavities allowing migration of organs
  • many animals free of associated signs
  • radiographic signs
    • enlarged and globular cardiac silhouettes with diaphragm
    • opacity of cardiac silhouette often heterogeneous
    • anomalous number of sternebrae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the abnormality seen in this rad?

A

PPDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the abnormality seen in this rad?

A

PPDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
A

B. Right Pulmonary Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
A

D. 2-3 o clock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Osteoblasts are responsible for

A

bone development and synthesis of osteoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Osteoclasts are responsible for

A

bone resorption

break down bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Approx ___ days b/t osteoid formation and mineralization

A

12-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

As an osteoblast expends capability for osteoid, it is renamed _____

A

osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Main functions of skeletal system

A

support

protection

movement facilitation

mineral storage

storage of hematopoietic tissue

lipid storage- for energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Label bone terminology

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Articular cartilage is the growth center for _____

A

epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Physis (epiphyseal plate) is the growth center for ______

A

diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

______: secondary center of bone formation that provides a point for muscle attachement

A

Apophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Examples of predilection sites

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Osteoprogenitor cells also found in endosteum and periosteum, What do they do?

A
  • responsible for remodeling and growth of bone cortex
  • remain active through life
  • responsible for osteogenesis during fracture repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Mesenchymal progenitors differentiate into _____

A

fibrous tissue

undergoes further differentiation into osteoblasts

occurs in flat bones of skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
A

Metatarsal sequestrum: caused by disruption of periosteal blood supply (eg. wire cut) with subsequent necrosis due to poor communication with endosteal blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
A

bone blood supply

major artery enters through nutrient foramen

can be confused with a fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Wolffs law

A

bone will respond to the stresses or strains placed (or not placed) on it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD) results from

A

failure of endochondral ossification

-common in young, rapidly growing large breed dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Dog predilection sites for OCD:

A

Caudal humeral head

medial humeral condyle

lateral and medial femoral condyle

lateral and medial trochlea of talus -medial much more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Does osteochondrosis (OC) happen in cats?

A

not common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Radiographic signs of OC/OCD

A

flattening or concavity of subchondral bone

adjacent sclerosis

+/- mineralized flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the abnormality?

A

bilateral OCD

(image of shoulder joint w/ flattening of caudal humeral head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Any abnormalities?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are joint mice?

A

necrotic cartilage breaks free

can attach to synovium and become vascularized

watch out for caudal circumflex humeral vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What do we have to be careful about with joint mice?

A

make sure its not blood vessels! this is a blood vessel head on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What abnormality is detected?

A

joint mice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the arrow pointing out?

A

distal femoral osteochondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the arrow pointing out?

A

distal humeral osteochondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Dysplasia= the failure to

A

develop properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Elbow dysplasia

A
  • triad of developmental lesions
    • ununited anconeal process (ulna)
    • fragmented medial coronoid process (ulna)
    • osteochondrosis of humeral condyle
  • current theory: related to joint incongruity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Ununited anconeal process

A
  • probably due to incongruity and not a failure to unite
    • really a fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What abnormality is pointed at?

A

ununited anconeal process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What abnormality is seen?

A

ununited anconeal process

large peice separated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Treatment of ununited anconeal process (UAP)

A
  • medical management
    • not as effective
  • removal
  • fixation & ulnar osteotomy* best choice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Fragmented medial coronoid process

A

very common

meduim/large breed dogs

signs as early as 4-6 months

coronoid fragment difficult to detect radiographically

CT is needed to Dx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Fragmented medial coronoid process radiographic signs

A
  • new bone formation on proximal aspect of anconeal process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What do the arrows indicate?

A

new bone formation

fractured medial coronoid process

(joint incongruity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Abnormality seen?

101
Q

What lesion is seen?

A

fragmented medial coronoid process that caused “kissing” lesion on medial aspect of humeral condyle secondary to FCP

102
Q

What lesion is seen?

103
Q

Panosteitis

A
  • self limiting dz of large breed dogs
    • 5-12months
    • CS- weeks to months
  • shifting leg lameness
  • etiology unknown
104
Q

Panosteitis radiographic signs

A
  • increased medullary opacity
    • begining as nodular then becoming diffuse
  • lesion often begins at nutrient foramen
  • smooth, continuous periosteal new bone occur in a minority of patients
  • cortical thickening can persist - remodeling
105
Q

What abnormality is seen?

A

smooth periosteal reaction

(can do spontaneous resolution)

106
Q

Who does Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy effect?

