DH8 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Total Passengers

A

300 - 50

200 - 36

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2
Q

Maximum People On Board

A

300 - 61

200 - 45

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3
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight

A

300 - 19,595kg

200 - 16,556kg

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4
Q

Maximum Brakes Release Weight

A

300 - 19,505kg

200 - 16,466kg

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5
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

300 - 19,051kg

200 - 15,650kg

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6
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

300 - 17,917kg

200 - 14,696kg

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7
Q

Maximum G Load

A

Flaps Retracted +2.5 / -1.0g

Flaps Extended +2.0 / -0.0g

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8
Q

Maximum Operating Temprature

A

48.9 degrees or ISA +35 whichever is lower

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9
Q

Minimum Operating Temprature

A

-54 degrees

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10
Q

Maximum Crosswind

A

36kts
20kts (Narrow Runway)
14kts (Contaminated runway)

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11
Q

Maximum Taxi Speeds

A

25kts

15kts (Narrow Taxiway 15-18m)

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12
Q

Maximum Turning Speeds

A

15kts

10kts (Narrow Taxiway)

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13
Q

Va

A

300 - 177

200 - 164

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14
Q

Vb

A

300 - 190

200 - 180

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15
Q

Flap Speeds

A
300 - 
Flap 5 - 163
Flap 10 - 154
Flap 15 - 150
Flap 35 - 138
200 - 
Flap 5 - 148
Flap 15 - 148
Flap 35 - 130
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16
Q

VLO

A

300 - 163

200 - 158

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17
Q

VLE

A

300 - 173

200 - 172

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18
Q

Alternate Gear Extension Speed

A

140kt

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19
Q

Maximum Tyre Speed

A

160kt

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20
Q

How long is MTOP allowed for

A

5 Minutes

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21
Q

Normal take off ITT Limit

A

770 degrees

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22
Q

Transient ITT start limit

A

900-950 deg 5 seconds
840 - 900 deg 12 seconds
800-840 deg 20 seconds

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23
Q

Starter cranking limits

A

Start 1 - 1 min on - 2 min off
Start 2 - 1 min on - 2 min off
Start 3 - 1 min on - 30 mins off

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24
Q

When is fuel introduced during start?

A

Residual ITT - 15-19% NH

First Start Of Day - 10% NH

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25
Q

Maximum Propeller RPM

A

1212RPM

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26
Q

Normal Propeller Operating Range

A

780-1200RPM

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27
Q

Maximum Fuel Load 300

A

5678lbs (5,400lbs with underwing refueling)

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28
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance

A

600lbs

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29
Q

Minimum Dispatch O2 Portable Cabin Bottle

A

1,100psi

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30
Q

How long does PBE protect for?

A

15mins

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31
Q

Maximum Cabin Altitude

A

8,000ft

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32
Q

Normal Cabin PSI

A

5.5psi +/-0.3

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33
Q

Maximum Cabin PSI

A

5.95psi

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34
Q

Maximum Cabin PSI take off and landing

A

0.5psi

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35
Q

APU Starter Limits

A

Start 1 - 1 Min On - 2 Min Off
Start 2 - 1 Min On - 2 Min Off
Start 3 - 1 Min On - 30 Min Off

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36
Q

Autopilot must be disengaged at what altitude on descent?

A

200ft

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37
Q

DC Generator Maximum Load

A
  1. 7 On Ground

1. 0 In Flight

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38
Q

AC Generator Maximum Load

A
  1. 33 On Ground Above 10 Degrees
  2. 0 On Ground Below 10 Degrees
  3. 0 In Flight
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39
Q

Ditching Dam Min Dispatch

A

1,400psi

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40
Q

Three Climb Profiles

A

High Speed - 205kt
Normal - 170kt
Best Rate - 135kt

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41
Q

Optimal Altitude For Trend Monitoring?

