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DH8 Avsoft > Avsoft > Flashcards

Avsoft Flashcards

1
Q

How many smoke detectors are in the baggage compartment?

A

2

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2
Q

How many fire extinguishers are there onboard the aircraft?

A

4

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3
Q

What is the minimum dispatch on the 120L O2 bottle?

A

1,800psi

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4
Q

What O2 Bottles are in the cabin?

A 
1x 310L
3x 120L (2 in the 200)
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5
Q

Alternate Gear Extension Speed?

A

140kt

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6
Q

How many PBE’s are on board?

A

4

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7
Q

Max Tyre Speed?

A

165kt

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8
Q

VLO?

A

300 - 163kt

200 - 158kt

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9
Q

VLE?

A

300 - 173kt

200 - 172kt

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10
Q

What Hydraulic System Powers Brakes?

A

System 1

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11
Q

What Hydraulic System Powers Landing Gear?

A

System 2

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12
Q

How Are The GCUs Powered?

A

Their respective essential busses

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13
Q

What is the maximum TRU load?

A

1.0

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14
Q

What is the maximum DC Gen load?

A
  1. 7 on the ground

1. 0 in flight

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15
Q

What is lost in the following scenario?
2x TRU’s Unserviceable
1x DC Gen Unserviceable

A

Both secondary busses are lost

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16
Q

What is lost in this scenario?
1x TRU Unserviceable
2x DC Gen Unserviceable

A

Both main busses are lost

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17
Q

How many sources of DC power are required for normal operations?

A

2

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18
Q

Regarding the battery temperature display panel, how is a overheat sensor failure displayed?

A

Overheat sensor light illuminated

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19
Q

Regarding the battery temperature display, what does a temperature display failure look like?

A

Single yellow line at the 60 degree mark.

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20
Q

Regarding the battery temperature display, what does a shorted circuit look like?

A
  • Yellow line at 60 degree mark
  • Overheat sensor light illuminated
  • Associated battery caution/warning lights
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21
Q

Regarding the battery temperature display what does an open sensor circuit look like?

A
  • Yellow line at 60 degrees

- Sensor fail lights illuminated

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22
Q

What must you do with the batteries if you plan on leaving the aircraft when it’s connected to DC Ground Power?

A

Turn the batteries off

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23
Q

How long do the batteries last in a failure?

A

30 mins

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24
Q

What does a TRU caution light indicate?

A

The TRU is not connected to its bus

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25
Q

What does a DC Gen caution light indicate?

A

The DC Gen isn’t connected to its bus

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26
Q

At what NH is the DC Gen active?

A

63% NH

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27
Q

What type of electricity do the inverters provide?

A

Fixed frequency 400hz

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28
Q

What bus is the APU connected to?

A

The RH Main Bus

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29
Q

What do the TRUs use for power?

A

3 Phase 115v AC

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30
Q

What busses do the batteries connect to?

A

The essential busses

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31
Q

How many volts are the batteries?

A

24 Volts

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32
Q

How many volts is the DC System?

A

28 Volts

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33
Q

Are there ditching dams on the 200?

A

No

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34
Q

What type of exit is the forward emergency exit?

A

300 - Type 1

200 - Type 3

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35
Q

Do the rear emergency exits have warning lights in the cockpit

A

No

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36
Q

What type of exit is the rear emergency exit?

A

Type 3

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37
Q

Maximum crosswind?

A

36kts
20kts (Narrow Runway)
14kts (Contaminated Runway)

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38
Q

MBRW

A

300 - 19,505kg

200 - 16,466kg

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39
Q

MZFW

A

300 - 17,917kg

200 - 14,686kg

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40
Q

MLW

A

300 - 19,051kg

200 - 15,650kg

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41
Q

Aircraft Length

A

300 - 25.68m

200 - 22.25m

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42
Q

Where is the anti-ice on the elevator located?

A

On the horn

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43
Q

What engines?