A
  • not common, developmental systemic dz of rapidly growing young dogs
    • 7 weeks- 8 months
  • large/giant breed dogs: great danes, boxer, german shepard, irish setter, weimaraner (inherited?)
    • weimaraner- only breed where entire litter affected
107
Q

Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy Clinical Signs

A

mild self-limiting disease to servere multisystemic, life-threatening illness

pyrexia

malaise

pain + swelling over metaphyseal region

lameness

108
Q

Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy Radiographic signs

A
  • begins in metaphysis of tubular bones
  • “double physis” sign
    • radiolucent line in metaphysis adjacent and parallel to physis
    • radiographs may go from normal to abnormal in 48hrs
  • advanced stages
    • irregular periosteal new bone formation along metaphysis
    • physeal closure or retarded growth
109
Q

What abnormality is seen here?

A

development of “double physis” sign

Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy

110
Q

What is the abnormality?

A

Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy

“double physis”

111
Q

Treatment of Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy

A

since the cause is unknown, tx is supportive

corticosteroids are more effective than NSAIDs

-suggests immune suppression may be important

112
Q
A

Fragmented medial coronoid process

113
Q

Aseptic Necrosis of Femoral head

A
  • adolescent toy and small breed dogs
  • compromised blood supply to femoral head causes bone necrosis while overlying cartilage continues to grow
  • revascularization will occur
  • phagocytosis of necrotic bone during healing results in decreased opacity
  • incomplete removal of necrotic bone and invasion of granulation tissue interferes with healing
  • bone is weak and subject to microfracture
114
Q

Aseptic Necrosis of Femoral head Radiographic signs

A
  • varies with stage and duration
  • lysis of femoral head/neck
  • widening of joint space due to hyperplastic cartilage
  • microfracture and deformation of femoral head
  • secondary DJD and muscle atrophy
115
Q

Whats the abnormality?

A

Aseptic necrosis of the femoral head

116
Q

Cat that jumped off the bed. What is this called?

A

Spontaneous capital physis fracture in cats

117
Q

Tibial Crest Avulsion

A
  • the normal tibial crest appearance in young dogs is commonly misinterpreted as an avulsion
  • important to be familiar with normal appearance and abnormal to distinguish
118
Q

Tibial crest. Avulsion present?

119
Q

Tibial crest. Avulsion present?

A

Avulsion present

120
Q

Incomplete Humeral Condyle Ossification is common in what breed? what are they at risk for?

A

spaniels

at risk for fractures in both condyles******

with this condition, the humeral condyle fails to fuse and thus can lead to intracondylar fractures of the humerus (splitting in the middle aka Salter Harris type IV fracture through metaphysis, physis & epiphysis) you would also want to x ray both limbs bc it occurs bilaterally

121
Q

Causes of aggressive bone lesion

A

Neoplasia and infection most common

  • cant tell apart on images
  • using signalment, hx, CS, and lesion distribution, one can be given preference, but not definitively
122
Q

Aggressive Vs Non-aggressive lesion

A

Aggressive: cortical destruction, periosteal reaction (irregular), no distinct border/transition. Aspirate or biopsy, thoracic rads

Non-aggressive: distinct transition/border, none or smooth periosteal reaction, no cortical destruction. Wait? can be risky

NOTE: only ONE feature of aggressiveness needed

123
Q

Cortex Destruction present?

124
Q

Cortex Destruction present?

A

No, cortex is affected but is still there

125
Q

How many views are needed to assess the cortex?

126
Q

What is this an example of?

A

Periosteal Reaction

Irregular = Active

127
Q

What is this an example of?

A

Periosteal reaction

Smooth = Inactive

128
Q

Transition Zone/Border present?

A

Indistinct

129
Q

Transition Zone/ Border present?

130
Q
A

NO

cortex is moved, smooth, see transition zone

131
Q
A

Yes

irregular, no border

132
Q
A

Yes

no border

133
Q
A

Yes

no cortex edge

134
Q

Lesion present?

A

Yes, aggressive

135
Q

Lesion present?

A

Yes, aggressive- irregular

136
Q

Most common primary bone tumor

A

osteosarcoma

monostatic & metaphyseal

large & giant breeds

favorite sites: toward stifle, away from elbow

137
Q

Radiographic features of primary bone tumor

A

aggressive bone lesion

can be lytic, blastic, or mixed

138
Q

Blastic

A

more bone

more opaque… radiopaque = whiteness

osteoblastic, sclerotic

139
Q

Lytic

A

less bone

less opaque… radiolucent = blackness

osteolytic, dectructive

140
Q

Types of primary bone tumors. Label them

141
Q

Fungal Osteomyelitis

A

can mimic primary bone tumor, but often polystotic

142
Q

Is this lesion aggressive? What is our next step?