A

300 - 16,000 - 19,000ft

200 - 14,000 - 22,000ft

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42
Q

300 Speed Gates?

A
Holding & Cruise - 160 KIAS
Flaps 0 - 155 KIAS
Flaps 5 - 145 KIAS
Flaps 10 - 135 KIAS
Flaps 15 for Flaps 35 landing - VREF ICE Flaps 35 +15KIAS
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43
Q

200 Speed Gates?

A
Holding & Cruise - 160 KIAS
Flaps 0 - 140 KIAS
Flaps 5 - 130 KIAS
Flaps 10 - N/A
Flaps 15 for Flap 35 Landing - VREF ICE F35 + 15 KIAS
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44
Q

Maximum Speed Cat B IAF?

A

180kt

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45
Q

Max Speed Cat B FAF?

A

130kt

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46
Q

Max Speed Cat B Circling?

A

135kt

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47
Q

What does ‘O’ on an MEL Mean?

A

It means a specific procedure must be applied before this MEL can be applied. Normally flight crew can carry this out.

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48
Q

What does ‘M’ on an MEL mean?

A

A specific maintenance procedure must be carried out before this MEL can be applied. This is carried out by maintenance staff on most occasions.

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49
Q

What is a Category A MEL?

A

The fault must be rectified within 24 hours. The 24 hours starts at midnight at the end of the day on which the MEL was applied.

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50
Q

What is a Category B MEL?

A

The fault must be rectified within 3 calendar days, this time frame does not include the day the fault was identified.

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51
Q

What is a Category C MEL?

A

This fault must be rectified within 10 days excluding the day which the MEL was applied.

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52
Q

Where are the various alternate airports found?

A

The Aircraft Performance Manual.

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53
Q

Where do you find the Airport Standards Table that details the requirements for each aircraft type?

A

The Aircraft Performance Manual

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54
Q

What’s the single engine TAS for the 300/200?

A

197KIAS & 199KIAS

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55
Q

Can we use anything other than certified aerodromes?

A

No unless we have prior approval from CASA.

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56
Q

How many KGs is PHL?

A

8kg

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57
Q

How many KGs is a service dog?

A

32kg

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58
Q

Standard adult weight?

A

87kg

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59
Q

If a callback card is completed, how many KG must it be within of the planned load?

A

100kg

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60
Q

What is the purpose of the NOTOC?

A

To notify crew of any special or dangerous goods.

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61
Q

What is margin fuel?

A

The difference between the fuel on board and fuel required for the flight

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62
Q

Are you required to hold the 10% variable reserve once airborne?

A

Yes

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63
Q

How far from a suitable aerodrome must you not be in the case of an engine failure?

A

60 mins at the single engine cruise speed in nill wind conditions. 197NM in the 300 and 199NM in the 200.

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64
Q

If you logged into firstflight and all sectors were not available who do you call?

A

ROC

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65
Q

When is the Firstflight notification automatically submitted?

A

2h15m prior to departure

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66
Q

What’s the name of the software used for flight planning?

A

Navtech

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67
Q

If you needed a gear down ferry flight plan, who would you contact?

A

The ROC

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68
Q

What is APU burn?

A

200lb/h

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69
Q

If firstflight was to fail how would you get a flight plan?

A

By Email

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70
Q

What speed must power be set by?

A

50kts

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71
Q

If using the performance handbook can we used reduced take off power?

A

No

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72
Q

How many % does uptrim provide?

A

10%

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73
Q

Will uptrim give you the required performance even with a reduced take off?

A

Yes

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74
Q

Line up allowances?

A

21m (200) & 25m (300)

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75
Q

Maximum runway slope?

A

2%

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76
Q

Where can I find the climb requirements?

A

Aircraft Performance Handbook

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77
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient in the second segment?

A

2.4%

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78
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance height?

A

35ft or 50ft in a turn

79
Q

If aerodata wasn’t available how would you calculate take off speeds?

A

V1 from the QRH

Rest of speeds from the booklet

80
Q

Maximum angle of bank in a OEI turn?