A

300 - PW123E

200 - PW123C

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44
Q

Wingspan?

A

300 - 27.43m

200 - 25.6m

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45
Q

Max Passengers?

A

300 - 50 pax

200 - 36 pax

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46
Q

What speed is linked to the gear warning horn?

A

130kt

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47
Q

Ditching Dam Minimum Dispatch?

A

1,400psi

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48
Q

On the RAS Panel, what does the big red light indicate?

A

There is power to the system

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49
Q

How many KGs of force is required to operate the ditching dams?

A

7kg

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50
Q

What are the DC Gen’s connected to on the engine?

A

The HP Compressor

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51
Q

Will a DC Gen overheat automatically take the generator offline?

A

No

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52
Q

How many anticollision lights are activated when selected on?

A

3

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53
Q

How long does the emergency lighting system work for?

A

20 mins

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54
Q

How much fuel can the 300 carry?

A

5,678lbs (5,400lbs with pressure refuelling)

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55
Q

What is the APU Temperature Limits?

A

48.9 degrees or ISA + 35. Whichever is lower

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56
Q

How do I see APU load?

A

Select GEN2 and press button on APU Panel

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57
Q

Underspeed Governing Stops NP Dropping Below?

A

780Np

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58
Q

On ground NH is regulated at?

A

75%

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59
Q

What is powered by the DC Starter Generator?

A

High Pressure Compressor

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60
Q

What speed are the inboard roll spoilers inhibited?

A

Above 140kt

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61
Q

Flap Speeds?

A

Flap 5 - 163/148
Flap 10 - 154/NA
Flap 15 - 150/148
Flap 35 - 138/130

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62
Q

What powers the inboard and out board roll spoilers respectively?

A

Inboard - #1 System

Outboard - #2 System

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63
Q

What RPM is considered an overspeed

A

1236NP

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64
Q

How many kgs of force is required to activate the ditching dams?

A

7kg

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65
Q

Upon detecting a fault the BPU will not open what ties?

A

The secondary bus ties

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66
Q

What busses are supplied power in an electrical failure?

A

The Essential Busses

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67
Q

What is the maximum AC Gen loads?

A
  1. 0 In flight
  2. 33 on the ground with ice protection off
  3. 0 on ground with ice protection on
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68
Q

Total useable fuel for an aircraft with Aux tanks?

A

10,244lb

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69
Q

What powers the fuel pump?

A

115VAC

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70
Q

Normal Fuel Temp Range?

A

11-57 degrees

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71
Q

How many nav lights are on the tail?

A

2 (Both White)

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72
Q

What is exterior lighting powered by?

A

28V DC

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73
Q

Maximum SHP on the PW123E

A

2,140SHP

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74
Q

RPM with condition levers at max

A

1,200RPM

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75
Q

An indication of a fire bottle being discharged into an engine is?

A

A yellow disc being ejected

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76
Q

What does the amber light on the fire protection panel indicate?

A

The bottle is armed

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77
Q

What is the auxiliary tank capacity

A

4,566lbs

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78
Q

What is the maximum RPM?

A

1212RPM

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79
Q

How many flight attendants?

A

2 on the 300

1 on the 200

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80
Q

What is the 300 turn width?

A

22.56m

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81
Q

Which doors have inflatable seals?

A

1L and 1R on the 300

1L on the 200

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82
Q

What rows are the emergency exits?

A

Row 10 on the 300

Row 4 on the 200

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83
Q

Does the master warning chime stop after three dings?

A

No

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84
Q

What master caution won’t trigger a master caution?

A

Fueling on

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85
Q

What is included in the TO warning horn?

A 
Trims
Park Brake 
Condition Levers
Flaps 
ECU Selector not being at TOP
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86
Q

What speed is the landing gear config horn?

A

130kt

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87
Q

What speed are the inboard spoilers inhibited?

A

140kt

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88
Q

What speed changes pressure to the rudder?

A

150kt

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89
Q

Minimum Park Brake Pressure?

A

1,500psi

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90
Q

How many knots difference between VMO indicator and the true VMO?

A

6knots

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91
Q

VMO?

A

243kts 300

242kts 200

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92
Q

Can you exit the cargo hold from inside?

A

No

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93
Q

How many cycles are available on the airstair door before the pressure runs out?

A

4

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94
Q

What’s the RAS code?

A

2467#

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95
Q

What does the big green light on the RAS door mean?

A

It’s unlocked, maybe not open

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96
Q

What does the big red light mean on the RAS panel mean?

A

System is powered

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97
Q

How do you open a jammed cockpit door?

A

Remove Hinges

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98
Q

What does the master battery switch do?

A

Connects the batteries to the essential busses

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99
Q

What do the batter switches do?

A

Connect the batteries to the main busses

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100
Q

What is the TRU source of DC power?

A

The essential busses

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101
Q

How many amps is the DC Gen?

A

300 Amps (3 DC Gens if you include APU)

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102
Q

How many amps is the TRU?

A

200 Amps (2 TRUs)

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103
Q

How are the DC Gens Cooled

A

Air Cooled

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104
Q

How are the TRUs cooled?

A

Air Cooled

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105
Q

How are the AC Gens cooled?

A

Oil Cooling

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106
Q

What NP do the AC Gens come online?

A

400NP

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107
Q

When is the DC Gen Inhibited?

A

Connected to ground power

108
Q

Where is the receptical for the AC Gen?

A

RH Nacelle

109
Q

How many transformers are in the fixed voltage AC System

A

2

110
Q

What period of time is considered a momentary electrical fault?

A

7 Seconds

111
Q

If a fault lasts more than 7 seconds in the electrical system is it resetable?

A

No

112
Q

What happens if an electrical fault is more than momentary?

A

You loose the associated BUS

113
Q

What does a DC Bus caution light mean?

A

Fault Detected on a DC Bus

114
Q

How many HZ is the fixed frequency AC power?

A

400hz

115
Q

Where are the anticollision lights

A

One on each wing, one on the tail

116
Q

Where are the ice inspection lights?

A

1 each side fuselage, 1 on each nacelle

117
Q

How many landing lights?

A

1 each side

118
Q

How many flare lights?

A

1 each side

119
Q

Do both cockpit and FA emergency lighting switches need to be in the on position for them to activate?

A

No, just one switch needs to select them

120
Q

How is the emergency lighting powered?

A

6x 6.4 Nicad Batteries

121
Q

How long does the emergency lighting last for?

A

20 mins minimum

122
Q

How much fuel is the total with AUX tanks fitted?

A

10,244lbs

123
Q

Aux Tank Capacity

A

4,566lbs

124
Q

What triggers the fuel low caution light?

A

130lbs in the left collector bay

125
Q

What inlet pressure will the fuel low pressure caution light come on?

A

5.5psi

126
Q

What does fuel filter bypass caution light mean?

A

The HP Fuel Filter has been bypassed

127
Q

How long can I maintain MTOP for?

A

5 mins

128
Q

What’s connected to the accessory gearbox?

A

Starter Gen
Fuel Control Unit
Oil Pumps

129
Q

What is the power turbine?

A

Two stage axial compressor

130
Q

What is the compressor?

A

Single stage centrifugal

131
Q

What make and model is the propeller

A

Hamilton 14SF

132
Q

Is the ice protection available with bleeds off?

A

Yes

133
Q

How do you know if the props are in beta?

A

Propeller Ground Range Advisory Lights

134
Q

What does the pneumatic propeller overspeed use?

A

Fuel Metering

135
Q

When is synchrophase not used?

A

Take off and landing

136
Q

How close do the propellers need to be to use Syncrophase

A

20RPM

137
Q

ITT Limits

A

800-840 20 Sec
840-900 12 Sec
900-950 5 Sec

138
Q

What PSI is low oil pressure?

A

42psi and below

139
Q

Does the taxi light move with the nose?

A

Yes

140
Q

How is the light on the refuel/defuel panel operated?

A

Opening the door

141
Q

What % torque arms the autofeather?

A

38%

142
Q

What are the 3 RPM Settings Used?

A

1200/1050/900

143
Q

How many loops protect the engine from fire?

A

2

144
Q

What does a red disc indicate on the fire protection system?

A

Thermal discharge

145
Q

What does a yellow disc on the fire protection system indicate?

A

Manual bottle discharge

146
Q

What do the pull fuel hyd off handles do?

A

Shut off Hydraulics
Shut off Fuel
Arms Bottles

147
Q

How will a fault on the fire detection system be indicated?

A

Check Fire Detect

148
Q

How many smoke alarms in the lavatory

A

1

149
Q

How long does it take to initialise the AHRU?

A

60 Sec Ground

90 Sec Flight

150
Q

To allign the AHRS what do you do?

A

Press align for 2 seconds

151
Q

What are the two reduced AHRS modes?

A

Basic - Attitude (TAS not taken into account for acceleration errors)
DG - Heading (Works like a normal DG and will wander.)

152
Q

Can you take off with an AHRS fault?

A

No

153
Q

What is the older AHRS control unit?

A

Honeywell

154
Q

How long does initialisation of the Honeywell AHRS takle?

A

3 Mins

155
Q

Normal system hydraulic pressure?

A

3,000psi

156
Q

PTU Pressure

A

2,700psi

157
Q

SPU Pressure

A

2,750psi

158
Q

Minimum Dispatch Hydraulics

A 
#1 - 1.5qts
#2 - 3qts
159
Q

How do you know when there is an SPU failure?

A

You’ll only know when you turn them on.

160
Q

What powers the PTU?

A

The number one system

161
Q

When does the PTU turn on?

A

When gear is selected up with a low #2 oil pressure indication, it can also be manually selected on

162
Q

On the PTU switchlight how do you know the PTU is working?

A

Green Hash

163
Q

What does ARPS stand for?

A

Alternate Rudder Power System?

164
Q

What does ARPS do?

A

Isolates the rudder from the rest of the system and provides 30 mins rudder use.

165
Q

How many applications of the emergency brake are available?

A

8

166
Q

Is antiskid available with emergency braking?

A

No

167
Q

What is attached to the #1 Hydraulic System?

A 
B - Brakes
F - Flaps
A - AntiSkid
I - Inboard Roll Spoilers
R - Rudder Lower
168
Q

What is attached to the #2 Hydraulic System?

A 
L - Landing Gear
O - Outboard Roll Spoilers
N - Nosewheel Steering
E - Emergency Brake
R - Rudder Upper
169
Q

What is the primary source for hydraulic pressure?

A

Engine Driven Pump at 3,000PSI

170
Q

What is the secondary source of hydraulic pressure?

A

Standby Pump Operating at 2,750PSI

171
Q

What’s the point of the PTU?

A

To assist the number two system in the event the #2 engine driven pump is no longer available

172
Q

At what PSI does the pressure release valve open in the Hydraulic System?

A

3,250psi

173
Q

At what PSI will ‘#1 ENG HYD PUMP’ caution light illuminate?

A

2,000psi

174
Q

When are the SPU’s used?

A

During Takeoff and Landing and in the event of an engine driven pump failure

175
Q

When do the SPU’s operate automatically

A

When the flaps are selected to greater than zero

176
Q

Where is the #2 SPU located

A

In the ARPS circuit so to protect against rudder loss.

177
Q

What does ‘#2 SPU AUX PWR’ caution light indicate?

A

That the primary power source for the #2 SPU has failed.

178
Q

Is hydraulic fluid transfered between systems in PTU operation?

A

No

179
Q

Can an input jam in flight controls be overcome?

A

Yes, through use of the clutch

180
Q

Can a cable jam be overcome?

A

No, there is a jam between you and the PCU

181
Q

What triggers the rudder to enter the high speed regime?

A

Flaps 0

182
Q

Maximum Rudder Travel with flaps extended?

A

16 degrees left, 18 degrees right.

183
Q

Maximum Rudder Travel with flaps up?

A

12 degrees each way

184
Q

How much can the trim move the rudder

A

10 degrees each way

185
Q

Rudder pressure below 150kts?

A

1,500psi

186
Q

Rudder pressure above 150kts?

A

900psi

187
Q

What does a ‘RUD PRESS’ caution light indicate?

A

The change between 1,500 and 900 PSI has failed to take place and the incorrect pressure is being supplied to the rudder.

188
Q

If a rudder actuator fails what PSI is supplied to the rudder

A

3,000psi

189
Q

What does ‘FULL RUD PRESS’ caution light indicate?

A

That the rudder is being supplied with 3,000psi

190
Q

What type of flaps?

A

Single Slotted Fowler Flaps

191
Q

What does a ‘FLAP DRIVE’ caution mean?

A

That the second shaft is powering the flaps

192
Q

What does a ‘FLAP POWER’ caution light mean?

A

The flaps have low hydraulic pressure

193
Q

Maximum Altitude for flaps and gear?

A

15,000ft

194
Q

Is there a stick pusher on the 200?

A

No

195
Q

What powers the 200 lift transducers?

A

DC on ground and AC in flight

196
Q

How many times can the stick pusher push?

A

8-10

197
Q

When is the stick pusher inhibited?

A

Below 400ft

Above 200kt

198
Q

How many loops are on each engine

A

2

199
Q

What does a red disc indicate?

A

Thermal Discharge

200
Q

What speed does the rudder pressure changeover take place?

A

150kt

201
Q

How many seconds after landing will a non critical fault be announced?

A

30 seconds

202
Q

What does a pusher shut off light indicate?

A

Excessive Pressure

203
Q

Auxillary Tank Capacity?

A

4,566lbs

204
Q

Can you over wing refuel with passengers onboard?

A

No

205
Q

What type of fires can you not use the BCFs on?

A

Metal

206
Q

Where are the fire discharge discs?

A

Left inboard below the flap

207
Q

How long does the PBE last

A

15 min

208
Q

What lights do the emergency lights power?

A

Egress
Floor Strip
Exit Signs

209
Q

What powers external lights?

A

28VDC

210
Q

What is the power turbine?

A

Two stage axial

211
Q

What is the compressor turbine?

A

Two stage centrifugal

212
Q

What is low engine oil pressure?

A

42 psi

213
Q

Radius for a 180 degree turn?

A

22.56m

214
Q

Va?

A

177kts

215
Q

Vb?

A

190kts/180kts

216
Q

If both AC 400hz Inverters fail can the system be powered?

A

Yes, the system can be powered by the Aux Inverter

217
Q

If the AC 400hz Primary Inverter fails with the switch in the right hand position what busses are lost?

A

No busses are lost as the two main busses are tied together at all times.

218
Q

VMO?

A

243/242

219
Q

How many amps are the batteries rated at?

A

100amps

220
Q

What NP do the AC Gens come online?

A

400NP

221
Q

What % torque does AF arm?

A

38%

222
Q

If the BBPU is required to work what caution light will you see?

A

DC GEN

223
Q

Normal Fuel Temp Range?

A

11 degrees - 57 degrees

224
Q

What pumps supply fuel in normal operations?

A

The engine driven pump working with the boost ejector pump

225
Q

What pump is used in fuel transfer?

A

The Auxiliary Pump

226
Q

ENG FUEL PRESS caution light illuminates when?

A

The inlet pressure to the engine driven fuel pump is below 5.5psi

227
Q

Where is the AUX fuel pump located?

A

In the collector bay

228
Q

What does a fuel filter bypass mean?

A

The HP Fuel Filter is bypassed.

229
Q

What temp is engine intake heat inhibited at?

A

15 degrees

230
Q

Where is the Synchrophase switch located?

A

In front of the F/O

231
Q

What does pulling the T Handles do?

A

Shuts off Fuel
Shuts off Hydraulics
Arms Fire Bottles

232
Q

What are the bleed switches linked to?

A

The Nacelle Shutoff Valve

233
Q

What do wing isolation check valves do in the bleed section?

A

Prevent cross bleeds from the opposite system

234
Q

What is the purpose of the PRSOVs (Pressure Regulator Shut Off Valves?

A

To provide a regulated flow of bleed air during normal operation and to shut off air in non normal situations

235
Q

What does selecting MIN/NORM/MAX do on the overhead panel

A

Controls both PRSOV’s to control the flow rate.

236
Q

What switch controls the PRSOV’s?

A

The packs switches

237
Q

What happens when you select MIN on the bleed selector?

A

The #2 Pack operates at a low capacity and the #1 Pack is shut off

238
Q

What happens when you select NORM on the bleed selector?

A

Both packs operate at a reduced capacity

239
Q

What happens when you select MAX on the bleed selector?

A

Both packs operate at normal pressure.

240
Q

What happens when you get a ‘#1 BLEED HOT’

A

Both the NSOV and HPSOV close.

241
Q

If a Pack exceeds 207 degrees what happens

A

The PRSOV closes

242
Q

FLT COMP DUCT HOT caution light means what?

A

The flight compartment duct has exceeded 88 degrees and will be commanded full cool.

243
Q

If both packs fail, how is cabin ventilation provided?

A

RAM Air through the NACA vent on the tail.

244
Q

On the 200 how much air conditioned air is supplied to each compartment?

A

70% Cabin

30% Flight Deck

245
Q

Minimum Runway Width

A

30 Meters

246
Q

What powers the pitot tubes

A

DC System 28V

247
Q

Rudder steering range?

A

7 degrees either side

248
Q

Nosewheel steering range?

A

60 degrees either side

249
Q

Nosewheel castoring range?

A

60-120 degrees

250
Q

The takeoff warning horn will activate at what torque setting?

A

50%

251
Q

The #1 or #2 ENG FUEL PRESS caution light will illuminate when?

A

When the inlet pressure of the engine driven fuel pump is less than 5.5psi

252
Q

After an engine failure when is the uptrim cancelled?

A

When auto feather is deselected

253
Q

Where are the bypass door switches located?

A

On the engine instrument panel

254
Q

The Beta Backup System helps prevent the propellers entering the beta range when?

A

Whenever the propellers are forward of the ground range

255
Q

Autofeather is triggered when the torque drops below?

A

28%

256
Q

Does the engine driven hydraulic pump have a pressure gauge?

A

No, it can however be deduced in normal operations by system pressure.

257
Q

What is the trigger for the rudder to change from low speed deflections to high speed deflections?

A

Flaps Zero

258
Q

How long does it take for the SAGEM to allign on the ground

A

60 seconds

259
Q

What Altitude does dual mode activate on an ILS

A

1,200ft

260
Q

TCAS RA’s are inhibbited at what altitudes?

A

Below 1,100 on climb

Below 900 on descent

261
Q

Maximum TCAS display range?

A

12NM

262
Q

On descent what altitude TCAS aural advisories be inhibited?

A

400ft

263
Q

When terrain automatically appears on the EADI what range will it be?

A

10NM

264
Q

How long before APU shutdown should you select bleed air off?

A

20 seconds

265
Q

What’s the maximum APU generator load

A

300Amps

266
Q

Where is the APU exhaust located

A

RH Side Tail

267
Q

When an APU fire is detected how long before the fire bottle is discharged?

A

15 seconds

DH8 Avsoft (5 decks)

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