A

aggressive, send out for testing

came back as apergillosis

143
Q

Humerus and femur both have lesions. What is our next step?

A

sample/test

Coccidoidomycosis

144
Q

Hematogenous bacterial osteomyelitis is ____ in dogs in cants

145
Q

Nail Bed Lesions

A
  • Subungual tumor
    • squamous cell carcinoma
      • large breed dogs with black coats
        • standard poodle, labrador retriever
      • may be multiple
    • malignant melanoma
  • Pododermatitis
146
Q
A

need to sample/test!! to differentiate

147
Q

Hematogenous Metastasis

A

not common

distrubution in skeleton variable- axial involvement common

usually an epitheial primary

148
Q
A

osteosarcoma least likely- because 2 lesions

149
Q

Why is digital adjustment important?

A

can reveal fractures/ things not seen otherwise

150
Q

Name 3 things confused with fractures

A

nutrient foramen

normal physis

sesamoid bones

151
Q

What type of fracture is this?

A

transverse

152
Q

What type of fracture is this?

153
Q

What type of fracture is this?

A

comminnuted

154
Q

What kind of fracture is this?

A

incomplete

155
Q

What kind of fracture is this?

156
Q

Salter Harris

A
  • Physeal fracture classification system
    • applies only to skeletally immature patients
  • as grade increases, chance of physeal growth perturbation increases
  • chance of secondary growth anomaly much higher with type V than with any other type
157
Q

Grade the fractures

158
Q
A

LOW

almost zero

159
Q

Pathologic fractures are seen in weakened bone from diseases like…

A

hypoparathyroidism- demineralization

cancer

fractures occur secondary to an event that would not normally lead to fracture; jumping off bed

160
Q

Luxation vs Subluxation

A

Luxation: dislocation of an anatomic part

Subluxation: partial dislocation of an anatomic part- may require stress views to demonstrate full extent of instability

161
Q

What is this an example of?

162
Q

What is this an example of?

A

subluxation

163
Q

What does this stress view indicate?

A

Gap in tarsal joint- needs sx

164
Q

Bone healing stages

165
Q

Primary Fracture Healing

A

rigid fixation

direct bone contact- minimal fracture gap

166
Q

Secondary Fracture Healing

A
  • motion or distraction of fragments
  • callus formation
    • fibrocartilage stabilizes the fracture
    • ossification of callus then bony union
  • callus will diminish as stability returns

30-45 days to see callus on rads

167
Q

Normal callus appearance

A

should be smooth and nonaggressive (inactive)

168
Q

Factors that influence fracture healing

A

vascular integrity

fracture location

extent of fracture

apposition

degree of motion

169
Q

Vascular integrity

A

perfusion not evaluated radiographically

perfusion diminishes as soft tissue injury increases

nutrients going into the bones/tissues to heal

tiny fragments/shot gun pellets prolong healing because of increased tissue/vascular damage

170
Q

Distal antebrachium fractures in toy breeds…

A

heal slowly and have a high complication rate

(chihuahuas are disasters waiting to happen)

171
Q

Degree of motion

A

callus does not bridge

may result in a delayed or non union

-no healing if too much motion

172
Q
173
Q

Malunion

A

the bone healed in an abnormal position

this is a problem in humans, in animals we are happy it healed

174
Q

Delayed union

A

fracture has not healed in the time expected

175
Q

Nonunion

A

all fracture healing has stopped and fragments have not united

176
Q

What is this an example of?

A

malunion

femur is crooked

can predispose to DJD******

177
Q

What is this an example of?

taken 3 months later

A

delayed union

dont give up, damage causes slow healing

178
Q

What is this an example of?

A

nonunion

fracture ends are round and sclerotic

this wont heal

179
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

infection of the bone

  • hematogenous bacterial osteomyelitis very rare in dogs and cats
  • usually the result of a wound or fracture (open fractures)
  • an aggressive bone… not normal callus
    • irregular periosteal reaction is a key finding
  • sometimes lysis around implants
180
Q

Fracture complications

A

Physeal growth abnormalities

young animals prior to physeal closure

usually result of type V injury

most common in antebrachium- distal radial and/or ulnar physes

181
Q

Insufficient Ulnar Growth

A

Distal ulnar physis susceptible to type V

conical shape

ulnar retardation leads to radius being “trapped”

182
Q

What is the abnormality?