A

15 degrees if IAS less than VBG

25 degrees if IAS above VBG

81
Q

What FL achieves the greatest TAS?

A

FL170

82
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient required on approach?

A

2.1%

83
Q

What is VAPP in abnormal operations?

A

VAPP = VREF unless the captain decides an additive is required.

84
Q

What is VAPP with Ice Protection on?

A

VAPP = VREF

85
Q

Are the WAT limit cards to be used OEI?

A

No, in this case we would use the performance from the QRH and it requires 2.5%

86
Q

Ways to increase missed approach performance?

A

Lower flap setting
Bleeds Off
Reduced Landing Weight

87
Q

What should you do if you have an engine out and need to go around below the minimums?

A

Adopt the engine out procedure

88
Q

Where can I find a list of adjusted minimas for company ports that ensure you can meet missed approach gradients in an OEI situation?

A

The QRH

89
Q

List the immediate actions?

A
  • On ground non normal
  • Engine Fire (Ground)
  • Evacuation
  • APU Fire
  • Oil Pressure Low
  • Unscheduled propeller feather
  • Roll Control Malfunction
  • Propeller Overspeed
  • Aileron Trim Tab Runaway
  • Rudder Jam
  • RUD 1 or 2 PUSH OFF Switchlight on
  • # 1 RUD HYD or #2 Caution Light
  • Rudder Trim Actuator Runaway
90
Q

Q300 Margin Rate?

A

1,500lb/h

91
Q

Q300/200 Taxi Allowance?

A

100lb

92
Q

Q300 Fixed Reserve?

A

600lb

93
Q

Q300 Holding Rate?

A

1,160lb/h

94
Q

Q300/200 Approach Fuel?

A

200lb

95
Q

Q300/200 Abnormal Operations Allowance?

A

95lb

96
Q

Does depresurised ops require variable reserves?

A

No

97
Q

Q200 Margin Rate?

A

1,400lb/h

98
Q

Q200 Holding Rate?

A

850lb/h

99
Q

Q200 Fixed Reserve?

A

500lb

100
Q

When are the two times pitch mode is available?

A

Transient use and Turbulence

101
Q

Can you fly any approach apart from RNAV using RNAV?

A

No

102
Q

What aircraft performance category is used for circling?

A

Cat C

103
Q

300 NTOP?

A

92%

104
Q

300 MTOP?

A

105.6%

105
Q

300 MCP?

A

90%

106
Q

200 MTOP?

A

111%

107
Q

200 NTOP?

A

99.5%

108
Q

200 MCP?

A

97.5%

109
Q

How long does O2 last on EMER?

A

Minimum of 15 mins

110
Q

Can you do an instrument approach using composite mode on the EADI?

A

No

111
Q

In the 200 what is the limitation on the HF radio regarding the ADF?

A

You must not use the HF radio when NDB is the primary nav source.

112
Q

In aircraft not fitted with automatic ignition, when is the ignition to be selected on?

A

Turbulence
Icing
Heavy Precipitation

113
Q
Category B Speeds
IAF
FAF
Circling
Missed Approach
A

IAF 180-120KIAS
FAF MAX 130KIAS
Circling Max - 135KIAS
Missed Approach Max - 150KIAS

114
Q

How many feet do you add to a minima if you’re using an area QNH?

A

50ft

115
Q

Where is the first aid kit in the 200/300?

A

Up the front in the 200 and down the back in the 300.

116
Q

When can you turn off the boots?

A

300 - When ice has stopped accumulating

200 - Clear of icing conditions

117
Q

What is the maximum ITT on take off?

A

770 Degrees

118
Q

In the event of an incident that threatens the company image who must the PIC notify ASAP?

A

The ROC and Duty Pilot

119
Q

If you have a birdstrike or lightening strike where are the required report details outlined?

A

OM1

120
Q

Where is the operational debrief format found?

A

AEPM

121
Q

Who must complete a HIRO in the event of a fumes event?

A

Each crew member effected by the event.

122
Q

Where do you find a list of drugs and their impact on crew member function?

