detection of foreign antibodies Flashcards

1
Q

immune alloantibodies

A

formed as a response to exposure to foreign (non-ABO) RBC antigens

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2
Q

naturally occuring alloantibodies

A

formed without exposure to RBC antigens

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3
Q

passively acquired antibodies

A

antibodies produced in one person and transmitted to another via PLASMA containing blood products or IV immunoglobulin( IVIG) or rhogam

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4
Q

autoantibodies

A

directed against RBC antigen on patient’s own cells; normally universal reactivity (ex. anti-U, anti-I)

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5
Q

clinically sig antibodies

A

antibodies that decrease survival of RBC’s that possess the target antigen

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6
Q

ONLY about 1% of the population of recipients has a detectable

A

RBC alloantibody (why we only screen)

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7
Q

85% of D-negative patients develop

A

anti-D when exposed to D antigen

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8
Q

all other antibodies develop in ______ or less of antigen-negative patients when exposed to that antigen

A

3%

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9
Q

2 populations that need to be screened for unexpected antibodies

A

donors of allogenic units and patients scheduled to receive a transfusion

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10
Q

WHEN possible who else should receive a screen

A

OB patients and transplant patients

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11
Q

testing when there is an antibody present MUST include what phase

A

AHG

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12
Q

IAT is enhance with

A

LISS or PEG

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13
Q

enhancement media lowers _____ ________ around the cells allowing IgG to crosslink and form agglutinate

A

zeta potential

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14
Q

If you use LISS there is an additional step

A

read after 37 incubation which can reveal IgG and IgM

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15
Q

what is used to screen transfusion patients

A

2 or 3 cell panel

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16
Q

RBC’s are also type ___ to avoid interference with ABO antibodies

A

O

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17
Q

gel cards

A

used to reduce steps and tech error

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18
Q

in gel cards cells move through ______ and if the antibody bound is it gets stuck in gel; unbound (negative) cells move to bottom

A

IgG

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19
Q

solid phase testing (echo)

A

RBC antigens fixed to wells, 37 incubation with LISS allow binding of patient antibody to antigen on the well surface

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20
Q

solid phase and gel testing reactivity looks opposite of what testing

A

tube testing

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21
Q

low titer antibodies can be missed especially if they show

A

dosage

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22
Q

about 25% of antibodies

A

drop below detectable limit within 7 months (this is why it’s important to put in patient history)

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23
Q

info you may want if ID difficult

A

transfusion history/ preg, major diagnosis, current medications, demographic, previous blood bank history

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24
Q

useful testing in hard cases

A

autocontrol results, DAT results, tube testing

25
Q

varying reaction strengths can point to

A

multiple antibodies or dosage or both

26
Q

positive reactions at multiple phase can suggest

A

multiple antibodies or unusual antibodies

27
Q

to confirm a antibody use

A

3 pos/ 3 neg rule

28
Q

where to start with difficult antibody ID

A

run more cells

29
Q

if there are multiple antibodies present you need to select cells that are

A

positive for antigen you want and negative for antigen that will call interference

30
Q

groups showing dosage

A

duffy, Rh, Kidd, MNS (duffy the kidd monkey loves M and N’s)

31
Q

if your autocontrol is negative

A

you probably have multiple alloantibodies

32
Q

you can use a negative autocontrol as a

A

rule out cell

33
Q

enzymes that alter reactivity of RBC antigens

A

papin, bromelin, ficin, and trypsin

34
Q

groups enhances by enzymes

A

Rh, Kidd, Lewis, I, P

35
Q

groups destroyed by enzymes

A

duffy, MN, Ss, Xg

36
Q

DTT can be used with either

A

plasma or cells

37
Q

DTT breaks

A

disulfide bonds

38
Q

plasma treated with DTT has

A

IgM inactivated

39
Q

ZZAP =

A

DTT + papain

40
Q

ZZAP destroys

A

KELL

41
Q

ZZAP enhances

A

P1 and P

42
Q

adsorption

A

use patient’s red cells with known antigenicity to remove one antibody from the plasma and use remainder to ID underlying antibodies

43
Q

autoadsorption

A

wash patient’s cells, elute present antibody, incubate with plasma (lose reactivity with plasma because autoantibody adsorbed) and plasma can be used for other alloantibodies

44
Q

homologous adsorption

A

patient has low RBC count, they are antigen typed and then a closely matched cell can be used to absorb antibody from plasma

45
Q

differential adsorption

A

absorbs certain antibodies with a known cell and test plasma for any remaining antibodies; choose a cell that has the antigen you want to eliminate and lacks antigen you suspect

46
Q

differential adsorption will absorb every

A

positive antibody

47
Q

cold panel

A

run antibody screen AND autocontrol by adding 3 drops of patient plasma to cells and incubate for 15 min in fridge (cold antibody will be shown here )

48
Q

prewarm

A

the screen and any ID going to be run using plasma and cells that have been warmed to 37 degrees and washed with 37 degrees saline (removed interference from cold antibody)

49
Q

neutralization uses

A

NON RBC substances

50
Q

saliva from a secretor will have lewis and ABH antigens

A

useful for rare ABO subtypes

51
Q

breast milk contains

A

I antigen

52
Q

hydatid cyst fluid, pigeon droppings, and turtle dove egg white

A

neutralize anti-P

53
Q

if you lose reactivity on the enzyme-treated panel

A

suspect an antibody against an antigen that is destroyed by enzymes

54
Q

if control is positive

A

invalid

55
Q

darathumb immunotherapy

A

monoclonal IgG1k that binds CD38

56
Q

CD38 is

A

overexpressed on myeloma plasma cells

57
Q

CD38 is destroyed by

A

ZZAP (will allow other alloantibodies to be seen) (genetic testing is better)

58
Q

if you use ZZAP make sure the patient receives

A

Kell- negative units