A

Insufficient Ulnar Growth

183
Q

Valgus deformity

A

bows and twists away from midline

184
Q

Insufficient Ulnar Growth results in one or more of which

A

humeroulnar subluxation

bowed radius

valgus of manus

185
Q

What can correct early humeroulnar subluxation?

A

Ulnar osteoctomy

186
Q

Radial closure

A

not as common as ulnar closure

humeroradial subluxation

-ulna pushes humerus away from radius

+/- varus manus

Tx: more complicated, effective if caught early

187
Q

Degenerative joint disease (DJD) aka Osteoarthritis (OA)

radiographic signs

188
Q

What are the signs of joint effusion show in the second rad?

A

_fluid in the joint pushes the infrapatellar fat pad cranially and caudally displaces the fascial stripe******_

189
Q

What is this rad showing?

A

periarticular cyst like lesions

advanced DJD begins to look aggressive… may be confused with tumor or infection

usually are co-existing signs of DJD

femoral head looks like a mushroom

190
Q

Is hip dysplasia present?

191
Q

T/F: A tear of the cranial cruciate ligament can be dx using rads

A

false

can only see secondary signs

192
Q

Erosive Arthropathy

A

hyperplastic synovium from immune-mediated cause results in subchondral cysts

-rheumatoid arthropathy

usually small breeds

usually distal joints

193
Q

Thoughts?

A

tap and culture joint

may be septic arthritis

194
Q

Meniscal ossicles in cats

A

small mineralized opacities in feline stifle joints

found to be mineralization in meniscus

  • usually medial
  • leads to cartilage erosion on medical condyle of femur due to mechanical interference
195
Q

Rads of a cat. What is circled?

A

meniscal ossicles

196
Q

What is abnormal in these cat rads?

A

meniscal ossicles

197
Q

Canine hip dysplasia

A

inherited debilitating coxofemoral dysplasia

primarily large dogs

inherited but phenotypic changes not present at birth

  • subluxation early
  • osteoarthritis later
198
Q

Problems with selective breeding for dogs without hip dysplasia

199
Q

Normal hip Vs one with hip dysplasia on rads

200
Q

What is the earliest radiographic sign of canine hip dysplasia?

A

joint laxity

201
Q

Hip dysplasia detected?

A

No, normal

202
Q

What abnormality?

A

very lax joint

source of pain, limits function

laxity leads to osteoarthritis

203
Q

Signs of severe OA

204
Q

OFA method

A
  • extended leg VD view of pelvis
    • good for detecting secondary OA, not good for joint laxity
  • twisting of joint capsule tends to force femoral head into acetabulum- may cause us to underestimate joint laxity
  • rads scored by 3 board certified radiologists
  • grading system: excellent, good, fair, borderline, mild, moderate, severe
  • dogs cannot be certified until they are 24 months/2yrs
  • any vet can submit rads to OFA
205
Q

PennHIP method

A
  • position unique to PennHip
    • does not place torque on joint capsule
  • a fulcrum b/t the thighs allows operator to apply lateral force to the hip
  • images are interpreted by AIS
  • can be done early as 4 months
  • technique allows quantification of joint instability, not OA
  • Distraction index is calculated
  • radiographer must be certified by AIS- online training
206
Q

DI > 0.3 is associated with

A

significant incidence of DJD

higher the DI, the higher chance of developing osteoarthritis

207
Q

What method is more reliable? OFA or PennHip

A

PennHip

genetic testing would be even more reliable

208
Q
A

excellent

no subluxation

209
Q
A

mild, moderate, severe

less than half head under dorsal rim

joint is lax

osteoarthritis subluxation

see morgan line

210
Q
A

mild, moderate, severe

too young to certify

subluxation, morgan hair, mushroom cap

211
Q

What do we need to do in order to get good spinal rads?

A

deep sedation or anesthesia, except in HBC

212
Q

To compensate for beam divergence, what can we do to get good spinal rads?

A

make multiple exposures (5-6)

213
Q

Algorithm for pain/neuropathy

214
Q

___ is the most common cause of spinal pain/neuropathy you will see in practice

A

Disc Disease

prompt recognition of problem and appropriate action are keys to success

215
Q

What are the arrows showing?