A

OM1

123
Q

First Officer Landing Limits?

A
Junior FO;
15kt Crosswind
5kt Tailwind
1300m Runway Length
MDA/DH +200ft and 4KM Vis

First Officer;
30kt Crosswind
5kt Tailwind

124
Q

When applying multiple supplements from the AFM, what table must we check first?

A

The supplement compatibility table

125
Q

Where can I find CAR 217 packages?

A

QantasLink training website.

126
Q

When can we replace bulbs in the cockpit?

A

Only when both aren’t working

127
Q

If one bulb is blown, what do we use to get home?

A

A service letter that lets us operate with one bulb US

128
Q

What are the only 2 maintenance procedures we can apply to the aircraft?

A
  • Pulling and Clipping Circuit Breakers

- Placarding things

129
Q

Where do I find the reset procedure for the avionics cooling fan?

A

The FCOM

130
Q

Can I turn on batteries while refuelling is taking place?

A

No

131
Q

What is the wake seperation times?

A

2 Min Full Length - Heavy
3 Min Intersection - Heavy
3 Min Full Length - Super
4 Min Intersection - Super

132
Q

What distance should you be behind the preceding aircraft on final for wake seperation?

A

5 NM - Heavy

7 NM - Super

133
Q

If I have an inflight problem with a DG, where would I look for a guide on what to do?

A

There is a table in the APM.

134
Q

In flight, where can you find the engine out procedure?

A

The Performance Handbook

135
Q

Roughly how long does it take from doors closed to off blocks?

A

4 mins.

136
Q

What things require a special inspection?

A

Severe Turbulence
Lightning Strikes
Hard Landings
Overweight Landings

137
Q

Can we operate into a CTAF without AFRU?

A

Yes, provided the unserviceability of the AFRU only took place within 7 days. Find this information in the OM1

138
Q

When must the cabin be prepared by?

A

Instrument Approach - IAF

Visual Approach - 3,000ft

139
Q

Where would I find the requirements post lightning strike?

A

FDEM

140
Q

ITT Limits?

A

800 - 840 = 20 Seconds
840 - 900 = 12 Seconds
900 - 950 = 5 Seconds

141
Q

Explain the pages of the QL3.

A

Front Page - Remains in logbook until defect is resolved.
Second Page - (Blue) Used to transfer details of deferred items into TRAX.
Third Page - Goes at the front of the QL3 to notify flight crew of any non resolved defects
Fourth Page - Stays with the QL3 forever

142
Q

Where do I find the policy about the cockpit being locked at night?

A

OM1

143
Q

If another entity has refused carriage of a passenger, where do we find the procedure for that?

A

OM1

144
Q

Where do you find the list of reasons for denying boarding of a passenger?

A

OM1

145
Q

If for some reason you need to speak to an ASO, how would you do that?

A

Ask the FA to approach the passenger in seat ‘XXX’ and put them on the inter-phone. The FA is not to be informed that the person is an ASO.

146
Q

Should a circumstance arise that requires deviation from SOPs. What action must be taken in post flight?

A

HIRO

147
Q

During pre flight planning you notice there is severe icing forecast below 3,000ft. Who do you contact?

A

ROC. P 6.2.5 OM1 Details a long list of weather phenomena that require you to inform ROC.

148
Q

Who is the person responsible for cancelling a flight due to weather considerations?

A

The ROC. Flight crew still however retain the ability to refuse to fly on safety concerns.

149
Q

When is the fuel figure sent to re-fuelers at major ports?

A

The latter of;

  • 45 Mins
  • Flight Crew Acceptance of Flight Plan
150
Q

Non-Compliant Slot Time Fuel Requirements?

A

Early - 60min Holding

Late - 0 Holding

151
Q

What must we consider when arriving after curfew?

A

Can we take RWY34

152
Q

Can we have the bleed in min under normal circumstances in flight?

A

No

153
Q

With the TCAS MEL what are the considerations in OM1?

A

Must;
Not be entering into a CTAF if departing on the first leg of a trip.
Advise ATC
Only enter a CTAF if already on a trip.

154
Q

If we get a fail light on the EGPWS on the ground what happens?

A

MEL, says if you are at a port with parts to fix the defect you must not depart.

155
Q

How far must we avoid sharp edged radar returns?

A

5NM below the FZL

156
Q

What is an in flight consideration of the EGPWS failing?

A

Must set limiting altitudes on an approach into the AAS.

157
Q

When is the CRS box required to be ticked?

A

In the event an MEL is applied and a maintenance action was required to apply it.

158
Q

What times are the Sydney curfew?

A

11pm-5am

159
Q

Can we ever depart without a printed passenger manifest?

A

Only under ‘exceptional circumstances’

160
Q

When does autoboarding start?

A
  • 17min BNE & SYD

- 15min All Other Ports

161
Q

Min Speed Turbulence?

A

150KIAS

162
Q

Simple Fuel Calc Formula?

A

(Distance/Speed) x Fuel Flow = Fuel Required

163
Q

In FirstFlight, what cruise profile is used to plan to alternates?

A

LRC

164
Q

Q300/200 Margin Rate

A

1,500lb/h

1,400lb/h

165
Q

Q300/200 Fixed Reserve Depressurised

A

600lb (30min)

500lb (30min)

166
Q

Q300/200 Fixed Reserve OEI

A

190lb (10min)

170lb (10min)

167
Q

Q300/200 Holding Rate

A

1,160lb/h

850lb/h

168
Q

Maximum Tail Wind

A

10kts

169
Q

What wind strength on the ground requires an inspection of the flight controls?

A

60kts

170
Q

What’s the maximum APU Gen Load

A

1.0

171
Q

Can you do an IMC approach with Flap 35?

A

No

172
Q

Can you do an AP BC approach?

A

No

173
Q

Can you use AP in severe ice

A

No

174
Q

Due to COVID, when planning alternates what else must we do before departure if an alternate is required?

A

Contact ROC to inform them of the alternates being used.

175
Q

What form can we fill out to request a change of the manuals?

A

QL120

176
Q

Where do I find the password for the online Jeppesen Pack?

A

OM1

177
Q

Where is the minimum manual complement for dispatch listed?

A

OM1

178
Q

Maximum Operating Temprature

A

48.9 degrees or ISA+35, whichever is lower.

179
Q

MTOP, NTOP and MCP for the 200?

A

MTOP - 111%
NTOP - 99.5% (97.5% In Flight)
MCP - 97.5 @ 1212RPM, 114.2% 1024RPM or lower

180
Q

MTOP & NTOP for the 300?

A

MTOP - 105.6%
NTOP - 92% (90% in flight)
MCP - 90% @ 1212RPM, 96% @ 1125RPM

181
Q

What is the maximum Torque for reverse?

A

90%

182
Q

What’s the normal oil pressure arc?

A

55-65psi

183
Q

After an APU start failure how will you know that it has been 2 minutes?

A

The APU start is inhibited for approx 2 mins after a failed start.

184
Q

Can we use VOR without an associated DME?

A

No

185
Q

Minimum In-Flight NH

A

66%

186
Q

Maximum Transient Torque

A

300 - 115% (20 Seconds)

200 - 125% (20 Seconds)

187
Q

Fuel Temperature Range

A

11-57 Degrees

188
Q

Max ITT’s on takeoff and exceedance limits?

A

200 - 770 degrees
300 - 765 degrees
Both may be exceeded by 5 degrees for 30 seconds on the take off roll

189
Q

Minimum in flight & ground NH?

A

66%

190
Q

When is it permissible to exceed the APU load limit?

A

Starting using the APU

191
Q

What should NH be after engine start?

A

Approx 72-78%

192
Q

What is the recommended time between APU starts?

A

5 minutes

193
Q

How far must the fuel truck be parked from the exhaust?

A

30 feet or 9.2meters