A

mineralized discs

degenerate discs

subject to herniation

216
Q

Type I disc disease

A
  • acute herniation of degenerate nuclear material into vertebral canal with spinal cord compression & possible spinal cord injury
    • usually mineralized
    • typical chonrodystrophic dogs
      • dachshund is poster child
    • acute pain, paresis, paralysis
    • survey radiographs not sensitive or specific
  • rare between T2-T9 because of intercapital ligament, but it does occur (german shepards still get it)
217
Q

Type II Disc Disease

A
  • chronic annulus/nucleus protrusion into vertebral canal with spinal cord compression
    • disc is degenerate
    • typically large dogs
    • chronic progressive neuropathy
    • survey rads not sensitive or specific
218
Q

T/F: radiographs are valuable when diagnosing Type I or II disc disease

A

FALSe: of little value

findings are non-specific

should be done for screening

219
Q

Non specific radiographic signs of disc disease

A
  • vertebrae move closer together
    • narrowed disc space
    • narrow foramen
    • narrow dorsal joint space
  • material in vertebral canal
    • can only see if mineralized
220
Q

This dog has T3-L3 myelopathy and disc-related changes. Are these findings in the rad helpful?

A

these non-specific findings are not helpful

221
Q

Whats the issue with using ribs are a landmark for vertebrae?

222
Q

How to diagnose disc herniation

A
  • Myelography
    • injection of positive contrast medium into subarachnoid space
    • useful but tedious
    • being replaced by CT and MRI
  • CT/MRI
    • myelographic principles of value in interpreting CT and MRI studies
223
Q

Where do we insert the myelogram contrast medium?

A

subarachnoid space

224
Q

Classic lesion locations for disc disease

A

normal

extradural

intradural-extramedullary (subarachnoid space)

intramedullary

225
Q

Extradural rule outs Vs location

A

disc

tumor

stenosis

abscess

hemorrhage

226
Q

Intramedullary rule outs Vs location

A

edema- inflam

tumor

myelitis

227
Q

Intradural-extramedullary rule outs Vs location

A

tumor (nerve root)

228
Q

Lesion location?

A

extradural- collapsed disc space

(central deviation of contrast medium)

229
Q

Lesion?

A

Osteophytic articular processes causing extradural spinal cord compression

230
Q

Lesion?

A

Intradural-extramedullary

lesion is in subarachnoid space, creating filling

231
Q

Problems with myelography

232
Q

CT detection of disc herniation

A

fast and non-invasive

specific

disc material must be mineralized

cannot assess spinal cord injury

slices acquired throughout region of potential herniation, ex: T2-L3

**** if lesion suspected in T2-L3 you need to image T2-L3 ****

233
Q

MRI Detection of Disc Herniation

A

quick, longer than CT

more sensitive than CT since detection not based on mineralization

able to assess integrity of spinal cord

the best test

cost vs value

(MRI looks for increased water lesions)

234
Q

T2 image

A

water and fat have high signal

235
Q

ANNPE- Acute Non-compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion

A

AKA missile disc

disc explodes out, normally hydrated

acute herniation of hydrated nucleus

no mass in vertebrae canal

spinal cord swelling

spinal cord “bruise”- hemorrhage/inflam: visible with MRI

rads, myelography or CT will NOT be helpful here

236
Q

Spondylosis

A

very common, acquired

new bone proliferation originating from ventral aspect of vertebral body, near endplate

associated with annular degeneration and tearing

usually not important clinically, except at L7-S1

238
Q

5 year old poodle that is an indoor-outdoor dog. Over 10 days the dog developed lameness. What is the most likely dx?

A

infection

(periosteal rxn in picture)

239
Q

A 10 year old poodle, which the owner has had its entire life, is presented with lameness after jumping off the bed. What dx is most likely?

A

pathological fracture- radiograph of the coxofemoral joints; you could presume this bc of history- should fracture from jumping off bed

240
Q

A cat presented with spontaneous femoral capital physis fracture. What are the risk factors?

A

overweight, neurtered male, delayed physeal closure

(NOT from an all meat diet)

242
Q

11 month old German shepard presented with lameness and pain. Increase opacity of medullary cavity in most of the ulna and diaphysis of radius. What disease is likely?

A

panosteitis

243
Q

Image with bilateral necrotic femoral heads

A

avascular necrosis of the femoral head

244
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about determining if a lesion is aggressive or not?

cortical destruction

indistinct transitional zone

irregular periosteal rxn

radiopaque and radiolucent

A

radiopaque and radiolucent- lysis and sclerosis dont tell you aggressiveness

245
Q

If a 1.5 year old dog has OFA done and looks bad, do we have to wait until 2 yrs to officially say he has canine hip dysplasia?

A

this dog most likely has canine hip dysplasia and will have it for life

dont have to wait to dx

247
Q

What is the cause?

A

extradural

(central deviation of contrast medium)

248
Q

Will spondylosis cause severe pain?

A

no, further evaluate because there must be another cause

249
Q

T/F: you can dx cranial cruciate teaers with radiographs

DI (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions