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1
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

It is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium.

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2
Q

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

It is oxidase-positive.

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3
Q

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

It is an obligate aerobe but can grow anaerobically using nitrate as a terminal electron acceptor.

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4
Q

Does Pseudomonas aeruginosa form spores?

A

No, it is non-spore-forming.

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5
Q

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa motile, and what type of flagella does it have?

A

Yes, it is motile with a single polar flagellum.

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6
Q

What are key virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Exotoxin A, elastases, pyocyanin, biofilm formation, and antibiotic resistance mechanisms.

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7
Q

What diseases are commonly associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Pneumonia (especially in cystic fibrosis patients), urinary tract infections, burn wound infections, sepsis, and otitis externa (‘swimmer’s ear’).

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8
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

It is ubiquitous in soil, water, and hospital environments; it is an opportunistic pathogen.

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9
Q

How is Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection diagnosed?

A

Through culture showing characteristic blue-green pigment (pyocyanin and pyoverdine), fruity grape-like odor, and being oxidase-positive.

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10
Q

What treatments are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?

A

Combination antibiotics like antipseudomonal penicillins (e.g., piperacillin-tazobactam), ceftazidime, carbapenems, aminoglycosides, and fluoroquinolones due to its resistance.

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11
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Burkholderia pseudomallei?

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium.

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12
Q

Is Burkholderia pseudomallei oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

It is oxidase-positive.

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13
Q

Is Burkholderia pseudomallei aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

It is an aerobic bacterium.

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14
Q

Does Burkholderia pseudomallei form spores?

A

No, it is non-spore-forming.

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15
Q

Is Burkholderia pseudomallei motile, and what type of flagella does it have?

A

Yes, it is motile with polar flagella.

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16
Q

What disease is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei, and what are the symptoms?

A

It causes melioidosis, which can present with fever, pneumonia, abscesses, skin ulcers, and septicemia.

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17
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Burkholderia pseudomallei?

A

Type III secretion system, capsule formation, adhesins, intracellular survival mechanisms, and biofilm formation.

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18
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Burkholderia pseudomallei?

A

It is found in soil and water in tropical and subtropical regions, particularly in Southeast Asia and northern Australia.

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19
Q

How is Burkholderia pseudomallei infection diagnosed?

A

Through culture of clinical specimens, serological tests, and PCR assays for genetic identification.

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20
Q

What treatments are effective against Burkholderia pseudomallei infections?

A

Intensive intravenous antibiotics like ceftazidime or meropenem, followed by prolonged oral therapy with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

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21
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Salmonella typhi?

A

Salmonella typhi is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium.

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22
Q

Is Salmonella typhi oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Salmonella typhi is oxidase-negative.

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23
Q

Is Salmonella typhi aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

It is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

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24
Q

Does Salmonella typhi form spores?

A

No, Salmonella typhi is non-spore-forming.

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25
Q

Is Salmonella typhi motile, and what type of flagella does it have?

A

Yes, it is motile with peritrichous flagella.

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26
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Salmonella typhi, and what are its symptoms?

A

Salmonella typhi causes Typhoid Fever, with symptoms including high fever, headache, stomach pain, diarrhea or constipation, rose-colored spots on the skin, and general malaise.

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27
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Salmonella typhi?

A

Key virulence factors include Vi antigen, Type III secretion system, endotoxins, and adhesins.

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28
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Salmonella typhi?

A

The primary reservoir is humans, particularly chronic carriers.

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29
Q

How is Salmonella typhi infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is made through blood cultures, stool cultures, and urine cultures.

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30
Q

What treatments are effective against Salmonella typhi infections?

A

Antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin, azithromycin, and ceftriaxone are commonly used.

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31
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Salmonella typhi compared to other Salmonella species?

A

Unlike non-typhoidal Salmonella, S. typhi does not ferment lactose, produces the Vi antigen, and is human-specific.

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32
Q

What are the common reservoirs and modes of transmission for Salmonella typhi?

A

Human carriers are the main reservoirs. Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route.

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33
Q

Does Salmonella typhi have any special growth requirements or media for laboratory culture?

A

Yes, it grows on MacConkey agar and Hektoen enteric agar.

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34
Q

What is the role of the Vi antigen in Salmonella typhi?

A

The Vi antigen enhances virulence by preventing phagocytosis.

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35
Q

Can Salmonella typhi form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, S. typhi can form biofilms on surfaces, contributing to chronic infections.

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36
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Non-typhoidal Salmonella?

A

Non-typhoidal Salmonella are Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacteria.

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37
Q

Is Non-typhoidal Salmonella oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

They are oxidase-negative.

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38
Q

Are Non-typhoidal Salmonella aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

They are facultative anaerobes.

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39
Q

Do Non-typhoidal Salmonella form spores?

A

No, they are non-spore-forming.

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40
Q

Are Non-typhoidal Salmonella motile, and what type of flagella do they possess?

A

Yes, they are motile with peritrichous flagella.

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41
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Non-typhoidal Salmonella?

A

They primarily cause gastroenteritis (salmonellosis).

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42
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Non-typhoidal Salmonella?

A

They primarily cause gastroenteritis (salmonellosis).

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43
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Non-typhoidal Salmonella?

A

Key virulence factors include the Type III secretion system, flagella, adhesins, and endotoxins.

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44
Q

What are the primary reservoirs for Non-typhoidal Salmonella?

A

The primary reservoirs are animals, especially poultry and cattle.

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45
Q

How is Non-typhoidal Salmonella infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is made through stool cultures on selective media.

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46
Q

What treatments are effective against Non-typhoidal Salmonella infections?

A

Supportive care is the mainstay, including hydration and electrolyte replacement.

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47
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Non-typhoidal Salmonella compared to Salmonella typhi?

A

Unlike S. typhi, Non-typhoidal Salmonella typically does not cause systemic infection.

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48
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Non-typhoidal Salmonella?

A

Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route, primarily through contaminated food.

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49
Q

Do Non-typhoidal Salmonella have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, they grow well on Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) agar.

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50
Q

Can Non-typhoidal Salmonella form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, they can form biofilms on surfaces, enhancing resistance to antibiotics.

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51
Q

What are the public health implications of Non-typhoidal Salmonella infections?

A

Non-typhoidal Salmonella infections are a significant cause of foodborne illness globally.

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52
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Escherichia coli?

A

Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium.

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53
Q

Is E. coli oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

E. coli is oxidase-negative.

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54
Q

Is Escherichia coli aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

E. coli is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

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55
Q

Does E. coli form spores?

A

No, E. coli is non-spore-forming.

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56
Q

Is E. coli motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, E. coli is motile with peritrichous flagella (flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell).

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57
Q

What diseases are commonly caused by pathogenic Escherichia coli strains, and what are their symptoms?

A

Pathogenic E. coli strains can cause:
* Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs): Symptoms include frequent urge to urinate, burning sensation, cloudy urine, and pelvic pain.
* Gastroenteritis: Characterized by diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea, and vomiting.
* Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS): Severe complication involving acute kidney failure, anemia, and low platelet count.
* Neonatal Meningitis: Symptoms include fever, irritability, poor feeding, and seizures in newborns.
* Septicemia: Systemic infection with symptoms like fever, chills, rapid heartbeat, and low blood pressure.

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58
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Escherichia coli?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Adhesins (e.g., Pili/Fimbriae): Facilitate attachment to host cells.
* Exotoxins (e.g., Shiga toxin in EHEC): Cause cell damage and inhibit protein synthesis.
* Capsule Formation: Protects against phagocytosis.
* Hemolysin Production: Causes lysis of red blood cells.
* Iron Acquisition Systems: Enable survival in iron-limited environments.
* Biofilm Formation: Enhances resistance to antibiotics and host defenses.

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59
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Escherichia coli?

A

The primary reservoirs are the human and animal gastrointestinal tracts, especially in the intestines of humans, cattle, sheep, and other warm-blooded animals.

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60
Q

How is Escherichia coli infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Stool Cultures: For gastrointestinal infections, using selective media like MacConkey agar.
* Urine Cultures: For UTIs, typically grown on CLED agar.
* Blood Cultures: In cases of septicemia.
* Biochemical Tests: Such as IMViC tests (Indole, Methyl Red, Voges-Proskauer, Citrate).
* Molecular Methods: PCR assays for specific virulence genes.
* Serotyping: To identify specific O and H antigens in strains like EHEC.

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61
Q

What treatments are effective against Escherichia coli infections?

A

Treatment varies based on the type of infection:
* Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs): Antibiotics such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, ciprofloxacin, or nitrofurantoin.
* Gastroenteritis: Mainly supportive care including hydration and electrolyte replacement. Antibiotics are generally avoided in EHEC infections to prevent Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS).
* Severe Infections (e.g., Septicemia): Intravenous antibiotics like third-generation cephalosporins or carbapenems.
* Neonatal Meningitis: Intravenous antibiotics such as ampicillin and gentamicin.
* Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS): Supportive treatments including dialysis and transfusions; antibiotics are not typically used.

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62
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Escherichia coli compared to other Enterobacteriaceae?

A

E. coli distinguishes itself by:
* Fermentation of Lactose: It ferments lactose on MacConkey agar, producing pink colonies.
* Indole Production: Many strains are indole-positive, differentiating them from other Enterobacteriaceae.
* Methyl Red Positive: It exhibits a positive methyl red test in the IMViC series.
* Specific Serotypes: Such as O157, which is associated with EHEC and severe gastrointestinal disease.
* Rapid Growth: It grows rapidly on common laboratory media, facilitating swift identification.

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63
Q

What are the common reservoirs and modes of transmission for Escherichia coli?

A

Common reservoirs include:
* Humans: Especially those who are asymptomatic carriers.
* Animals: Particularly livestock like cattle, sheep, and pigs.
* Environment: Contaminated water, soil, and food sources (e.g., undercooked beef, raw vegetables).
* Fecal-Oral Route: Transmission occurs through ingestion of contaminated food or water, person-to-person contact, or contact with animal feces.

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64
Q

Do Escherichia coli have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, E. coli grows well on:
* MacConkey Agar: As a lactose fermenter, it forms pink colonies.
* Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) Agar: Produces metallic green sheen colonies indicative of E. coli.
* Nutrient Agar: Supports general growth.
* Selective Media: For isolating specific strains, such as TCBS agar for EHEC.
* Incubation Conditions: Typically grown at 37°C in aerobic environments, though it can grow as a facultative anaerobe.

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65
Q

Can Escherichia coli form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, E. coli can form biofilms on surfaces such as:
* Medical Devices: Including catheters, endotracheal tubes, and implants, leading to nosocomial infections.
* Industrial Settings: On food processing equipment, contributing to food contamination.
* Environmental Surfaces: In water distribution systems, causing persistent contamination.
Significance:
* Increased Resistance: Biofilms protect E. coli from antibiotics and immune responses.
* Chronic Infections: Facilitate persistent infections and recurrence.
* Enhanced Survival: Allow E. coli to survive in harsh environmental conditions.

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66
Q

What are the public health implications of Escherichia coli infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Foodborne Outbreaks: Contaminated food products can lead to widespread gastroenteritis and severe complications.
* Antibiotic Resistance: The emergence of multi-drug resistant (MDR) E. coli strains complicates treatment and control.
* Healthcare-Associated Infections (HAIs): E. coli can cause UTIs and septicemia in hospital settings, increasing morbidity and mortality.
* Economic Burden: Costs related to medical treatment, outbreak management, and losses in the food industry.
* Surveillance and Prevention: Importance of hygiene practices, proper food handling, safe water supply, and antibiotic stewardship to control and prevent E. coli infections.

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67
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of MNEC?

A

MNEC is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium.

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68
Q

Is MNEC oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

MNEC is oxidase-negative.

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69
Q

Is MNEC aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

MNEC is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

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70
Q

Does MNEC form spores?

A

No, MNEC is non-spore-forming.

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71
Q

Is MNEC motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, MNEC is motile with peritrichous flagella.

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72
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by MNEC, and what are their symptoms?

A

MNEC primarily causes neonatal meningitis, with symptoms including: * Fever * Irritability * Poor Feeding * Seizures * Bulging Fontanelle in infants * Sepsis. It can also cause septicemia and pneumonia in neonates.

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73
Q

What are the key virulence factors of MNEC?

A

Key virulence factors include: * K1 Capsule (Polysialic Acid): Antiphagocytic and aids in crossing the blood-brain barrier. * IbeA (Invasion of Brain Endothelial Cells A): Facilitates invasion into the central nervous system. * Fimbriae (e.g., FimH): Promote adherence to host cells. * Hemolysin: Causes lysis of red and white blood cells. * IgA Protease: Evades the host immune system. * Type 1 and Type 3 Secretion Systems: For injecting effector proteins into host cells.

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74
Q

What is the primary reservoir for MNEC?

A

The primary reservoir is the human gastrointestinal tract, particularly in infants as part of the normal flora. MNEC can also be found in environmental sources and hospital settings.

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75
Q

How is MNEC infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include: * Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Culture: Isolation of E. coli from CSF. * Blood Cultures: Detection of E. coli in blood. * Lumbar Puncture: For CSF analysis. * PCR Assays: For specific virulence genes (e.g., k1, ibeA). * Serotyping: Identification of O18 serotype. * Microscopic Examination: CSF analysis showing pleocytosis, low glucose, high protein.

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76
Q

What treatments are effective against MNEC infections?

A

Antibiotics commonly used include: * Third-Generation Cephalosporins (e.g., Cefotaxime, Ceftriaxone) * Ampicillin-Sulbactam. Supportive Care: Includes intravenous fluids, anticonvulsants for seizures, management of sepsis, and monitoring for neurological complications.

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77
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of MNEC compared to other E. coli strains?

A

MNEC strains: * Possess the K1 capsule which is critical for virulence. * Have specific virulence genes like ibeA. * Are often associated with the O18 serotype. * Exhibit the ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and cause invasive disease. * Are commonly linked to neonatal infections rather than gastrointestinal or urinary infections.

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78
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for MNEC?

A

Transmission typically occurs via: * Vertical Transmission: From the mother to the newborn during birth. * Environmental Exposure: In neonatal intensive care units. * Contaminated Medical Equipment: Such as ventilators and central lines. * Direct Contact: With infected individuals or contaminated surfaces.

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79
Q

Do MNEC have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

MNEC grows on standard MacConkey agar (as a lactose fermenter, forming pink colonies) and Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar (producing metallic green sheen). Serotyping for K1 antigen and PCR-based methods for virulence genes are used for specific identification.

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80
Q

Can MNEC form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, MNEC can form biofilms on: * Medical Devices (e.g., central lines, ventilators) * Catheters. Significance: * Increased Antibiotic Resistance * Persistent Infections * Protection from Host Immune Responses * Facilitation of Chronic Carriage and Nosocomial Infections.

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81
Q

What are the public health implications of MNEC infections?

A

MNEC infections lead to: * Neonatal Morbidity and Mortality * Long-term Neurological Sequelae in survivors (e.g., cerebral palsy) * Hospital-Acquired Infections, necessitating strict infection control measures * Economic Burden due to medical costs and long-term care. Prevention Measures: Emphasize hygiene practices, screening and decolonization of carriers, strict sterilization protocols, and antibiotic stewardship to prevent resistance.

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82
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Yersinia enterocolitica?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium.

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83
Q

Is Yersinia enterocolitica oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica is oxidase-negative.

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84
Q

Is Yersinia enterocolitica aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

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85
Q

Does Yersinia enterocolitica form spores?

A

No, Yersinia enterocolitica is non-spore-forming.

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86
Q

Is Yersinia enterocolitica motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Yersinia enterocolitica is motile at temperatures below 30°C with peritrichous flagella. However, it is non-motile at 37°C.

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87
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Yersinia enterocolitica, and what are their symptoms?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica primarily causes yersiniosis, characterized by:
* Gastroenteritis: Symptoms include diarrhea (often bloody), abdominal pain (often mimicking appendicitis), fever, and vomiting.
* Septicemia: Especially in immunocompromised individuals, leading to systemic infection.
* Reactive Arthritis and Erythema Nodosum: Post-infectious complications.
* Pseudoappendicitis: Due to mesenteric lymphadenitis.

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88
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Yersinia enterocolitica?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Yersinia outer proteins (Yops): Involved in inhibiting phagocytosis and modulating host immune responses.
* Invasin: Facilitates adherence and invasion of host cells.
* Ail Protein: Mediates attachment to host cells.
* F1 Capsule: Protects against phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis.
* Type III Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells to disrupt cytoskeletal structure and immune signaling.

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89
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Yersinia enterocolitica?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Pigs: Especially the tonsils, making pork products a common source.
* Contaminated Water: Freshwater sources can harbor the bacteria.
* Raw or Undercooked Meat: Particularly pork.
* Contaminated Milk and Dairy Products.
* Wild Animals: Such as rodents and birds can also act as reservoirs.

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90
Q

How is Yersinia enterocolitica infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Stool Cultures: Using selective media like Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) agar.
* Biochemical Tests: Fermentation of sorbitol differentiates from other Yersinia species.
* PCR Assays: For specific virulence genes (e.g., ail, inv).
* Serological Tests: Detection of IgM antibodies against Yersinia enterocolitica.
* Histopathological Examination: From biopsies in severe cases.

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91
Q

What treatments are effective against Yersinia enterocolitica infections?

A

Treatment varies based on severity:
* Mild Cases: Typically self-limiting; supportive care including hydration and rest.
* Severe or Systemic Infections: Antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) or third-generation cephalosporins (e.g., ceftriaxone).
* In Cases of Reactive Arthritis: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may be used for symptom management.

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92
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Yersinia enterocolitica compared to other Yersinia species?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica distinguishes itself by:
* Fermentation of Sorbitol: Unlike Y. pestis, it ferments sorbitol.
* Temperature-Dependent Motility: Motile at <30°C, non-motile at 37°C.
* Presence of F1 Antigen: Present in Y. pestis, absent in Y. enterocolitica.
* Growth on CIN Agar: Produces blue colonies with a red center, distinguishing it from Y. pestis.
* Source Association: Primarily associated with pigs and pork products.

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93
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Yersinia enterocolitica?

A

Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route through:
* Consumption of Contaminated Food: Especially raw or undercooked pork.
* Contaminated Water: Ingesting contaminated freshwater.
* Direct Contact: With infected animals or human carriers.
* Person-to-Person Transmission: Less common, primarily in settings with poor hygiene.

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94
Q

Do Yersinia enterocolitica have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Yersinia enterocolitica grows well on:
* Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) Agar: Selective for Yersinia species.
* MacConkey Agar: As a lactose non-fermenter, forming colorless colonies.
* Iron-Restricted Media: Enhances capsule formation.
* Cold Temperatures: Optimal growth at 25°C, which mimics environmental conditions.
* Selective Supplementation: With sorbitol to differentiate from other species.

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95
Q

Can Yersinia enterocolitica form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Yersinia enterocolitica can form biofilms on:
* Medical Devices: Such as catheters and implants.
* Environmental Surfaces: Including water pipes and food processing equipment.
* Intestinal Mucosa: During infection.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms protect bacteria from antibiotics and immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and recurrence.
* Environmental Survival: Enhance resilience in harsh conditions, aiding in transmission.

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96
Q

What are the public health implications of Yersinia enterocolitica infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Foodborne Outbreaks: Especially associated with pork products leading to gastroenteritis.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to medical treatment, outbreak management, and food industry losses.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Emerging multi-drug resistant strains complicate treatment.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of food safety practices, hygiene measures, and public awareness to prevent and control infections.
* Impact on Vulnerable Populations: Higher morbidity in immunocompromised individuals, children, and elderly.

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97
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium.

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98
Q

Is Yersinia pseudotuberculosis oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is oxidase-negative.

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99
Q

Is Yersinia pseudotuberculosis aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

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100
Q

Does Yersinia pseudotuberculosis form spores?

A

No, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is non-spore-forming.

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101
Q

Is Yersinia pseudotuberculosis motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is motile at temperatures below 30°C with peritrichous flagella. It is non-motile at 37°C (human body temperature).

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102
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis, and what are their symptoms?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis causes yersiniosis, presenting with:
* Pseudotuberculosis: Resembles tuberculosis with lymphadenitis.
* Gastroenteritis: Symptoms include fever, abdominal pain, diarrhea (sometimes bloody), and vomiting.
* Reactive Arthritis: Post-infectious complication causing joint inflammation.
* Septicemia: Especially in immunocompromised individuals, leading to systemic infection.

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103
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Yersinia outer proteins (Yops): Inhibit phagocytosis and modulate immune responses.
* Invasin: Facilitates adherence and invasion of host cells.
* Ail Protein: Mediates attachment to host cells.
* Psa (Pilin): Assists in colonization.
* Type III Secretion System: Injects effector proteins to disrupt host cell processes.
* F1-like Capsule: Provides protection against host defenses.

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104
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Wild Animals: Such as rodents, birds, and squirrels.
* Contaminated Water: Freshwater sources can harbor the bacteria.
* Food Products: Including raw vegetables, fruits, and meat.
* Environmental Sources: Like soil and water contaminated with animal feces.

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105
Q

How is Yersinia pseudotuberculosis infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Stool Cultures: Using selective media like Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) agar.
* Biochemical Tests: Non-fermenter on MacConkey agar, positive for citrate utilization.
* PCR Assays: For specific virulence genes (e.g., yop genes).
* Serological Tests: Detection of IgM antibodies against Yersinia pseudotuberculosis.
* Histopathological Examination: From biopsies showing granulomatous inflammation.

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106
Q

What treatments are effective against Yersinia pseudotuberculosis infections?

A

Treatment varies based on severity:
* Mild Cases: Typically self-limiting; supportive care including hydration and rest.
* Severe or Systemic Infections: Antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin), third-generation cephalosporins (e.g., ceftriaxone), or aminoglycosides.
* Post-Infectious Complications: Anti-inflammatory agents may be used for conditions like reactive arthritis.

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107
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis compared to other Yersinia species?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis distinguishes itself by:
* Environmental Persistence: More commonly found in environmental reservoirs compared to Y. pestis.
* Similarity to Y. enterocolitica: Shares many features but differs in host specificity and clinical presentations.
* Growth at Low Temperatures: Motile at <30°C, non-motile at 37°C, similar to Y. enterocolitica.
* Biochemical Characteristics: Utilizes citrate, which can help differentiate it from other species.
* Absence of F1 Antigen: Unlike Y. pestis, it does not produce the F1 capsule.

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108
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?

A

Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route through:
* Consumption of Contaminated Food: Including raw vegetables, fruits, and meat.
* Contaminated Water: Ingesting contaminated freshwater sources.
* Direct Contact: With infected animals or environmental sources.
* Person-to-Person Transmission: Rare, primarily in settings with poor hygiene.

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109
Q

Do Yersinia pseudotuberculosis have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis grows well on:
* Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) Agar: Selective for Yersinia species.
* MacConkey Agar: As a lactose non-fermenter, forming colorless colonies.
* Cold Temperatures: Optimal growth at 25°C for motility.
* Biochemical Differentiation: Ability to utilize citrate helps differentiate from other Yersinia species.

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110
Q

Can Yersinia pseudotuberculosis form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis can form biofilms on:
* Medical Devices: Such as catheters and implants.
* Environmental Surfaces: Including water pipes and food processing equipment.
* Intestinal Mucosa: During infection.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms protect bacteria from antibiotics and immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and recurrence.
* Environmental Survival: Enhance resilience in harsh conditions, aiding in transmission.

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111
Q

What are the public health implications of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Foodborne Outbreaks: Associated with contaminated vegetables, fruits, and meat, leading to gastroenteritis and systemic infections.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to medical treatment, outbreak management, and food industry losses.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Emerging multi-drug resistant strains complicate treatment.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of food safety practices, hygiene measures, and public awareness to prevent and control infections.
* Impact on Vulnerable Populations: Higher morbidity in immunocompromised individuals, children, and elderly.

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112
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Yersinia pestis?

A

Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium.

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113
Q

Is Yersinia pestis oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Yersinia pestis is oxidase-negative.

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114
Q

Is Yersinia pestis aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Yersinia pestis is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

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115
Q

Does Yersinia pestis form spores?

A

No, Yersinia pestis is non-spore-forming.

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116
Q

Is Yersinia pestis motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Yersinia pestis is motile at temperatures below 30°C with peritrichous flagella. However, it is non-motile at 37°C.

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117
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Yersinia pestis, and what are their symptoms?

A

Yersinia pestis causes Plague, which manifests in three main forms:
* Bubonic Plague: Characterized by swollen lymph nodes (buboes), fever, chills, headache, and fatigue.
* Septicemic Plague: Involves septicemia, leading to fever, chills, extreme weakness, abdominal pain, shock, and bleeding into the skin and other organs.
* Pneumonic Plague: Affects the lungs, causing severe pneumonia, cough, blood-tinged sputum, fever, and can lead to respiratory failure.

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118
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Yersinia pestis?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Yersinia Outer Proteins (Yops): Inhibit phagocytosis and modulate host immune responses.
* F1 Capsule: Protects against phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis.
* Pla (Plasminogen Activator): Facilitates invasion of host tissues and spread within the body.
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.
* Type III Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells to disrupt cellular processes.
* Iron Acquisition Systems: Enable survival in iron-limited environments within the host.

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119
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Yersinia pestis?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Wild Rodents: Such as rats, mice, and squirrels.
* Fleas: Specifically Xenopsylla cheopis acts as a vector.
* Domestic Animals: Like cats, dogs, and horses can become infected and transmit the disease to humans.
* Environmental Sources: Including soil and water contaminated with flea feces containing Y. pestis.

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120
Q

How is Yersinia pestis infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms and epidemiological factors.
* Microscopy: Gram stain of blood, sputum, or lymph node aspirates showing Gram-negative rods with a ‘safety pin’ appearance.
* Culture: Isolation of Y. pestis from blood, sputum, or lymph node aspirates on citrate-malate agar.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detection of specific genetic markers.
* Serological Tests: Such as immunofluorescence and ELISA to detect antibodies against Y. pestis.
* Rapid Diagnostic Tests: Including latex agglutination for F1 antigen detection.

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121
Q

What treatments are effective against Yersinia pestis infections?

A

Antibiotics are crucial and must be administered early to be effective. Common treatments include:
* Streptomycin: The drug of choice.
* Gentamicin: An effective alternative to streptomycin.
* Doxycycline: Used for treatment and prophylaxis.
* Ciprofloxacin: A fluoroquinolone option.
* Chloramphenicol: An older antibiotic still effective but used less frequently due to side effects.
Supportive Care: Includes hydration, management of shock, and respiratory support in cases of pneumonic plague.

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122
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Yersinia pestis compared to other Yersinia species?

A

Yersinia pestis distinguishes itself by:
* F1 Capsule Production: A polysaccharide capsule that is unique to Y. pestis and enhances virulence.
* Bipolar Staining: Exhibits a ‘safety pin’ appearance under Wayson’s stain.
* Temperature-Dependent Motility: Motile at <30°C, non-motile at 37°C.
* Rapid Growth at Low Temperatures: Grows rapidly on citrate-malate agar.
* Unique Virulence Factors: Such as Pla, which are not present in other Yersinia species.

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123
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Yersinia pestis?

A

Transmission occurs via:
* Flea Bites: The primary mode, where infected fleas transmit Y. pestis from rodents to humans.
* Direct Contact: With infected animals or contaminated animal tissues.
* Inhalation: Of respiratory droplets from infected individuals.
* Consumption: Of contaminated food (rare), such as undercooked meat from infected animals.

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124
Q

Do Yersinia pestis have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Yersinia pestis grows well on:
* Citrate-Malate Agar: Selective for Y. pestis due to its ability to utilize citrate and malate.
* Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) Agar: Supports growth by providing necessary growth factors.
* MacConkey Agar: Forms colorless colonies as a lactose non-fermenter.
* Low-Temperature Incubation: Optimal growth at 28-30°C for motility studies.
* Selective Supplements: Including iron-chelating agents to enhance growth.

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125
Q

Can Yersinia pestis form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Yersinia pestis can form biofilms on:
* Flea Foreguts: Essential for the blockage of flea digestive tracts.
* Environmental Surfaces: Such as rodent burrows and contaminated materials.
* Medical Devices: Like catheters, though this is less common.
Significance:
* Transmission Enhancement: Biofilms in fleas cause blockage, leading to regurgitation of bacteria during feeding.
* Environmental Persistence: Biofilms protect Y. pestis from environmental stresses and antimicrobial agents.
* Resistance to Host Defenses: Biofilm-associated bacteria are more resistant to phagocytosis and antibiotic treatment.

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126
Q

What are the public health implications of Yersinia pestis infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Potential for Epidemics and Pandemics: Due to high mortality rates if untreated.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: Yersinia pestis is classified as a Category A bioterrorism agent.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to outbreak control, treatment, and prevention measures.
* Surveillance and Control: Necessitates robust public health surveillance and rapid diagnostic capabilities.
* Impact on Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk and severe outcomes in immunocompromised individuals.
* Environmental Management: Control of rodent populations and flea vectors to reduce transmission risks.

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127
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Yersinia pestis?

A

Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium.

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128
Q

Is Yersinia pestis oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Yersinia pestis is oxidase-negative.

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129
Q

Is Yersinia pestis aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Yersinia pestis is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

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130
Q

Does Yersinia pestis form spores?

A

No, Yersinia pestis is non-spore-forming.

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131
Q

Is Yersinia pestis motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Yersinia pestis is motile at temperatures below 30°C with peritrichous flagella. However, it is non-motile at 37°C.

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132
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Yersinia pestis, and what are their symptoms?

A

Yersinia pestis causes Plague, which manifests in three main forms:
* Bubonic Plague: Characterized by swollen lymph nodes (buboes), fever, chills, headache, and fatigue.
* Septicemic Plague: Involves septicemia, leading to fever, chills, extreme weakness, abdominal pain, shock, and bleeding into the skin and other organs.
* Pneumonic Plague: Affects the lungs, causing severe pneumonia, cough, blood-tinged sputum, fever, and can lead to respiratory failure.

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133
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Yersinia pestis?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Yersinia Outer Proteins (Yops): Inhibit phagocytosis and modulate host immune responses.
* F1 Capsule: Protects against phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis.
* Pla (Plasminogen Activator): Facilitates invasion of host tissues and spread within the body.
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.
* Type III Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells to disrupt cellular processes.
* Iron Acquisition Systems: Enable survival in iron-limited environments within the host.

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1
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134
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Yersinia pestis?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Wild Rodents: Such as rats, mice, and squirrels.
* Fleas: Specifically Xenopsylla cheopis acts as a vector.
* Domestic Animals: Like cats, dogs, and horses can become infected and transmit the disease to humans.
* Environmental Sources: Including soil and water contaminated with flea feces containing Y. pestis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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135
Q

How is Yersinia pestis infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms and epidemiological factors.
* Microscopy: Gram stain of blood, sputum, or lymph node aspirates showing Gram-negative rods with a ‘safety pin’ appearance.
* Culture: Isolation of Y. pestis from blood, sputum, or lymph node aspirates on citrate-malate agar.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detection of specific genetic markers.
* Serological Tests: Such as immunofluorescence and ELISA to detect antibodies against Y. pestis.
* Rapid Diagnostic Tests: Including latex agglutination for F1 antigen detection.

How well did you know this?
1
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2
3
4
5
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136
Q

What treatments are effective against Yersinia pestis infections?

A

Antibiotics are crucial and must be administered early to be effective. Common treatments include:
* Streptomycin: The drug of choice.
* Gentamicin: An effective alternative to streptomycin.
* Doxycycline: Used for treatment and prophylaxis.
* Ciprofloxacin: A fluoroquinolone option.
* Chloramphenicol: An older antibiotic still effective but used less frequently due to side effects.
Supportive Care: Includes hydration, management of shock, and respiratory support in cases of pneumonic plague.

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1
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2
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137
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Yersinia pestis compared to other Yersinia species?

A

Yersinia pestis distinguishes itself by:
* F1 Capsule Production: A polysaccharide capsule that is unique to Y. pestis and enhances virulence.
* Bipolar Staining: Exhibits a ‘safety pin’ appearance under Wayson’s stain.
* Temperature-Dependent Motility: Motile at <30°C, non-motile at 37°C.
* Rapid Growth at Low Temperatures: Grows rapidly on citrate-malate agar.
* Unique Virulence Factors: Such as Pla, which are not present in other Yersinia species.

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1
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138
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Yersinia pestis?

A

Transmission occurs via:
* Flea Bites: The primary mode, where infected fleas transmit Y. pestis from rodents to humans.
* Direct Contact: With infected animals or contaminated animal tissues.
* Inhalation: Of respiratory droplets from infected individuals.
* Consumption: Of contaminated food (rare), such as undercooked meat from infected animals.

How well did you know this?
1
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2
3
4
5
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139
Q

Do Yersinia pestis have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Yersinia pestis grows well on:
* Citrate-Malate Agar: Selective for Y. pestis due to its ability to utilize citrate and malate.
* Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) Agar: Supports growth by providing necessary growth factors.
* MacConkey Agar: Forms colorless colonies as a lactose non-fermenter.
* Low-Temperature Incubation: Optimal growth at 28-30°C for motility studies.
* Selective Supplements: Including iron-chelating agents to enhance growth.

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1
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2
3
4
5
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140
Q

Can Yersinia pestis form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Yersinia pestis can form biofilms on:
* Flea Foreguts: Essential for the blockage of flea digestive tracts.
* Environmental Surfaces: Such as rodent burrows and contaminated materials.
* Medical Devices: Like catheters, though this is less common.
Significance:
* Transmission Enhancement: Biofilms in fleas cause blockage, leading to regurgitation of bacteria during feeding.
* Environmental Persistence: Biofilms protect Y. pestis from environmental stresses and antimicrobial agents.
* Resistance to Host Defenses: Biofilm-associated bacteria are more resistant to phagocytosis and antibiotic treatment.

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141
Q

What are the public health implications of Yersinia pestis infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Potential for Epidemics and Pandemics: Due to high mortality rates if untreated.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: Yersinia pestis is classified as a Category A bioterrorism agent.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to outbreak control, treatment, and prevention measures.
* Surveillance and Control: Necessitates robust public health surveillance and rapid diagnostic capabilities.
* Impact on Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk and severe outcomes in immunocompromised individuals.
* Environmental Management: Control of rodent populations and flea vectors to reduce transmission risks.

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142
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Campylobacter jejuni is a Gram-negative, spiral-shaped (curved or S-shaped) bacterium.

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143
Q

Is Campylobacter jejuni oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Campylobacter jejuni is oxidase-positive.

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144
Q

Is Campylobacter jejuni aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Campylobacter jejuni is a microaerophilic bacterium, requiring reduced oxygen levels (about 5% oxygen) and increased carbon dioxide (about 10%) for optimal growth.

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145
Q

Does Campylobacter jejuni form spores?

A

No, Campylobacter jejuni is non-spore-forming.

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146
Q

Is Campylobacter jejuni motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Campylobacter jejuni is motile with polar flagella (flagella located at one or both ends of the bacterium), which facilitate its movement through viscous environments like mucus.

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147
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Campylobacter jejuni, and what are their symptoms?

A

Campylobacter jejuni primarily causes Campylobacteriosis, characterized by:
* Diarrhea (often bloody)
* Abdominal cramps
* Fever
* Nausea and vomiting
* Headache
* Malaise
In some cases, it can lead to post-infectious complications such as Guillain-Barré Syndrome.

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148
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Flagella: Facilitate motility and colonization.
* Adhesins (e.g., CadF, FlpA): Promote adherence to intestinal epithelial cells.
* Cytolethal Distending Toxin (CDT): Causes cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in host cells.
* Capsule Formation: Protects against phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis.
* Lipooligosaccharides (LOS): Mimic host gangliosides, contributing to molecular mimicry and autoimmune responses.
* Iron Acquisition Systems: Enable survival in iron-limited environments within the host.

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149
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Campylobacter jejuni?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Poultry (especially chickens): C. jejuni is commonly found in the intestines of poultry.
* Cattle and Other Livestock
* Wild Birds
* Contaminated Water Sources
* Raw or Undercooked Meat: Particularly poultry products.
* Unpasteurized Milk and Dairy Products.

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150
Q

How is Campylobacter jejuni infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Stool Cultures: Grown on selective media like Campy Agar or Skirrow’s Agar under microaerophilic conditions.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects specific virulence genes.
* Serological Tests: Detection of antibodies against C. jejuni.
* Microscopic Examination: Gram-negative spiral rods may be seen in stool samples.
* Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA): For antigen detection.

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151
Q

What treatments are effective against Campylobacter jejuni infections?

A

Treatment primarily involves supportive care:
* Hydration: Oral or intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration.
* Electrolyte Replacement
Antibiotic Therapy: Reserved for severe cases or immunocompromised patients and may include:
* Macrolides (e.g., Azithromycin): First-line antibiotics.
* Fluoroquinolones (e.g., Ciprofloxacin): Alternative option, though resistance is increasing.
* Tetracyclines (e.g., Doxycycline): Used in some cases.
Note: Antibiotics are generally not recommended for mild cases to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.

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152
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Campylobacter jejuni compared to other Campylobacter species?

A

Campylobacter jejuni distinguishes itself by:
* Optimal Growth at Microaerophilic Conditions: Unlike some other species that may have different oxygen requirements.
* Presence of Cytolethal Distending Toxin (CDT): Not all Campylobacter species produce this toxin.
* Clinical Association: Primarily associated with gastroenteritis in humans, whereas other species may cause different clinical manifestations.
* Flagellar Structure: Polar flagella aiding in motility.
* Prevalence in Poultry: C. jejuni is more commonly associated with poultry compared to other Campylobacter species.

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153
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route through:
* Consumption of Contaminated Food: Especially undercooked poultry, raw milk, and contaminated water.
* Direct Contact: With infected animals or person-to-person in settings with poor hygiene.
* Cross-Contamination: From raw to cooked foods during food preparation.

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154
Q

Do Campylobacter jejuni have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Campylobacter jejuni has specific growth requirements:
* Microaerophilic Atmosphere: Requires reduced oxygen levels (approximately 5% O₂) and increased carbon dioxide (about 10% CO₂).
* Selective Media: Such as Campy Agar or Skirrow’s Agar containing antibiotics to inhibit competing flora.
* Optimal Temperature: Typically grown at 42°C, which enhances its growth over other bacteria.
* Incubation Time: Longer incubation periods may be required (48 hours) compared to other Enterobacteriaceae.

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155
Q

Can Campylobacter jejuni form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Campylobacter jejuni can form biofilms on:
* Food Processing Equipment: Contributing to persistent contamination in the food industry.
* Medical Devices: Such as catheters and implants, leading to nosocomial infections.
* Environmental Surfaces: In water distribution systems, aiding in environmental persistence.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms protect C. jejuni from antibiotics and host immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and recurrence of infections.
* Enhanced Survival: Allow C. jejuni to withstand harsh environmental conditions, aiding in transmission.

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156
Q

What are the public health implications of Campylobacter jejuni infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Foodborne Outbreaks: C. jejuni is one of the most common causes of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to medical treatment, outbreak management, and food industry losses.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Rising fluoroquinolone-resistant strains complicate treatment.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of food safety practices, proper cooking of poultry, cross-contamination prevention, and public education to reduce infection rates.
* Impact on Vulnerable Populations: Higher morbidity in children, elderly, and immunocompromised individuals.
* Post-Infectious Complications: Potential development of Guillain-Barré Syndrome, which can lead to neurological disability.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize hygiene practices, safe food handling, adequate cooking of poultry, contaminated water control, and antibiotic stewardship to mitigate the spread and impact of C. jejuni infections.

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157
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Helicobacter pylori?

A

Helicobacter pylori is a Gram-negative, spiral-shaped (helical or S-shaped) bacterium.

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158
Q

Is Helicobacter pylori oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Helicobacter pylori is oxidase-positive.

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159
Q

Is Helicobacter pylori aerobic, anaerobic, or microaerophilic?

A

Helicobacter pylori is microaerophilic, requiring reduced oxygen levels (approximately 5% O₂) and increased carbon dioxide (about 10% CO₂) for optimal growth.

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160
Q

Does Helicobacter pylori form spores?

A

No, Helicobacter pylori is non-spore-forming.

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161
Q

Is Helicobacter pylori motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Helicobacter pylori is motile with multiple polar flagella (flagella located at both ends of the bacterium), which facilitate its movement through the viscous mucus layer of the stomach.

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162
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Helicobacter pylori, and what are their symptoms?

A

Helicobacter pylori primarily causes:
* Gastritis: Inflammation of the stomach lining, leading to abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting.
* Peptic Ulcers: Sores in the stomach or first part of the small intestine, causing burning stomach pain, bloating, heartburn, and nausea.
* Gastric Cancer: Increases the risk of adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma.
* Dyspepsia: General indigestion with symptoms like upper abdominal discomfort, belching, and feeling full quickly.

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163
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Helicobacter pylori?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Urease Enzyme: Converts urea to ammonia and carbon dioxide, neutralizing stomach acid and creating a more hospitable environment.
* Flagella: Enable motility through the mucus layer of the stomach.
* Adhesins (e.g., BabA, SabA): Facilitate attachment to gastric epithelial cells.
* CagA (Cytotoxin-Associated Gene A): Injected into host cells via a Type IV Secretion System, disrupting cellular functions and promoting inflammation.
* VacA (Vacuolating Cytotoxin A): Induces cell vacuolation, apoptosis, and disrupts immune responses.
* Outer Inflammatory Proteins (OipA, etc.): Modulate host immune responses and promote inflammation.
* Lipopolysaccharides (LPS): Trigger immune responses and contribute to inflammation.

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164
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Helicobacter pylori?

A

The primary reservoir is the human stomach. It is typically acquired during childhood and persists lifelong unless treated. Human-to-human transmission is common, potentially via the oral-oral or fecal-oral routes. There is also evidence of animal reservoirs in some cases, but humans are the main hosts.

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165
Q

How is Helicobacter pylori infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Invasive Methods:
* Endoscopy with Biopsy: Allows for direct observation and culture of the bacteria.
* Rapid Urease Test (CLO Test): Detects urease activity from biopsy samples.
* Histological Examination: Identifies bacteria and associated inflammation in tissue samples.
* Culture: Growing H. pylori from biopsy specimens.
* Non-Invasive Methods:
* Urea Breath Test (UBT): Detects active infection by measuring labeled carbon dioxide after ingestion of labeled urea.
* Stool Antigen Test: Detects H. pylori antigens in feces.
* Serological Tests: Detects antibodies against H. pylori, though they cannot distinguish between active and past infections.

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166
Q

What treatments are effective against Helicobacter pylori infections?

A

Helicobacter pylori infections are typically treated with a combination of antibiotics and acid-suppressing medications, known as triple therapy or quadruple therapy:
* Triple Therapy:
* Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI): Such as omeprazole, lansoprazole, or esomeprazole.
* Clarithromycin: A macrolide antibiotic.
* Amoxicillin or Metronidazole: Depending on antibiotic resistance patterns.
* Quadruple Therapy:
* PPI
* Bismuth Subsalicylate: Provides protective coating and antimicrobial effects.
* Metronidazole
* Tetracycline
* Sequential Therapy: Involves taking one set of antibiotics for a few days followed by another set, combined with a PPI.
* Levofloxacin-Based Therapy: An alternative in cases of resistance to standard antibiotics.
Note: Treatment regimens may vary based on local antibiotic resistance patterns and patient-specific factors.

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167
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Helicobacter pylori compared to other Helicobacter species?

A

Helicobacter pylori distinguishes itself by:
* Association with Gastric Diseases: Primarily linked to gastritis, peptic ulcers, and gastric cancer, unlike some other Helicobacter species that may inhabit different parts of the gastrointestinal tract or cause different diseases.
* CagA and VacA Production: High prevalence of these virulence factors compared to other Helicobacter species.
* Colonization of the Human Stomach: H. pylori is uniquely adapted to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach.
* Prevalence: It is the most common Helicobacter species associated with human disease.
* Genetic Diversity: Extensive genetic variability contributing to different disease outcomes.

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168
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Helicobacter pylori?

A

Transmission primarily occurs via the fecal-oral and oral-oral routes, including:
* Person-to-Person Contact: Through saliva, vomit, or fecal contamination of food and water.
* Contaminated Water and Food: Ingesting water or food contaminated with H. pylori from infected individuals.
* Poor Sanitation and Hygiene Practices: Facilitates the spread in crowded or unsanitary environments.
* Household Transmission: High prevalence within families, especially in developing countries.

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169
Q

Do Helicobacter pylori have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Helicobacter pylori has specific growth requirements:
* Microaerophilic Atmosphere: Requires reduced oxygen (5% O₂) and increased carbon dioxide (10% CO₂).
* Selective Media: Such as Brucella agar supplemented with fetal bovine serum, vancomycin, cystine, trimethoprim, and cycloheximide to inhibit contaminating flora.
* Temperature: Optimal growth at 37°C, mimicking the human body temperature.
* Fastidious Growth Requirements: Requires heme and vitamin K1 for growth.
* Helicobacter-Specific Supplements: Including catalase and urease to neutralize stomach acid.

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170
Q

Can Helicobacter pylori form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Helicobacter pylori can form biofilms on:
* Gastric Mucosa: Facilitating persistent colonization of the stomach lining.
* Medical Devices: Such as endoscopes and catheters, leading to nosocomial infections.
* Environmental Surfaces: Contributing to environmental persistence and transmission.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms protect H. pylori from antibiotics and the host immune system.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic colonization and recurrence of infection.
* Protection from Host Defenses: Shield bacteria from phagocytosis and antimicrobial peptides.
* Enhanced Survival: Allow H. pylori to withstand harsh conditions, aiding in transmission and environmental persistence.

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171
Q

What are the public health implications of Helicobacter pylori infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* High Prevalence Worldwide: Affecting over half of the world’s population, especially in developing countries.
* Association with Chronic Diseases: Leading to peptic ulcers, gastric cancer, and MALT lymphoma, contributing to significant morbidity and mortality.
* Economic Burden: Costs related to diagnosis, treatment, hospitalization, and long-term care for complications.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Increasing resistance to commonly used antibiotics like clarithromycin complicates treatment and control efforts.
* Transmission Control: Importance of improved sanitation, clean water supply, and hygiene practices to reduce transmission.
* Screening and Treatment Programs: Necessary to identify and eradicate infections, particularly in high-risk populations to prevent the development of severe gastric diseases.
* Research and Development: Ongoing need for vaccine development and new therapeutic strategies to combat resistant strains.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize hygiene practices, safe food and water consumption, antibiotic stewardship, and public health education to mitigate the spread and impact of H. pylori infections.

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172
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Vibrio cholerae?

A

Vibrio cholerae is a Gram-negative, curved rod-shaped (comma-shaped) bacterium.

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173
Q

Is Vibrio cholerae oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Vibrio cholerae is oxidase-positive.

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174
Q

Is Vibrio cholerae aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Vibrio cholerae is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

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175
Q

Does Vibrio cholerae form spores?

A

No, Vibrio cholerae is non-spore-forming.

176
Q

Is Vibrio cholerae motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Vibrio cholerae is motile with polar flagella (flagella located at both ends of the bacterium), facilitating its movement in aquatic environments.

177
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Vibrio cholerae, and what are its symptoms?

A

Vibrio cholerae causes Cholera, characterized by:
* Profuse Watery Diarrhea (“rice-water stools”)
* Vomiting
* Rapid Dehydration
* Electrolyte Imbalances
* Muscle Cramps
* In severe cases, shock and death if untreated.

178
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Vibrio cholerae?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Cholera Toxin (CTX): Causes cytokine dysregulation and secretion of water and electrolytes into the intestinal lumen.
* Toxin-Coregulated Pilus (TCP): Facilitates adherence to intestinal epithelial cells and biofilm formation.
* Hemagglutinin Proteins: Aid in attachment and colonization.
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.

179
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Vibrio cholerae?

A

The primary reservoirs are humans, particularly in areas with contaminated water sources. Aquatic environments such as brackish water and estuarine regions also harbor V. cholerae.

180
Q

How is Vibrio cholerae infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Stool Culture: Grown on selective media like Thiosulfate-Citrate-Bile Salts-Sucrose (TCBS) agar, producing yellow colonies due to sucrose fermentation.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects cholera toxin genes.
* Rapid Diagnostic Tests: Including dipstick tests for cholera antigens.
* Microscopic Examination: Detection of comma-shaped bacteria in stool samples.

181
Q

What treatments are effective against Vibrio cholerae infections?

A

Supportive Care is crucial:
* Oral Rehydration Therapy (ORT): Replaces lost fluids and electrolytes.
* Intravenous Fluids: In severe dehydration cases.
Antibiotic Therapy:
* Doxycycline
* Azithromycin
* Ciprofloxacin
Note: Antibiotics reduce the duration of diarrhea and bacterial shedding but are adjunct to rehydration.

182
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Vibrio cholerae compared to other Vibrio species?

A

Vibrio cholerae distinguishes itself by:
* Production of Cholera Toxin (CTX)
* Growth on TCBS Agar: Produces yellow colonies due to sucrose fermentation.
* El Tor Biotype: Pandemic strains exhibit hardy characteristics, such as biofilm formation and environmental persistence.
* Association with Cholera Outbreaks: Primarily linked to severe waterborne epidemics.

183
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Vibrio cholerae?

A

Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route through:
* Consumption of Contaminated Water: Especially in regions with poor sanitation.
* Contaminated Food: Such as raw or undercooked seafood, vegetables washed with contaminated water.
* Person-to-Person Contact: In settings with inadequate hygiene practices.
* Environmental Exposure: Contact with contaminated water sources during disasters or lack of clean water.

184
Q

Do Vibrio cholerae have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Vibrio cholerae has specific growth requirements:
* Selective Media: Such as TCBS agar, which contains sucrose, inhibiting non-Vibrio organisms.
* Optimal Temperature: Grows best at 37°C, but some biotypes can grow at 15-42°C.
* Salt Tolerance: Can tolerate 3-6% NaCl, which is higher than many other bacteria.
* Iron Acquisition Systems: Facilitates growth in iron-limited environments like the human intestine.

185
Q

Can Vibrio cholerae form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Vibrio cholerae can form biofilms on:
* Chlorinated Pipes: Enhancing environmental persistence.
* Aquatic Surfaces: Including zooplankton and algae, serving as a reservoir.
* Medical Devices: Such as water distribution systems, leading to contamination.
Significance:
* Enhanced Survival: Protects against environmental stresses and antimicrobial agents.
* Transmission Facilitation: Biofilms on plankton provide a niche for survival and dispersal.
* Resistance to Disinfection: Makes eradication from water sources more challenging.

186
Q

What are the public health implications of Vibrio cholerae infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Global Health Burden: Major cause of diarrheal disease, especially in developing countries with inadequate water and sanitation.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to outbreak management, healthcare, and loss of productivity.
* Potential for Pandemics: Rapid spread in areas with poor infrastructure.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: Vibrio cholerae is considered a potential bioweapon due to its high infectivity and lethality.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of water sanitation, hygiene practices, rapid response to outbreaks, and vaccination in endemic regions.
* Climate Change Impact: Increasing water temperatures and extreme weather events may expand Vibrio habitats, potentially increasing transmission.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize improved sanitation, safe water supply, food safety, public education, and access to rehydration solutions and antibiotics.

187
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus is a Gram-negative, curved rod-shaped (comma-shaped) bacterium.

188
Q

Is Vibrio parahaemolyticus oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus is oxidase-positive.

189
Q

Is Vibrio parahaemolyticus aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

190
Q

Does Vibrio parahaemolyticus form spores?

A

No, Vibrio parahaemolyticus is non-spore-forming.

191
Q

Is Vibrio parahaemolyticus motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Vibrio parahaemolyticus is motile with polar flagella (flagella located at both ends), enabling movement in aquatic environments.

192
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Vibrio parahaemolyticus, and what are its symptoms?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus causes Gastroenteritis, characterized by:
* Diarrhea (often watery or bloody)
* Abdominal Cramps
* Nausea and Vomiting
* Fever
* Headache
In severe cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals, it can lead to septicemia.

193
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Thermostable Direct Hemolysin (TDH): Causes lysis of red blood cells and intestinal epithelial cells.
* TDH-related Hemolysin (TRH): Similar to TDH, contributing to cytotoxicity.
* Type III Secretion System (T3SS): Injects effector proteins into host cells, disrupting cytoskeletal integrity and immune responses.
* Adhesins: Facilitate attachment to intestinal epithelial cells.
* Capsular Polysaccharides: Protect against phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis.
* Iron Acquisition Systems: Enable survival in iron-limited environments within the host.

194
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Marine Environments: Such as seawater and estuarine waters.
* Shellfish: Especially oysters, which accumulate the bacteria from their environment.
* Fish and Other Seafood: Consumed raw or undercooked.
* Aquatic Animals: Including shrimp, crabs, and clams.

195
Q

How is Vibrio parahaemolyticus infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Stool Culture: Grown on selective media like TCBS agar, producing green colonies due to TCBS selectivity.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects virulence genes such as tdh and trh.
* Biochemical Tests: Positive for sucrose fermentation, alkaline peptone water growth.
* Serological Tests: Detection of antibodies against V. parahaemolyticus.
* Microscopic Examination: Detection of comma-shaped bacteria in stool samples.

196
Q

What treatments are effective against Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections?

A

Supportive Care is the primary treatment:
* Hydration: Oral or intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration.
* Electrolyte Replacement
Antibiotic Therapy: Reserved for severe cases or immunocompromised patients and may include:
* Fluoroquinolones (e.g., Ciprofloxacin)
* Macrolides (e.g., Azithromycin)
* Third-Generation Cephalosporins (e.g., Ceftriaxone)
Note: Antibiotics can reduce the duration of symptoms and bacterial shedding but are not typically necessary for mild cases.

197
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Vibrio parahaemolyticus compared to other Vibrio species?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus distinguishes itself by:
* Production of TDH and TRH Toxins: Specific hemolysins not found in all Vibrio species.
* Growth on TCBS Agar: Forms green colonies due to TCBS selectivity.
* Association with Seafood Consumption: Particularly raw or undercooked shellfish.
* Presence in Marine Environments: Higher prevalence in temperate waters compared to some other Vibrio species.
* Hemolytic Activity on Specific Agar: Differentiates it from non-hemolytic Vibrio species.

198
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route through:
* Consumption of Contaminated Seafood: Especially raw or undercooked shellfish like oysters, clams, and shrimp.
* Contaminated Water: Ingesting seawater or freshwater contaminated with the bacteria.
* Cross-Contamination: From seafood to other foods during preparation.
* Direct Contact: With contaminated water, leading to wound infections in open cuts or abrasions.

199
Q

Do Vibrio parahaemolyticus have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Vibrio parahaemolyticus has specific growth requirements:
* Selective Media: Such as TCBS agar, which selects for Vibrio species and differentiates based on sucrose fermentation (green colonies).
* Salt Tolerance: Can grow in 6.5% NaCl, distinguishing it from many other bacteria.
* Temperature: Grows optimally at 37°C, similar to human body temperature.
* Rapid Growth on Selective Media: Facilitates quick isolation from samples.

200
Q

Can Vibrio parahaemolyticus form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Vibrio parahaemolyticus can form biofilms on:
* Food Processing Equipment: Leading to persistent contamination in the seafood industry.
* Aquatic Surfaces: Such as marine organisms and sediments.
* Medical Devices: Including wound dressings and implants, potentially causing nosocomial infections.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms protect bacteria from antibiotics and immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and recurrent infections.
* Enhanced Environmental Survival: Allow V. parahaemolyticus to persist in harsh conditions, aiding in transmission.

201
Q

What are the public health implications of Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Foodborne Illnesses: Common cause of gastroenteritis linked to seafood consumption.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to food recalls, outbreak management, and healthcare.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Emerging multi-drug resistant strains complicate treatment.
* Climate Change Effects: Rising sea temperatures may expand V. parahaemolyticus habitats, increasing the risk of infections.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of food safety practices, proper cooking of seafood, hygiene measures, and public education to prevent and control outbreaks.
* Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk of severe illness in immunocompromised individuals, elderly, and young children.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize safe seafood handling, adequate cooking, cross-contamination prevention, water sanitation, and public awareness campaigns.

202
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Vibrio vulnificus?

A

Vibrio vulnificus is a Gram-negative, curved rod-shaped (comma-shaped) bacterium.

203
Q

Is Vibrio vulnificus oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Vibrio vulnificus is oxidase-positive.

204
Q

Is Vibrio vulnificus aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Vibrio vulnificus is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

205
Q

Does Vibrio vulnificus form spores?

A

No, Vibrio vulnificus is non-spore-forming.

206
Q

Is Vibrio vulnificus motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Vibrio vulnificus is motile with polar flagella (flagella located at both ends), enabling movement in aquatic environments.

207
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Vibrio vulnificus, and what are their symptoms?

A

Vibrio vulnificus causes:
* Gastroenteritis: Symptoms include diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, and fever.
* Wound Infections: Can lead to necrotizing fasciitis (rapid tissue destruction), characterized by pain, swelling, redness, and skin necrosis.
* Septicemia: Especially in individuals with underlying liver disease or immunocompromised, leading to fever, chills, hypotension, shock, and multi-organ failure.

208
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Vibrio vulnificus?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Capsule (Polysaccharide Capsule): Protects against phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis.
* Hemolysins (e.g., VvhA): Cause lysis of red blood cells and tissue damage.
* Siderophores (e.g., vulnibactin): Facilitate iron acquisition in iron-limited environments.
* Iron Uptake Systems: Essential for survival in the host.
* Type IV Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells, disrupting cellular functions.
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.
* RtxA Toxin: Multifunctional toxin involved in cellular toxicity and immune evasion.

209
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Vibrio vulnificus?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Marine Environments: Such as seawater, estuarine waters, and coastal areas.
* Shellfish: Especially oysters, which concentrate the bacteria from their environment.
* Fish and Other Seafood: Consumed raw or undercooked.
* Environmental Sources: Including seawater and sediments contaminated with fecal matter.

210
Q

How is Vibrio vulnificus infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms and exposure history (e.g., seafood consumption, seawater exposure).
* Stool or Wound Cultures: Grown on TCBS agar, producing green colonies due to sucrose fermentation.
* Blood Cultures: For septicemia cases, isolating V. vulnificus from blood samples.
* Biochemical Tests: Oxidase-positive, lactose non-fermenter, positive for citrate utilization.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects specific virulence genes.
* Microscopic Examination: Detection of comma-shaped bacteria in samples.

211
Q

What treatments are effective against Vibrio vulnificus infections?

A

Immediate Antibiotic Therapy is critical, especially for septicemia:
* Doxycycline
* Cephalosporins (e.g., Ceftriaxone)
* Fluoroquinolones (e.g., Ciprofloxacin)
Combination Therapy: Often used for severe infections, such as Doxycycline with a Cephalosporin.
Supportive Care: Includes intravenous fluids, management of shock, antipyretics, and surgical debridement for necrotizing fasciitis.
Note: Early intervention is essential to reduce mortality rates, which are high in severe cases.

212
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Vibrio vulnificus compared to other Vibrio species?

A

Vibrio vulnificus distinguishes itself by:
* High Virulence: Particularly in immunocompromised individuals and those with underlying liver disease.
* Association with Severe Wound Infections: Leading to necrotizing fasciitis.
* Septicemia Risk: Especially after consuming contaminated seafood or seawater exposure.
* Rapid Progression: Infections can escalate quickly to life-threatening conditions.
* Capsule Production: More prominent compared to some other Vibrio species.
* Unique Virulence Factors: Such as RtxA toxin and vulnibactin siderophores.

213
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Vibrio vulnificus?

A

Transmission occurs via:
* Consumption of Contaminated Seafood: Especially raw or undercooked oysters.
* Direct Contact: With contaminated seawater or wounds exposed to marine environments, leading to wound infections.
* Environmental Exposure: Ingesting seawater during recreational activities.
* Person-to-Person Transmission: Rare, primarily in settings with poor hygiene.

214
Q

Do Vibrio vulnificus have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Vibrio vulnificus has specific growth requirements:
* Selective Media: Such as TCBS agar, which selects for Vibrio species and differentiates based on sucrose fermentation (green colonies).
* Salt Tolerance: Can grow in 6.5% NaCl, distinguishing it from many other bacteria.
* Optimal Temperature: Grows best at 37°C, similar to human body temperature.
* Rapid Growth on Selective Media: Facilitates quick isolation from samples.
* Temperature-Dependent Motility: Motile at lower temperatures (<30°C), similar to other Vibrio species.

215
Q

Can Vibrio vulnificus form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Vibrio vulnificus can form biofilms on:
* Food Processing Equipment: Leading to persistent contamination in the seafood industry.
* Medical Devices: Such as catheters and implants, causing nosocomial infections.
* Environmental Surfaces: Including seawater systems and marine organisms.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms protect bacteria from antibiotics and immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and recurrence of infections.
* Enhanced Environmental Survival: Allow V. vulnificus to persist in harsh conditions, aiding in transmission.

216
Q

What are the public health implications of Vibrio vulnificus infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Severe Infections: High mortality rates in cases of septicemia and necrotizing fasciitis.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to medical treatment, outbreak management, and food industry losses.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Emerging multi-drug resistant strains complicate treatment.
* Climate Change Effects: Rising sea temperatures may expand V. vulnificus habitats, increasing the risk of infections.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: Due to its high virulence and potential for causing severe disease.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of food safety practices, wound care, public education, and rapid response to outbreaks.
* Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk of severe illness in individuals with underlying liver disease, immunocompromised status, elderly, and young children.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize safe seafood handling, adequate cooking, proper wound care, avoiding exposure to contaminated seawater, and public awareness campaigns.

217
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis is a Gram-negative, coccoid (spherical) bacterium. However, it does not retain the Gram stain well due to its unique cell wall structure.

218
Q

Is Chlamydia trachomatis oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis is oxidase-negative.

219
Q

Is Chlamydia trachomatis aerobic, anaerobic, or obligate?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium, meaning it requires host cells to survive and cannot grow independently outside of a host.

220
Q

Does Chlamydia trachomatis form spores?

A

No, Chlamydia trachomatis is non-spore-forming.

221
Q

Is Chlamydia trachomatis motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Chlamydia trachomatis is non-motile and does not possess flagella.

222
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, and what are their symptoms?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis causes several diseases, including:
* Chlamydia Genital Infections:
* In Women: Often asymptomatic; when symptomatic, includes abnormal vaginal discharge, burning during urination, lower abdominal pain, and bleeding between periods.
* In Men: Includes discharge from the penis, burning during urination, and testicular pain.
* Trachoma:
* Ocular Infection: Leads to conjunctivitis, scarring of the eyelids, corneal opacity, and potentially blindness.
* Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV):
* Inguinal-Femoral Syndrome: Causes ulcerative lesions, swollen lymph nodes, fever, and systemic symptoms.
* Pneumonia in Infants:
* Inclusion Conjunctivitis and Pneumonia: Causes respiratory distress, fever, and cough in newborns.

223
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Elementary Bodies (EBs): Infectious form that attaches to and enters host cells.
* Reticulate Bodies (RBs): Replicative form within host cells.
* Inc proteins (Inclusion membrane proteins): Modulate host cell functions and aid in inclusion formation.
* Chlamydial Proteins: Interfere with host cell apoptosis and immune responses.
* Type III Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells to manipulate cellular processes.
* Plasmids: Carry genes essential for virulence and infectivity.

224
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

The primary reservoir is humans. It is transmitted sexually among individuals and can persist in the human body, leading to chronic infections. Ocular transmission occurs in endemic areas for trachoma, often through contact with infected secretions.

225
Q

How is Chlamydia trachomatis infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests (NAATs): Most sensitive and specific; performed on urine samples, cervical swabs, or urethral swabs.
* Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) Tests: Detect chlamydial antigens in clinical samples.
* Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA): Detects chlamydial antigens.
* Culture Methods: Less commonly used due to being time-consuming; requires cell culture systems.
* Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): Detects chlamydial DNA.

226
Q

What treatments are effective against Chlamydia trachomatis infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is the cornerstone of treatment:
* First-Line Treatments:
* Azithromycin: Single 1-gram oral dose.
* Doxycycline: 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days.
* Alternative Treatments:
* Erythromycin: 500 mg orally four times daily for 7 days.
* Levofloxacin: 500 mg orally once daily for 7 days (in cases of doxycycline intolerance).
* For Pregnant Women:
* Azithromycin or amoxicillin as doxycycline is contraindicated.
* Treatment of Sexual Partners: To prevent re-infection and transmission.

227
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Chlamydia trachomatis compared to other Chlamydia species?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis distinguishes itself by:
* Disease Spectrum: Causes genital infections, trachoma, and LGV, whereas other species like Chlamydia pneumoniae cause respiratory infections and Chlamydia psittaci causes psittacosis in birds and humans.
* Developmental Cycle: Unique EB-RB cycle as obligate intracellular pathogens.
* Serovars: Classified into different serovars (A-K) based on MOMP (Major Outer Membrane Protein), with specific serovars associated with particular diseases (e.g., serovars D-K for genital infections, serovars A and B for trachoma).
* Inclusion Formation: Forms inclusions within host cells where replication occurs.
* Absence of Peptidoglycan: Unlike typical bacteria, C. trachomatis lacks a classical peptidoglycan layer, making it less detectable by some immune responses and antibiotics targeting cell wall synthesis.

228
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Transmission occurs via:
* Sexual Contact: The most common mode, through vaginal, anal, or oral sex.
* Mother-to-Child Transmission: During birth, leading to neonatal conjunctivitis and pneumonia.
* Direct Contact: With infected secretions in the case of trachoma, often through eye contact in endemic regions.
* Autoinoculation: From genital to ocular sites, potentially leading to ocular infections.

229
Q

Do Chlamydia trachomatis have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Chlamydia trachomatis has specific growth requirements:
* Obligate Intracellular Growth: Cannot be cultured on standard media; requires cell culture systems such as McCoy cells or HeLa cells.
* Specialized Media: Cycloheximide-supplemented media to inhibit host cell protein synthesis and promote chlamydial growth.
* Temperature: Incubation typically at 37°C in a CO₂-enriched atmosphere (5% CO₂).
* Diagnostic Challenges: Due to its fastidious nature, culture methods are less commonly used compared to molecular diagnostics.

230
Q

Can Chlamydia trachomatis form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Chlamydia trachomatis can form biofilms, although this is less well-characterized compared to other bacteria.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms can protect bacteria from antibiotics and host immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and re-infection, contributing to asymptomatic shedding.
* Immune Evasion: Biofilms may help in hiding from immune surveillance, promoting long-term survival within the host.
* Transmission Enhancement: Biofilms on mucosal surfaces may aid in persistent colonization and transmission to new hosts.

231
Q

What are the public health implications of Chlamydia trachomatis infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* High Prevalence: One of the most common sexually transmitted infections (STIs) worldwide, often asymptomatic, leading to undetected transmission.
* Long-Term Health Consequences:
* Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID): In women, can cause chronic pelvic pain, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and tubal scarring.
* Urethritis: In men, can lead to epididymitis and infertility.
* Reactive Arthritis: Post-infectious autoimmune condition causing joint inflammation.
* Neonatal Infections: Can result in blindness (conjunctivitis) and respiratory infections in newborns, affecting infant health.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to screening, treatment, complications management, and loss of productivity.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Emerging resistant strains complicate treatment protocols and require antibiotic stewardship.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of regular screening programs, especially for sexually active individuals, use of condoms, public education, and partner notification to reduce transmission rates.
* Access to Healthcare: Barriers to testing and treatment in certain populations contribute to persistent transmission and health disparities.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize safe sex practices, consistent condom use, regular STI screening, public awareness campaigns, and accessible healthcare services to manage and reduce Chlamydia trachomatis infections.

232
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Chlamydia psittaci?

A

Chlamydia psittaci is a Gram-negative, coccoid (spherical) bacterium. However, like other Chlamydia species, it does not retain the Gram stain well due to its unique cell wall structure.

233
Q

Is Chlamydia psittaci oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Chlamydia psittaci is oxidase-negative.

234
Q

Is Chlamydia psittaci aerobic, anaerobic, or obligate?

A

Chlamydia psittaci is an obligate intracellular bacterium, meaning it requires host cells to survive and cannot grow independently outside of a host.

235
Q

Does Chlamydia psittaci form spores?

A

No, Chlamydia psittaci is non-spore-forming.

236
Q

Is Chlamydia psittaci motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Chlamydia psittaci is non-motile and does not possess flagella.

237
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Chlamydia psittaci, and what are their symptoms?

A

Chlamydia psittaci primarily causes Psittacosis (also known as Parrot Fever), characterized by:
* Respiratory Symptoms: Such as fever, chills, headache, dry cough, and shortness of breath.
* Systemic Symptoms: Including muscle aches, fatigue, and sweating.
* Pneumonia: Can develop into severe atypical pneumonia with complications like septicemia in immunocompromised individuals.
* Gastrointestinal Symptoms: Occasionally, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

238
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Chlamydia psittaci?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Elementary Bodies (EBs): The infectious form that attaches to and enters host cells.
* Reticulate Bodies (RBs): The replicative form within host cells.
* Inc Proteins (Inclusion Membrane Proteins): Modulate host cell functions and aid in inclusion formation.
* Chlamydial Proteins: Interfere with host cell apoptosis and immune responses.
* Type III Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells to manipulate cellular processes.
* Plasmids: Carry genes essential for virulence and infectivity.
* LPS (Lipopolysaccharide): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.

239
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Chlamydia psittaci?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Birds: Especially psittacine birds (parrots, parakeets, cockatiels), pigeons, doves, and other avian species.
* Other Animals: Such as rodents and livestock can also harbor the bacteria.
* Humans: Infected humans can potentially act as reservoirs, although human-to-human transmission is extremely rare.

240
Q

How is Chlamydia psittaci infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Serological Tests: Such as Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay (IFA) and Complement Fixation Tests to detect antibodies against C. psittaci.
* Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): Detects chlamydial DNA from respiratory specimens.
* Culture Methods: Isolation of C. psittaci in McCoy cell cultures, though this is hazardous and less commonly used.
* Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) Tests: Detect chlamydial antigens in clinical samples.
* Chest X-Ray: May show infiltrates consistent with pneumonia, aiding in clinical diagnosis.

241
Q

What treatments are effective against Chlamydia psittaci infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is essential:
* Doxycycline: 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days is the treatment of choice.
* Macrolides: Such as Azithromycin or Erythromycin are alternatives for those who are allergic to tetracyclines.
* Tetracycline: 500 mg orally four times daily for 14 days is another option.
Supportive Care: Includes hydration, antipyretics for fever, and rest. In severe cases, hospitalization and oxygen therapy may be required.

242
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Chlamydia psittaci compared to other Chlamydia species?

A

Chlamydia psittaci distinguishes itself by:
* Host Specificity: Primarily infects birds, especially psittacine species, unlike C. trachomatis which primarily infects humans.
* Disease Association: Causes Psittacosis (Parrot Fever), whereas other Chlamydia species cause different diseases (e.g., C. trachomatis causes chlamydial genital infections, trachoma, etc.).
* Zoonotic Transmission: Strong association with avian reservoirs leading to zoonotic transmission to humans.
* Serovars: Classified into different serovars (A, B, C, D, etc.) based on Major Outer Membrane Protein (MOMP), with specific serovars associated with particular bird species and disease manifestations.
* Clinical Presentation: Presents primarily with respiratory symptoms in humans, differentiating it from the primarily genital or ocular presentations of other Chlamydia species.

243
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Chlamydia psittaci?

A

Transmission occurs via:
* Aerosolized Droppings: Inhalation of fecal matter or feathers contaminated with C. psittaci from infected birds.
* Direct Contact: With infected birds or their secretions.
* Handling of Infected Birds: Including pets, livestock, and wild birds.
* Contaminated Environments: Such as bird cages, aviaries, and agricultural settings.
* Rarely, Mother-to-Child Transmission: During birth, though this is uncommon.

244
Q

Do Chlamydia psittaci have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Chlamydia psittaci has specific growth requirements:
* Obligate Intracellular Growth: Requires host cell cultures (e.g., McCoy cells) for cultivation.
* Specialized Media: Cycloheximide-supplemented media to inhibit host cell protein synthesis and promote chlamydial growth.
* Temperature: Incubation typically at 37°C in a CO₂-enriched atmosphere (5% CO₂).
* Diagnostic Challenges: Due to its fastidious nature and requirement for host cells, culture methods are hazardous and less commonly used compared to molecular diagnostics.
* Molecular Techniques: PCR and other molecular methods are preferred for rapid and specific identification.

245
Q

Can Chlamydia psittaci form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Chlamydia psittaci can form biofilms, although this is less well-characterized compared to other bacteria.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms can protect bacteria from antibiotics and host immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and re-infection, contributing to asymptomatic shedding.
* Immune Evasion: Biofilms may help in hiding from immune surveillance, promoting long-term survival within the host.
* Transmission Enhancement: Biofilms on surfaces can aid in environmental persistence and transmission to new hosts.

246
Q

What are the public health implications of Chlamydia psittaci infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Zoonotic Potential: As a zoonotic pathogen, C. psittaci poses risks to pet owners, bird handlers, veterinarians, and agricultural workers.
* Outbreaks in Specific Settings: Such as avian exhibitions, pet stores, and aviaries, leading to clusters of human infections.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to diagnosis, treatment, outbreak management, and control measures in bird populations.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Although less common, emerging resistant strains can complicate treatment.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of monitoring and control measures in bird populations, public education on safe handling practices, and prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent spread.
* Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk of severe disease in immunocompromised individuals, elderly, and young children.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: While not a primary concern, as an intracellular pathogen, it has potential as a bioweapon due to its ability to cause severe respiratory illness.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize proper hygiene practices when handling birds, regular screening of bird populations, use of protective equipment for high-risk individuals, quarantine measures during outbreaks, and public awareness campaigns to reduce transmission risks.

247
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Rickettsia typhi?

A

Rickettsia typhi is a Gram-negative, coccoid (spherical) bacterium. However, it does not retain the Gram stain well due to its intracellular lifestyle and unique cell wall structure.

248
Q

Is Rickettsia typhi oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Rickettsia typhi is oxidase-positive.

249
Q

Is Rickettsia typhi aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Rickettsia typhi is an obligate intracellular bacterium, requiring host cells to survive and cannot grow independently outside of a host.

250
Q

Does Rickettsia typhi form spores?

A

No, Rickettsia typhi is non-spore-forming.

251
Q

Is Rickettsia typhi motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Rickettsia typhi is non-motile and does not possess flagella.

252
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Rickettsia typhi, and what are its symptoms?

A

Rickettsia typhi causes Endemic (Murine) Typhus, characterized by:
* Fever
* Headache
* Chills
* Muscle Aches
* Rash (typically macular, starting on the trunk and spreading to the extremities)
* Abdominal Pain
* Nausea and Vomiting
In severe cases, it can lead to neurological complications and organ dysfunction.

253
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Rickettsia typhi?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Type IV Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells to manipulate cellular processes.
* Surface Proteins (e.g., OmpA and OmpB): Facilitate attachment and invasion of host endothelial cells.
* Actin-Based Motility Proteins: Enable intracellular movement within host cells.
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.

254
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Rickettsia typhi?

A

The primary reservoirs are rats, particularly the Norway rat (Rattus norvegicus). Fleas, especially the rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopis), act as vectors transmitting the bacteria from rats to humans.

255
Q

How is Rickettsia typhi infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Serological Tests: Such as Immunofluorescence Assays (IFA) and Complement Fixation Tests to detect antibodies against R. typhi.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects rickettsial DNA from blood or tissue samples.
* Immunohistochemistry: Identifies rickettsial antigens in biopsy specimens.
* Culture Methods: Rarely used due to biosafety concerns; requires cell culture systems.
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms and exposure history (e.g., contact with rats or fleas).

256
Q

What treatments are effective against Rickettsia typhi infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is essential:
* Doxycycline: 100 mg orally twice daily for 7-14 days; the treatment of choice for all age groups.
* Chloramphenicol: An alternative for pregnant women and young children who cannot take doxycycline.
* Supportive Care: Includes hydration, antipyretics for fever, and management of complications.
Note: Early treatment is crucial to reduce the risk of severe disease and complications.

257
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Rickettsia typhi compared to other Rickettsia species?

A

Rickettsia typhi distinguishes itself by:
* Transmission Vector: Primarily transmitted by rat fleas (Xenopsylla cheopis), whereas other Rickettsia may use different vectors (e.g., ticks, lice).
* Disease Association: Causes Endemic (Murine) Typhus, which is generally milder than Epidemic Typhus caused by Rickettsia prowazekii.
* Reservoir Hosts: Mainly rats, compared to other Rickettsia species which may have different animal reservoirs.
* Geographical Distribution: More common in urban and suburban areas where rat populations are prevalent, whereas other Rickettsia may be found in different ecological niches.

258
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Rickettsia typhi?

A

Transmission occurs via:
* Flea Bites: The primary mode, where infected rat fleas bite humans, transmitting R. typhi.
* Flea Stool Contamination: Bacteria present in flea feces can be introduced into the skin via scratching or inhaled, leading to infection.
* Direct Contact: With infected animals (rats) or their environments, although this is less common.

259
Q

Do Rickettsia typhi have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Rickettsia typhi has specific growth requirements:
* Obligate Intracellular Growth: Requires host cell cultures (e.g., Vero cells, L929 fibroblasts) for cultivation.
* Specialized Media: Cell culture systems with appropriate nutrients and growth factors.
* Biosafety Levels: Culturing requires biosafety level 3 (BSL-3) facilities due to the aerosol transmission risk.
* Fastidious Growth Requirements: Cannot be grown on standard agar plates; relies on cell-mediated growth.

260
Q

Can Rickettsia typhi form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

No, Rickettsia typhi does not typically form biofilms as it is an obligate intracellular pathogen relying on host cells for survival and replication. Biofilm formation is not a characteristic feature of this species.

261
Q

What are the public health implications of Rickettsia typhi infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Endemic Presence: Common in areas with high rat populations and poor sanitation, leading to recurring murine typhus outbreaks.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to diagnosis, treatment, rat and flea control measures, and public health interventions.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of vector control (flea eradication), rodent control, public education on avoiding flea bites, and improving sanitation to reduce rat populations.
* Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk in urban and impoverished areas, homeless populations, and people with occupational exposure to rats and fleas.
* Potential for Misdiagnosis: Symptoms can resemble other febrile illnesses (e.g., influenza, dengue), necessitating accurate diagnostic testing to ensure proper treatment.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: Although not a primary concern, the ease of transmission via fleas and the potential for rapid spread in crowded conditions warrant preparedness measures.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize vector control, rodent control, personal protective measures (e.g., using insect repellent, wearing gloves), and public health education to minimize exposure to fleas and rats.

262
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii is a Gram-negative, coccoid (spherical) bacterium. Similar to other Rickettsia species, it does not retain the Gram stain well due to its intracellular lifestyle and unique cell wall structure.

263
Q

Is Rickettsia prowazekii oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii is oxidase-positive.

264
Q

Is Rickettsia prowazekii aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii is an obligate intracellular bacterium, requiring host cells to survive and cannot grow independently outside of a host.

265
Q

Does Rickettsia prowazekii form spores?

A

No, Rickettsia prowazekii is non-spore-forming.

266
Q

Is Rickettsia prowazekii motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Rickettsia prowazekii is non-motile and does not possess flagella.

267
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Rickettsia prowazekii, and what are its symptoms?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii causes Epidemic Typhus, characterized by:
* Sudden Onset of High Fever
* Severe Headache
* Chills
* Muscle Aches
* Rash (starts on the trunk and spreads to the extremities, sparing the face, palms, and soles)
* Confusion or Delirium
* Respiratory Distress
* Potential Complications: Such as encephalitis, renal failure, and multi-organ dysfunction
Epidemic typhus has a high mortality rate if untreated.

268
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Type IV Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells to manipulate cellular processes and evade immune responses.
* Surface Proteins (e.g., OmpA and OmpB): Facilitate attachment and invasion of host endothelial cells.
* Actin-Based Motility Proteins: Enable intracellular movement within host cells.
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.
* Plasmids: Carry genes essential for virulence and infectivity.

269
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Humans: Infected individuals can become chronic carriers (e.g., Brill-Zinsser disease) and serve as reservoirs.
* Body Lice: Specifically Pediculus humanus corporis (the human body louse) acts as the vector, transmitting the bacteria between humans.
* War and Epidemic Conditions: Favor the spread of lice, thus facilitating outbreaks.

270
Q

How is Rickettsia prowazekii infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Serological Tests: Such as Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay (IFA), ELISA, and Complement Fixation Tests to detect antibodies against R. prowazekii.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects rickettsial DNA from blood, tissue, or lice samples.
* Culture Methods: Rarely used due to biosafety concerns; requires cell culture systems.
* Immunohistochemistry: Identifies rickettsial antigens in biopsy specimens.
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms, rash patterns, and exposure history (e.g., lice infestation, overcrowded conditions).

271
Q

What treatments are effective against Rickettsia prowazekii infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is crucial:
* Doxycycline: 100 mg orally or intravenously twice daily for 7-14 days; the treatment of choice for all age groups.
* Tetracycline: An alternative to doxycycline with similar dosing.
* Chloramphenicol: An option for those who cannot tolerate tetracyclines, though it has more side effects.
Supportive Care: Includes hydration, antipyretics for fever, and management of complications such as neurological support for delirium or seizures.
Note: Early antibiotic treatment significantly reduces mortality rates and complications.

272
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Rickettsia prowazekii compared to other Rickettsia species?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii distinguishes itself by:
* Disease Association: Causes Epidemic Typhus, which is more severe compared to Endemic Typhus caused by R. typhi.
* Transmission Vector: Primarily transmitted by body lice, whereas other Rickettsia species may use different vectors (e.g., fleas, ticks).
* Reservoir Hosts: Human carriers and body lice, unlike other Rickettsia that may have different animal reservoirs.
* Geographical and Environmental Association: Often associated with war zones, overcrowded conditions, and poor sanitation facilitating lice infestations.
* High Mortality Rate: Epidemic typhus has a higher mortality rate if untreated compared to endemic typhus.
* Reactivation in Carriers: Can cause Brill-Zinsser disease, a relapsing form of typhus in previously infected individuals.

273
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

Transmission occurs via:
* Body Louse Bites: The primary mode, where infected body lice bite humans, transmitting R. prowazekii.
* Flea Stool Contamination: Similar to R. typhi, bacteria can be present in louse feces and introduced into the skin via scratching.
* Direct Contact: With infected lice or contaminated materials (e.g., clothing, bedding).
* Human-to-Human Transmission: Indirectly through contaminated fomites, though direct person-to-person transmission is rare.
* Reactivation in Carriers: Previously infected individuals can harbor dormant bacteria that reactivate under stressful conditions.

274
Q

Do Rickettsia prowazekii have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Rickettsia prowazekii has specific growth requirements:
* Obligate Intracellular Growth: Requires host cell cultures (e.g., Vero cells, L929 fibroblasts) for cultivation.
* Specialized Media: Cell culture systems with appropriate nutrients and growth factors.
* Biosafety Levels: Culturing requires biosafety level 3 (BSL-3) facilities due to the aerosol transmission risk and high virulence.
* Fastidious Growth Requirements: Cannot be grown on standard agar plates; relies on cell-mediated growth.
* Molecular Techniques: PCR and other molecular methods are preferred for rapid and specific identification.

275
Q

Can Rickettsia prowazekii form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

No, Rickettsia prowazekii does not typically form biofilms as it is an obligate intracellular pathogen relying on host cells for survival and replication. Biofilm formation is not a characteristic feature of this species.

276
Q

What are the public health implications of Rickettsia prowazekii infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Potential for Epidemics and Pandemics: Especially in conditions of overcrowding, poor sanitation, and widespread lice infestations, leading to rapid spread of epidemic typhus.
* High Mortality Rates: Without prompt treatment, epidemic typhus can have a high mortality rate.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: R. prowazekii is considered a Category B bioterrorism agent due to its potential for use in biological warfare and bioterrorism, given its high infectivity and severity.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to outbreak management, treatment, vector control measures, and public health interventions.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of vector control (body louse eradication), public health infrastructure, rapid diagnosis and treatment, and quarantine measures during outbreaks.
* Chronic Carriers: Individuals with Brill-Zinsser disease can reactivate and cause new outbreaks, necessitating long-term monitoring.
* Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk in displaced populations, refugees, homeless individuals, and those living in overcrowded conditions.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize vector control (eliminating body lice), improving sanitation, maintaining personal hygiene, prompt treatment of lice infestations, and public health education to prevent and control the spread of epidemic typhus.

277
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii is a Gram-negative, coccoid (spherical) bacterium. Similar to other Rickettsia species, it does not retain the Gram stain well due to its intracellular lifestyle and unique cell wall structure.

278
Q

Is Rickettsia prowazekii oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii is oxidase-positive.

279
Q

Is Rickettsia prowazekii aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii is an obligate intracellular bacterium, requiring host cells to survive and cannot grow independently outside of a host.

280
Q

Does Rickettsia prowazekii form spores?

A

No, Rickettsia prowazekii is non-spore-forming.

281
Q

Is Rickettsia prowazekii motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Rickettsia prowazekii is non-motile and does not possess flagella.

282
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Rickettsia prowazekii, and what are its symptoms?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii causes Epidemic Typhus, characterized by:
* Sudden Onset of High Fever
* Severe Headache
* Chills
* Muscle Aches
* Rash (starts on the trunk and spreads to the extremities, sparing the face, palms, and soles)
* Confusion or Delirium
* Respiratory Distress
* Potential Complications: Such as encephalitis, renal failure, and multi-organ dysfunction
Epidemic typhus has a high mortality rate if untreated.

283
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Type IV Secretion System: Injects effector proteins into host cells to manipulate cellular processes and evade immune responses.
* Surface Proteins (e.g., OmpA and OmpB): Facilitate attachment and invasion of host endothelial cells.
* Actin-Based Motility Proteins: Enable intracellular movement within host cells.
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.
* Plasmids: Carry genes essential for virulence and infectivity.

284
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Humans: Infected individuals can become chronic carriers (e.g., Brill-Zinsser disease) and serve as reservoirs.
* Body Lice: Specifically Pediculus humanus corporis (the human body louse) acts as the vector, transmitting the bacteria between humans.
* War and Epidemic Conditions: Favor the spread of lice, thus facilitating outbreaks.

285
Q

How is Rickettsia prowazekii infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Serological Tests: Such as Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay (IFA), ELISA, and Complement Fixation Tests to detect antibodies against R. prowazekii.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects rickettsial DNA from blood, tissue, or lice samples.
* Culture Methods: Rarely used due to biosafety concerns; requires cell culture systems.
* Immunohistochemistry: Identifies rickettsial antigens in biopsy specimens.
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms, rash patterns, and exposure history (e.g., lice infestation, overcrowded conditions).

286
Q

What treatments are effective against Rickettsia prowazekii infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is crucial:
* Doxycycline: 100 mg orally or intravenously twice daily for 7-14 days; the treatment of choice for all age groups.
* Tetracycline: An alternative to doxycycline with similar dosing.
* Chloramphenicol: An option for those who cannot tolerate tetracyclines, though it has more side effects.
Supportive Care: Includes hydration, antipyretics for fever, and management of complications such as neurological support for delirium or seizures.
Note: Early antibiotic treatment significantly reduces mortality rates and complications.

287
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Rickettsia prowazekii compared to other Rickettsia species?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii distinguishes itself by:
* Disease Association: Causes Epidemic Typhus, which is more severe compared to Endemic Typhus caused by R. typhi.
* Transmission Vector: Primarily transmitted by body lice, whereas other Rickettsia species may use different vectors (e.g., fleas, ticks).
* Reservoir Hosts: Human carriers and body lice, unlike other Rickettsia that may have different animal reservoirs.
* Geographical and Environmental Association: Often associated with war zones, overcrowded conditions, and poor sanitation facilitating lice infestations.
* High Mortality Rate: Epidemic typhus has a higher mortality rate if untreated compared to endemic typhus.
* Reactivation in Carriers: Can cause Brill-Zinsser disease, a relapsing form of typhus in previously infected individuals.

288
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

Transmission occurs via:
* Body Louse Bites: The primary mode, where infected body lice bite humans, transmitting R. prowazekii.
* Flea Stool Contamination: Similar to R. typhi, bacteria can be present in louse feces and introduced into the skin via scratching.
* Direct Contact: With infected lice or contaminated materials (e.g., clothing, bedding).
* Human-to-Human Transmission: Indirectly through contaminated fomites, though direct person-to-person transmission is rare.
* Reactivation in Carriers: Previously infected individuals can harbor dormant bacteria that reactivate under stressful conditions.

289
Q

Do Rickettsia prowazekii have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Rickettsia prowazekii has specific growth requirements:
* Obligate Intracellular Growth: Requires host cell cultures (e.g., Vero cells, L929 fibroblasts) for cultivation.
* Specialized Media: Cell culture systems with appropriate nutrients and growth factors.
* Biosafety Levels: Culturing requires biosafety level 3 (BSL-3) facilities due to the aerosol transmission risk and high virulence.
* Fastidious Growth Requirements: Cannot be grown on standard agar plates; relies on cell-mediated growth.
* Molecular Techniques: PCR and other molecular methods are preferred for rapid and specific identification.

290
Q

Can Rickettsia prowazekii form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

No, Rickettsia prowazekii does not typically form biofilms as it is an obligate intracellular pathogen relying on host cells for survival and replication. Biofilm formation is not a characteristic feature of this species.

291
Q

What are the public health implications of Rickettsia prowazekii infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Potential for Epidemics and Pandemics: Especially in conditions of overcrowding, poor sanitation, and widespread lice infestations, leading to rapid spread of epidemic typhus.
* High Mortality Rates: Without prompt treatment, epidemic typhus can have a high mortality rate.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: R. prowazekii is considered a Category B bioterrorism agent due to its potential for use in biological warfare and bioterrorism, given its high infectivity and severity.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to outbreak management, treatment, vector control measures, and public health interventions.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of vector control (body louse eradication), public health infrastructure, rapid diagnosis and treatment, and quarantine measures during outbreaks.
* Chronic Carriers: Individuals with Brill-Zinsser disease can reactivate and cause new outbreaks, necessitating long-term monitoring.
* Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk in displaced populations, refugees, homeless individuals, and those living in overcrowded conditions.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize vector control (eliminating body lice), improving sanitation, maintaining personal hygiene, prompt treatment of lice infestations, and public health education to prevent and control the spread of epidemic typhus.

292
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Legionella pneumophila?

A

Legionella pneumophila is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped (bacillus) bacterium. It often appears pleomorphic, meaning it can exhibit various shapes such as coccobacilli.

293
Q

Is Legionella pneumophila oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Legionella pneumophila is oxidase-positive.

294
Q

Is Legionella pneumophila aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Legionella pneumophila is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

295
Q

Does Legionella pneumophila form spores?

A

No, Legionella pneumophila is non-spore-forming.

296
Q

Is Legionella pneumophila motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Legionella pneumophila is motile with multiple flagella (polar and/or peritrichous), which aid in its movement through aqueous environments.

297
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Legionella pneumophila, and what are their symptoms?

A

Legionella pneumophila primarily causes:
* Legionnaires’ Disease:
* Symptoms: High fever, chills, cough (often with sputum production), shortness of breath, muscle aches, headache, and gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
* Severe Cases: Can lead to respiratory failure, septicemia, and multi-organ dysfunction.
* Pontiac Fever:
* Symptoms: Milder, flu-like symptoms including fever, chills, headache, and muscle aches.
* Duration: Typically resolves within a few days without hospitalization.

298
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Legionella pneumophila?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Type IV Secretion System (Dot/Icm): Injects effector proteins into host cells to manipulate host cell processes and create a replicative niche.
* Legionella-Containing Vacuole (LCV): A specialized compartment within host cells where the bacteria replicate.
* Flagella and Motility: Essential for reaching and invading host cells.
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, triggering strong inflammatory responses.
* Biofilm Formation: Enhances survival in aquatic environments and resistance to disinfection.
* Iron Acquisition Systems: Allow survival in iron-limited environments within host cells.
* Flagellar Secretion Systems: Involved in host cell invasion and immune evasion.

299
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Legionella pneumophila?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Aquatic Environments: Such as freshwater systems, rivers, lakes, and streams.
* Man-Made Water Systems: Including cooling towers, air conditioning systems, hot tubs, humidifiers, showers, fountains, and plumbing systems.
* Biofilms: Legionella can persist within biofilms on surfaces in water systems.
* Environmental Sources: Soil and natural water sources can also harbor the bacteria, though less commonly associated with human disease.

300
Q

How is Legionella pneumophila infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Urinary Antigen Test: Detects Legionella antigens in urine; highly specific for L. pneumophila serogroup 1.
* Culture:
* Legionella Selective Media: Such as Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) agar with iron and cysteine supplements.
* Specimen Types: Sputum, bronchoalveolar lavage, or lung biopsy samples.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects Legionella DNA from respiratory specimens; rapid and specific.
* Serological Tests: Detects antibodies against Legionella, though less useful for acute diagnosis.
* Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) Tests: Identifies Legionella antigens in respiratory samples.

301
Q

What treatments are effective against Legionella pneumophila infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is crucial:
* Macrolides: Such as Azithromycin (preferred) and Erythromycin.
* Fluoroquinolones: Such as Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin; highly effective and often used as first-line therapy.
* Tetracyclines: Such as Doxycycline; an alternative for those who cannot tolerate macrolides or fluoroquinolones.
Supportive Care: Includes hydration, oxygen therapy for respiratory distress, and management of complications like septic shock.
Note: Early initiation of appropriate antibiotics significantly improves prognosis and reduces mortality.

302
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Legionella pneumophila compared to other Legionella species?

A

Legionella pneumophila distinguishes itself by:
* Serogroups: Serogroup 1 is responsible for the majority of human cases, especially Legionnaires’ Disease outbreaks.
* Antigen Detection: The urinary antigen test is primarily specific to L. pneumophila serogroup 1.
* Clinical Association: Strongly associated with hospital-acquired pneumonia and outbreaks linked to water systems.
* Growth Requirements: Requires BCYE agar with iron and cysteine supplements, which differentiates it from other non-Legionella species.
* Virulence Factors: Highly efficient in intracellular survival and replicative niche formation compared to some other Legionella species.
* Environmental Persistence: Exceptional ability to form and persist in biofilms within water systems.

303
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Legionella pneumophila?

A

Transmission occurs via the inhalation of aerosolized water droplets containing the bacteria. Specific modes include:
* Contaminated Water Systems: Such as cooling towers, HVAC systems, showers, hot tubs, and fountains.
* Respiratory Droplets: From aerosol-generating procedures in healthcare settings (e.g., intubation, bronchoscopy).
* Ingestion: Rarely, can cause Legionella-associated gastroenteritis if ingested in contaminated water, though this is uncommon.
* Direct Contact: Minimal risk; primarily transmitted through aerosolized water rather than person-to-person contact.

304
Q

Do Legionella pneumophila have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Legionella pneumophila has specific growth requirements:
* Selective Media: Such as Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) agar, which contains iron and cysteine supplements necessary for Legionella growth.
* Temperature: Optimal growth at 35-37°C; can grow over a wide temperature range (20-45°C).
* Aerosolized Growth: Thrives in aerosolized water droplets, making aerosol-generating environments ideal for transmission.
* Iron and Cysteine Dependence: Essential for survival and growth; differentiates it from many other bacteria.
* Incubation Conditions: Requires controlled laboratory environments to prevent contamination from other microorganisms.

305
Q

Can Legionella pneumophila form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Legionella pneumophila can form biofilms on:
* Water System Surfaces: Including pipes, cooling towers, fountains, and HVAC components.
* Man-Made Structures: Such as boilers, hot tubs, and plumbing systems.
* Environmental Surfaces: Like rocks and soil particles in natural water bodies.
Significance:
* Enhanced Survival: Biofilms protect Legionella from disinfectants (e.g., chlorine) and environmental stresses, allowing persistence in water systems.
* Resistance to Treatment: Bacteria within biofilms are more resistant to antibiotics and oxidizing agents, complicating eradication efforts.
* Facilitation of Transmission: Biofilms can release aerosolized droplets containing high concentrations of Legionella, increasing the risk of human inhalation and infection.
* Source of Outbreaks: Persistent biofilms in water systems are often the source of Legionnaires’ Disease outbreaks.

306
Q

What are the public health implications of Legionella pneumophila infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Legionnaires’ Disease Outbreaks: Often linked to building water systems, leading to large-scale respiratory illness and hospital-acquired infections.
* Economic Impact: Costs associated with outbreak investigations, building remediation, healthcare treatments, and legal liabilities.
* Vulnerable Populations: Higher risk of severe disease in elderly, smokers, immunocompromised individuals, and those with chronic lung diseases.
* Occupational Exposure: Workers in industries with exposure to aerosolized water (e.g., construction, plumbing) are at increased risk.
* Climate Change Effects: Rising temperatures and increased rainfall may expand Legionella habitats, potentially increasing incidence rates.
* Bioterrorism Concerns: Due to its ability to cause severe respiratory illness through aerosol dissemination, Legionella pneumophila is considered a potential bioweapon.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of regular maintenance and disinfection of water systems, monitoring for Legionella presence, and rapid response to detected cases to prevent outbreaks.
* Public Awareness: Educating the public and industries about Legionella risks and preventive measures to minimize exposure.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize water system maintenance, regular cleaning and disinfection of cooling towers and other aerosol-producing systems, monitoring for Legionella contamination, implementing control protocols in healthcare settings, and public education on minimizing exposure risks.

307
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Bordetella pertussis?

A

Bordetella pertussis is a Gram-negative, small rod-shaped (coccobacillus) bacterium. It may appear as slightly curved rods under the microscope.

308
Q

Is Bordetella pertussis oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Bordetella pertussis is oxidase-positive.

309
Q

Is Bordetella pertussis aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Bordetella pertussis is a facultative anaerobe, meaning it can survive in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

310
Q

Does Bordetella pertussis form spores?

A

No, Bordetella pertussis is non-spore-forming.

311
Q

Is Bordetella pertussis motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Bordetella pertussis is non-motile and does not possess flagella.

312
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Bordetella pertussis, and what are its symptoms?

A

Bordetella pertussis causes Pertussis (commonly known as Whooping Cough), characterized by:
* Initial Phase (Catarrhal Stage): Symptoms resemble a common cold, including runny nose, sneezing, low-grade fever, and mild cough.
* Paroxysmal Phase: Severe coughing fits followed by a whooping sound during inhalation, vomiting after coughing, and exhaustion.
* Convalescent Phase: Gradual recovery with decreasing cough severity but possible lingering cough for weeks.

Infants are particularly vulnerable and can suffer from apnea, pneumonia, and encephalopathy.

313
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Pertussis Toxin (PT): Disrupts immune cell signaling, causing leukocytosis and facilitating bacterial spread.
* Filamentous Hemagglutinin (FHA): Mediates attachment to respiratory epithelial cells.
* Adenylate Cyclase Toxin (ACT): Inhibits phagocytosis by immune cells and disrupts cytokine production.
* Tracheal Cytotoxin (TCT): Damages ciliated epithelial cells, impairing mucociliary clearance.
* Pertactin: Facilitates adherence to host cells and evasion of the immune system.
* Fimbriae: Aid in attachment to respiratory tract cells.

314
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Bordetella pertussis?

A

The primary reservoir is humans, specifically infected individuals. Bordetella pertussis does not have animal reservoirs and relies solely on human-to-human transmission.

315
Q

How is Bordetella pertussis infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): Detects Bordetella DNA from nasopharyngeal swabs or aspirates; highly sensitive and specific.
* Culture: Growing Bordetella pertussis on Bordet-Gengou agar (supplemented with blood and potassium tellurite) or Regan-Lowe agar; requires specialized media and laboratory expertise.
* Serological Tests: Detects antibodies against Bordetella antigens, useful in convalescent cases.
* Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) Tests: Identifies Bordetella antigens in clinical samples.
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms and exposure history, especially in suspected outbreaks.

316
Q

What treatments are effective against Bordetella pertussis infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is crucial for:
* Macrolides: Such as Azithromycin, Erythromycin, and Clarithromycin; the first-line treatment.
* Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ): An alternative for those allergic to macrolides.
Supportive Care:
* Hydration: Ensures fluid balance during severe coughing fits.
* Oxygen Therapy: For hypoxemia in severe cases.
* Mechanical Ventilation: May be required for respiratory failure.
* Isolation: To prevent the spread of infection to others.

Early antibiotic treatment can reduce the severity and duration of symptoms and limit transmission.

317
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Bordetella pertussis compared to other Bordetella species?

A

Bordetella pertussis distinguishes itself by:
* Disease Association: Specifically causes whooping cough, whereas other Bordetella species like Bordetella bronchiseptica primarily affect animals.
* Virulence Factors: Produces pertussis toxin, filamentous hemagglutinin, and adenylate cyclase toxin, which are critical for pathogenesis.
* Host Specificity: Primarily infects humans, with limited zoonotic potential.
* Antigenic Properties: Unique antigens used in PCR and serological diagnostics.
* Clinical Presentation: Characterized by paroxysmal coughing fits and whooping sounds, unlike other Bordetella infections.

318
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Bordetella pertussis?

A

Transmission occurs via the aerosolization of respiratory droplets through:
* Coughing and Sneezing: Infected individuals release contagious droplets into the air.
* Direct Contact: With respiratory secretions from infected persons.
* Close Personal Contact: Such as living in the same household or being in close proximity in crowded settings.

The disease is highly contagious, especially during the paroxysmal phase of coughing.

319
Q

Do Bordetella pertussis have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Bordetella pertussis has specific growth requirements:
* Selective Media: Such as Bordet-Gengou agar (supplemented with sheep blood and potassium tellurite) and Regan-Lowe agar; these media inhibit contaminating flora and support Bordetella growth.
* Temperature: Incubated at 35-37°C with 5-10% CO₂.
* Fastidious Growth: Requires iron-supplemented media and specific nutrients to grow effectively.
* Slow Growth Rate: Colonies may take 2-4 days to appear, which can delay diagnosis.

320
Q

Can Bordetella pertussis form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Bordetella pertussis can form biofilms, although this is less prominent compared to some other bacteria.
Significance:
* Enhanced Survival: Biofilms protect bacteria from environmental stresses, antibiotics, and host immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and asymptomatic shedding, contributing to transmission.
* Resistance to Disinfection: Makes eradication from environments like homes and healthcare settings more challenging.
* Vaccine Evasion: Biofilm-associated bacteria may express different antigens, potentially aiding in immune evasion.

321
Q

What are the public health implications of Bordetella pertussis infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Highly Contagious Nature: Leads to outbreaks in communities, especially among unvaccinated individuals.
* Vaccine-Preventable Disease: Emphasizes the importance of vaccination programs (DTaP for children and Tdap for adolescents/adults) to control spread.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to healthcare treatment, vaccination programs, and outbreak management.
* Vulnerable Populations: Infants, elderly, and immunocompromised individuals are at higher risk of severe disease.
* Antibiotic Resistance Concerns: Emergence of macrolide-resistant strains can complicate treatment strategies.
* Surveillance and Control: Necessitates ongoing surveillance for pertussis cases, rapid diagnostic testing, contact tracing, and public health interventions to prevent and manage outbreaks.
* Global Health Impact: Despite high vaccination coverage in some regions, pertussis remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide, particularly in areas with limited healthcare access.

Prevention Measures: Emphasize routine vaccination, boosters for adolescents and adults, public awareness campaigns about symptoms and transmission, early diagnosis and treatment, and isolation of infected individuals to prevent spread.

322
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Bordetella pertussis?

A

Bordetella pertussis is a Gram-negative, small rod-shaped (coccobacillus) bacterium. It may appear as slightly curved rods under the microscope.

323
Q

Is Bordetella pertussis oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Bordetella pertussis is oxidase-positive.

324
Q

Is Bordetella pertussis aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Bordetella pertussis is a facultative anaerobe, meaning it can survive in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

325
Q

Does Bordetella pertussis form spores?

A

No, Bordetella pertussis is non-spore-forming.

326
Q

Is Bordetella pertussis motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Bordetella pertussis is non-motile and does not possess flagella.

327
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Bordetella pertussis, and what are its symptoms?

A

Bordetella pertussis causes Pertussis (commonly known as Whooping Cough), characterized by:
* Initial Phase (Catarrhal Stage): Symptoms resemble a common cold, including runny nose, sneezing, low-grade fever, and mild cough.
* Paroxysmal Phase: Severe coughing fits followed by a whooping sound during inhalation, vomiting after coughing, and exhaustion.
* Convalescent Phase: Gradual recovery with decreasing cough severity but possible lingering cough for weeks.

Infants are particularly vulnerable and can suffer from apnea, pneumonia, and encephalopathy.

328
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Pertussis Toxin (PT): Disrupts immune cell signaling, causing leukocytosis and facilitating bacterial spread.
* Filamentous Hemagglutinin (FHA): Mediates attachment to respiratory epithelial cells.
* Adenylate Cyclase Toxin (ACT): Inhibits phagocytosis by immune cells and disrupts cytokine production.
* Tracheal Cytotoxin (TCT): Damages ciliated epithelial cells, impairing mucociliary clearance.
* Pertactin: Facilitates adherence to host cells and evasion of the immune system.
* Fimbriae: Aid in attachment to respiratory tract cells.

329
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Bordetella pertussis?

A

The primary reservoir is humans, specifically infected individuals. Bordetella pertussis does not have animal reservoirs and relies solely on human-to-human transmission.

330
Q

How is Bordetella pertussis infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): Detects Bordetella DNA from nasopharyngeal swabs or aspirates; highly sensitive and specific.
* Culture: Growing Bordetella pertussis on Bordet-Gengou agar (supplemented with blood and potassium tellurite) or Regan-Lowe agar; requires specialized media and laboratory expertise.
* Serological Tests: Detects antibodies against Bordetella antigens, useful in convalescent cases.
* Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) Tests: Identifies Bordetella antigens in clinical samples.
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms and exposure history, especially in suspected outbreaks.

331
Q

What treatments are effective against Bordetella pertussis infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is crucial for:
* Macrolides: Such as Azithromycin, Erythromycin, and Clarithromycin; the first-line treatment.
* Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ): An alternative for those allergic to macrolides.
Supportive Care:
* Hydration: Ensures fluid balance during severe coughing fits.
* Oxygen Therapy: For hypoxemia in severe cases.
* Mechanical Ventilation: May be required for respiratory failure.
* Isolation: To prevent the spread of infection to others.

Early antibiotic treatment can reduce the severity and duration of symptoms and limit transmission.

332
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Bordetella pertussis compared to other Bordetella species?

A

Bordetella pertussis distinguishes itself by:
* Disease Association: Specifically causes whooping cough, whereas other Bordetella species like Bordetella bronchiseptica primarily affect animals.
* Virulence Factors: Produces pertussis toxin, filamentous hemagglutinin, and adenylate cyclase toxin, which are critical for pathogenesis.
* Host Specificity: Primarily infects humans, with limited zoonotic potential.
* Antigenic Properties: Unique antigens used in PCR and serological diagnostics.
* Clinical Presentation: Characterized by paroxysmal coughing fits and whooping sounds, unlike other Bordetella infections.

333
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Bordetella pertussis?

A

Transmission occurs via the aerosolization of respiratory droplets through:
* Coughing and Sneezing: Infected individuals release contagious droplets into the air.
* Direct Contact: With respiratory secretions from infected persons.
* Close Personal Contact: Such as living in the same household or being in close proximity in crowded settings.

The disease is highly contagious, especially during the paroxysmal phase of coughing.

334
Q

Do Bordetella pertussis have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Bordetella pertussis has specific growth requirements:
* Selective Media: Such as Bordet-Gengou agar (supplemented with sheep blood and potassium tellurite) and Regan-Lowe agar; these media inhibit contaminating flora and support Bordetella growth.
* Temperature: Incubated at 35-37°C with 5-10% CO₂.
* Fastidious Growth: Requires iron-supplemented media and specific nutrients to grow effectively.
* Slow Growth Rate: Colonies may take 2-4 days to appear, which can delay diagnosis.

335
Q

Can Bordetella pertussis form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Bordetella pertussis can form biofilms, although this is less prominent compared to some other bacteria.
Significance:
* Enhanced Survival: Biofilms protect bacteria from environmental stresses, antibiotics, and host immune responses.
* Persistent Infections: Facilitate chronic carriage and asymptomatic shedding, contributing to transmission.
* Resistance to Disinfection: Makes eradication from environments like homes and healthcare settings more challenging.
* Vaccine Evasion: Biofilm-associated bacteria may express different antigens, potentially aiding in immune evasion.

336
Q

What are the public health implications of Bordetella pertussis infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Highly Contagious Nature: Leads to outbreaks in communities, especially among unvaccinated individuals.
* Vaccine-Preventable Disease: Emphasizes the importance of vaccination programs (DTaP for children and Tdap for adolescents/adults) to control spread.
* Economic Impact: Costs related to healthcare treatment, vaccination programs, and outbreak management.
* Vulnerable Populations: Infants, elderly, and immunocompromised individuals are at higher risk of severe disease.
* Antibiotic Resistance Concerns: Emergence of macrolide-resistant strains can complicate treatment strategies.
* Surveillance and Control: Necessitates ongoing surveillance for pertussis cases, rapid diagnostic testing, contact tracing, and public health interventions to prevent and manage outbreaks.
* Global Health Impact: Despite high vaccination coverage in some regions, pertussis remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide, particularly in areas with limited healthcare access.

Prevention Measures: Emphasize routine vaccination, boosters for adolescents and adults, public awareness campaigns about symptoms and transmission, early diagnosis and treatment, and isolation of infected individuals to prevent spread.

337
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative, pleomorphic (can appear as small rods, coccobacilli, or slightly curved rods) bacterium. It often appears as short rods under the microscope.

338
Q

Is Haemophilus influenzae oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is oxidase-positive.

339
Q

Is Haemophilus influenzae aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is a facultative anaerobe, meaning it can survive in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

340
Q

Does Haemophilus influenzae form spores?

A

No, Haemophilus influenzae is non-spore-forming.

341
Q

Is Haemophilus influenzae motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Haemophilus influenzae is typically non-motile and does not possess flagella.

342
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Haemophilus influenzae, and what are their symptoms?

A

Haemophilus influenzae causes a range of diseases, including invasive infections like meningitis, bacteremia, and epiglottitis, as well as non-invasive infections such as otitis media, sinusitis, and respiratory tract infections.

Symptoms vary by disease, e.g., meningitis includes fever, headache, and stiff neck.

343
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Key virulence factors include a capsule (especially in type b strains), lipooligosaccharide (LOS), fimbriae, IgA protease, hemagglutinin, and autotransporters.

344
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

The primary reservoirs include humans, where it is carried asymptomatically in the upper respiratory tract, and rarely in environmental sources.

345
Q

How is Haemophilus influenzae infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include culture on selective media, PCR, serological tests, microscopy, and rapid antigen detection tests.

346
Q

What treatments are effective against Haemophilus influenzae infections?

A

Antibiotic therapy is essential, including beta-lactams (e.g., amoxicillin), macrolides, fluoroquinolones, and supportive care.

Antibiotic resistance necessitates careful selection based on susceptibility patterns.

347
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Haemophilus influenzae compared to other Haemophilus species?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is distinguished by encapsulated strains (type b), specific growth requirements (X and V factors), a spectrum of diseases, vaccine availability, and higher antibiotic resistance.

348
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Transmission occurs via aerosolization of respiratory secretions through coughing, sneezing, direct contact, and close personal contact.

It is highly contagious, especially among young children.

349
Q

Do Haemophilus influenzae have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Haemophilus influenzae requires selective media like chocolate agar with X and V factors, a warm CO₂-enriched environment, and nutrient-rich media for optimal growth.

350
Q

Can Haemophilus influenzae form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Haemophilus influenzae can form biofilms on respiratory epithelium and medical devices, increasing antibiotic resistance and facilitating persistent infections.

351
Q

What are the public health implications of Haemophilus influenzae infections?

A

Public health implications include the impact of the Hib vaccine, rising antibiotic resistance, disease burden in unvaccinated populations, and the need for surveillance and control measures.

352
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative, pleomorphic (can appear as small rods, coccobacilli, or slightly curved rods) bacterium. It often appears as short rods under the microscope.

353
Q

Is Haemophilus influenzae oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is oxidase-positive.

354
Q

Is Haemophilus influenzae aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is a facultative anaerobe, meaning it can survive in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

355
Q

Does Haemophilus influenzae form spores?

A

No, Haemophilus influenzae is non-spore-forming.

356
Q

Is Haemophilus influenzae motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Haemophilus influenzae is typically non-motile and does not possess flagella.

357
Q

What diseases are primarily caused by Haemophilus influenzae, and what are their symptoms?

A

Haemophilus influenzae causes a range of diseases, including invasive infections like meningitis, bacteremia, and epiglottitis, as well as non-invasive infections such as otitis media, sinusitis, and respiratory tract infections.

Symptoms vary by disease, e.g., meningitis includes fever, headache, and stiff neck.

358
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Key virulence factors include a capsule (especially in type b strains), lipooligosaccharide (LOS), fimbriae, IgA protease, hemagglutinin, and autotransporters.

359
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

The primary reservoirs include humans, where it is carried asymptomatically in the upper respiratory tract, and rarely in environmental sources.

360
Q

How is Haemophilus influenzae infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include culture on selective media, PCR, serological tests, microscopy, and rapid antigen detection tests.

361
Q

What treatments are effective against Haemophilus influenzae infections?

A

Antibiotic therapy is essential, including beta-lactams (e.g., amoxicillin), macrolides, fluoroquinolones, and supportive care.

Antibiotic resistance necessitates careful selection based on susceptibility patterns.

362
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Haemophilus influenzae compared to other Haemophilus species?

A

Haemophilus influenzae is distinguished by encapsulated strains (type b), specific growth requirements (X and V factors), a spectrum of diseases, vaccine availability, and higher antibiotic resistance.

363
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Transmission occurs via aerosolization of respiratory secretions through coughing, sneezing, direct contact, and close personal contact.

It is highly contagious, especially among young children.

364
Q

Do Haemophilus influenzae have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Haemophilus influenzae requires selective media like chocolate agar with X and V factors, a warm CO₂-enriched environment, and nutrient-rich media for optimal growth.

365
Q

Can Haemophilus influenzae form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Haemophilus influenzae can form biofilms on respiratory epithelium and medical devices, increasing antibiotic resistance and facilitating persistent infections.

366
Q

What are the public health implications of Haemophilus influenzae infections?

A

Public health implications include the impact of the Hib vaccine, rising antibiotic resistance, disease burden in unvaccinated populations, and the need for surveillance and control measures.

367
Q

What are Gram-negative obligate anaerobes, and where are they commonly found?

A

Gram-negative obligate anaerobes are bacteria that do not retain the Gram stain, appearing pink/red after Gram staining, and cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, thriving only in oxygen-free environments. Common Locations: Human Gastrointestinal Tract, Oral Cavity, Genitourinary Tract, Environmental Sources.

368
Q

Name the primary genera encompassed by Gram-negative obligate anaerobes.

A

The main genera include: Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Fusobacterium, Veillonella.

369
Q

Describe the morphology and growth characteristics of Bacteroides fragilis.

A

Bacteroides fragilis is a Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium, facultative anaerobe, capsulated, and highly proteolytic.

370
Q

What diseases are commonly associated with Bacteroides fragilis?

A

Bacteroides fragilis is implicated in intra-abdominal infections, perioperative infections, bacteremia, and soft tissue infections.

371
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Bacteroides fragilis?

A

Key virulence factors include: Polysaccharide Capsule, Bacteroides Fragilis Toxin (BFT), Lipopolysaccharide (LPS), and Enzymes.

372
Q

How is Bacteroides fragilis diagnosed in the laboratory?

A

Diagnosis Methods: Culture on selective media, microscopy, molecular techniques, and antibiotic susceptibility testing.

373
Q

What are the treatment options for infections caused by Bacteroides fragilis?

A

Effective antibiotics include: Beta-Lactam/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor Combinations, Carbapenems, Metronidazole, and Clindamycin.

Always perform antibiotic susceptibility testing due to potential resistance.

374
Q

Describe the morphology and growth characteristics of Prevotella melaninogenica.

A

Prevotella melaninogenica is a Gram-negative, pigmented, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium, facultative anaerobe, producing melanin-like pigments, and highly proteolytic.

375
Q

What diseases are commonly associated with Prevotella melaninogenica?

A

Prevotella melaninogenica is linked to periodontal disease, respiratory tract infections, perioperative infections, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bacteremia.

376
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Prevotella melaninogenica?

A

Key virulence factors include: Capsule Formation, Hemagglutinins, Enzymes, Lipooligosaccharide (LOS), and Siderophores.

377
Q

How is Prevotella melaninogenica diagnosed in the laboratory?

A

Diagnosis Methods: Culture on selective media, microscopy, molecular techniques, and mass spectrometry.

378
Q

What are the treatment options for infections caused by Prevotella melaninogenica?

A

Effective antibiotics include: Beta-Lactam/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor Combinations, Carbapenems, Metronidazole, and Clindamycin.

Perform antibiotic susceptibility testing due to potential resistance patterns.

379
Q

Describe the morphology and growth characteristics of Porphyromonas gingivalis.

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis is a Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium, facultative anaerobe, requiring heme for growth, and highly proteolytic.

380
Q

What diseases are commonly associated with Porphyromonas gingivalis?

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis is primarily associated with periodontal disease, peri-implantitis, and systemic associations with cardiovascular diseases, rheumatoid arthritis, and Alzheimer’s disease.

381
Q

What are the public health implications of Gram-negative obligate anaerobes?

A

Public Health Implications Include: Healthcare-Associated Infections, Antibiotic Resistance, Polymicrobial Infections, Impact on Chronic Diseases, Environmental Contamination, Surveillance and Control, and Emerging Infections.

382
Q

What are the prevention measures for Gram-negative obligate anaerobes?

A

Prevention Measures: Improved Sanitation, Proper Wound Care, Antibiotic Stewardship, and Public Health Education.

383
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative, diplococcal (pairs of spherical bacteria) bacterium. It often appears as coffee-bean shaped diplococci under the microscope.

384
Q

Is Neisseria meningitidis oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Neisseria meningitidis is oxidase-positive.

385
Q

Is Neisseria meningitidis aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Neisseria meningitidis is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

386
Q

Does Neisseria meningitidis form spores?

A

No, Neisseria meningitidis is non-spore-forming.

387
Q

Is Neisseria meningitidis motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

No, Neisseria meningitidis is non-motile and does not possess flagella.

388
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Neisseria meningitidis, and what are its symptoms?

A

Neisseria meningitidis primarily causes Meningococcal Disease, which includes:
* Meningitis: Inflammation of the meninges, leading to fever, headache, stiff neck, photophobia, and altered mental status.
* Meningococcemia: Bloodstream infection characterized by fever, rash (often petechial or purpuric), shock, and multi-organ failure.
* Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome: Acute adrenal gland hemorrhage associated with severe meningococcemia, leading to acute adrenal insufficiency and shock.

Rapid progression can lead to death within hours if untreated.

389
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Polysaccharide Capsule: Essential for invasiveness and immune evasion; capsular types (A, B, C, W, Y, X) are associated with different epidemiological patterns.
* Pili (Fimbriae): Facilitate attachment to host epithelial cells and biofilm formation.
* Lipooligosaccharide (LOS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing strong inflammatory responses.
* Factor H Binding Protein (fHbp): Helps in evading the complement system.
* Opc Protein: Mediates invasion of host cells.
* IgA1 Protease: Cleaves IgA antibodies on mucosal surfaces, aiding in immune evasion.
* Autotransporters (e.g., App, NadA): Involved in adhesion, invasion, and immune modulation.

390
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Neisseria meningitidis?

A

The primary reservoirs are humans. It resides asymptomatically in the nasopharynx of carriers, particularly children and adolescents. Asymptomatic carriage can persist for weeks to months, facilitating transmission.

391
Q

How is Neisseria meningitidis infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis methods include:
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on symptoms such as fever, headache, stiff neck, and rash.
* Lumbar Puncture: Obtaining cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis, revealing increased white blood cells, low glucose, and high protein levels.
* Gram Stain: Detecting Gram-negative diplococci in CSF or blood samples.
* Culture:
* Selective Media: Such as Thayer-Martin agar (modified Chocolate agar with antibiotics) to isolate N. meningitidis.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects meningococcal DNA from CSF, blood, or throat swabs; highly sensitive and specific.
* Serological Tests: Identifies antibodies against N. meningitidis, useful in retrospective diagnosis.
* Rapid Antigen Detection Tests: Detects meningococcal antigens in CSF or blood samples.

392
Q

What treatments are effective against Neisseria meningitidis infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is crucial:
* Third-Generation Cephalosporins: Such as Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime; the drugs of choice for meningitis and meningococcemia.
* Penicillin G: Effective against susceptible strains, though resistance is increasing.
* Vancomycin: May be added in cases of penicillin-resistant strains.
Supportive Care:
* Hydration and Electrolyte Management
* Vasoactive Agents: For managing shock.
* Corticosteroids: May reduce inflammatory responses and neurological complications in meningitis.
* Isolation Precautions: To prevent spread to others.

393
Q

What are the important distinguishing features of Neisseria meningitidis compared to other Neisseria species?

A

Neisseria meningitidis distinguishes itself by:
* Disease Association: Primarily causes meningitis and meningococcemia, whereas Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea.
* Capsular Types: Possesses a polysaccharide capsule with distinct serogroups (A, B, C, W, Y, X) associated with epidemics and outbreaks.
* Transmission: Carried asymptomatically in the nasopharynx, enabling person-to-person transmission through respiratory droplets.
* Rider of Epidemics: Known for causing large-scale epidemics in crowded conditions like military barracks, college dormitories, and refugee camps.
* Vaccine Availability: Vaccines are available targeting specific serogroups, aiding in prevention of invasive disease.
* Biofilm Formation: Capable of forming biofilms in the nasopharynx, enhancing carriage and transmission.

394
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Transmission occurs via the aerosolization of respiratory secretions through:
* Coughing and Sneezing: Infected individuals release contagious droplets into the air.
* Close Personal Contact: Such as living in the same household, kissing, or sharing utensils.
* Sharing of Respiratory Devices: Including cigarettes or nursing bottles.

Asymptomatic carriers in the nasopharynx facilitate spread without exhibiting symptoms themselves.

395
Q

Do Neisseria meningitidis have any special growth requirements or preferred laboratory media?

A

Yes, Neisseria meningitidis has specific growth requirements:
* Selective Media: Such as Thayer-Martin agar (modified Chocolate agar with antibiotics like vancomycin, colistin, nystatin, and trimethoprim) to inhibit contaminating flora.
* Optimal Temperature: Grows best at 35-37°C with 5-10% CO₂.
* Fastidious Growth Requirements: Requires hemin (X factor) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (V factor), which are provided in Chocolate agar.
* Enriched Media: Chocolate agar supplemented with blood or serum enhances growth.
* Atmosphere: Capnophilic conditions (increased CO₂) support optimal growth.

396
Q

Can Neisseria meningitidis form biofilms, and what is the significance of biofilm formation?

A

Yes, Neisseria meningitidis can form biofilms on:
* Nasopharyngeal Epithelium: Enhancing carrier state and asymptomatic carriage.
* Medical Devices: Such as respiratory equipment and catheters, leading to nosocomial infections.
* Environmental Surfaces: Including water systems and public facilities.
Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance: Biofilms protect bacteria from antibiotics and host immune responses, making infections harder to treat.
* Persistent Carriage: Facilitates long-term carriage in the nasopharynx, enhancing transmission.
* Enhanced Survival: Allows N. meningitidis to withstand environmental stresses, aiding in spread and outbreaks.
* Immune Evasion: Biofilms can shield bacteria from immune surveillance, promoting persistent infection.

397
Q

What are the public health implications of Neisseria meningitidis infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* Epidemics and Outbreaks: Can cause large-scale outbreaks in crowded settings like schools, college dormitories, military barracks, and refugee camps.
* High Mortality and Morbidity: Without prompt treatment, meningococcal disease can be fatal or lead to long-term neurological sequelae such as hearing loss, cognitive impairments, and limb amputations.
* Vaccine Programs: Implementation of meningococcal vaccination for high-risk populations (e.g., adolescents, military recruits) and travelers to endemic regions helps in preventing disease.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Emerging resistant strains complicate treatment strategies and necessitate antibiotic stewardship.
* Surveillance and Reporting: Essential for early detection of outbreaks, monitoring of carriage rates, and evaluating vaccine effectiveness.
* Public Awareness and Education: Educating the public about symptoms, transmission, and importance of vaccination aids in early diagnosis and prevention.
* Healthcare Preparedness: Ensuring rapid diagnostic capabilities, adequate treatment protocols, and isolation measures in healthcare settings to control spread.
* Global Health Impact: While vaccines have reduced incidence in many regions, meningococcal disease remains a significant cause of mortality in sub-Saharan Africa’s meningitis belt and other areas with low vaccination coverage.
Prevention Measures: Emphasize routine vaccination, boosters for high-risk groups, public health surveillance, prompt antibiotic treatment, quarantine measures during outbreaks, and public education campaigns to reduce transmission and disease burden.

398
Q

What is the recommended treatment for patients with Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Spectinomycin: 2 g intramuscularly as a single dose.

399
Q

What is the treatment approach for sexual partners of Neisseria gonorrhoeae patients?

A

Treatment of sexual partners is necessary to prevent reinfection and transmission.

400
Q

What does supportive care for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections include?

A

Supportive care includes pain management and addressing complications if present.

401
Q

Why is antibiotic susceptibility testing important for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Always perform antibiotic susceptibility testing due to variable resistance patterns.

402
Q

What are the distinguishing features of Neisseria gonorrhoeae compared to other Neisseria species?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae distinguishes itself by:
* Disease Association: Causes gonorrhea, while N. meningitidis causes meningitis.
* Capsular Presence: N. gonorrhoeae is non-encapsulated.
* Growth Requirements: Requires V and X factors for growth on Chocolate agar.
* Pili Structure: Has longer and more numerous pili.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Higher rates of resistance to penicillins, tetracyclines, and fluoroquinolones.
* Biochemical Tests: Positive for oxidase and catalase; ferments glucose and fructose but not sucrose or mannitol.

403
Q

What are the common modes of transmission for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Transmission occurs via sexual contact through:
* Vaginal, Anal, and Oral Sex.
* Mother-to-Child Transmission during birth.
* Direct Contact with infected secretions.
* Autoinoculation.

Asymptomatic carriers can unknowingly spread the infection.

404
Q

What are the special growth requirements for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae has specific growth requirements:
* Selective Media: Thayer-Martin agar.
* Chocolate Agar: Enriched with V and X factors.
* Atmosphere: Requires 5-10% CO₂-enriched atmosphere.
* Temperature: Incubated at 35-37°C.
* Fastidious Growth: Requires nutrient-rich media.
* Time to Grow: Colonies typically appear within 24-48 hours.

405
Q

Can Neisseria gonorrhoeae form biofilms, and what is the significance?

A

Yes, Neisseria gonorrhoeae can form biofilms, particularly in:
* Genital Tract.
* Medical Devices.
* Environmental Surfaces.

Significance:
* Increased Antibiotic Resistance.
* Persistent Infections.
* Enhanced Survival.
* Immune Evasion.

406
Q

What are the public health implications of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections?

A

Public health implications include:
* High Prevalence of STIs.
* Antibiotic Resistance Crisis.
* Complications such as PID and neonatal infections.
* Economic Impact of healthcare costs.
* Importance of Surveillance and Control.
* Vaccine Development needs.
* Social and Behavioral Factors affecting transmission.
* Global Health Disparities.

Prevention Measures: Emphasize consistent condom use, regular STI screening, and public health education.

407
Q

What are Spirochaetes, and what are their general characteristics?

A

Spirochaetes are a group of Gram-negative, helical-shaped (spiral) bacteria known for their unique axial filaments (endoflagella) that run along the length of the cell, enabling flexible and corkscrew-like motility. They are typically obligate or facultative anaerobes, thrive in microaerophilic or anaerobic environments, and are often associated with diseases in humans and animals.

408
Q

What are the primary genera within the Spirochaetes phylum, and which diseases do they cause?

A

The main genera include:
* Treponema: Causes Syphilis (T. pallidum), Yaws (T. pertenue), and Bejel (T. endemicum).
* Borrelia: Causes Lyme Disease (B. burgdorferi), Relapsing Fever (B. recurrentis, B. hermsii), and Hard Tick-Borne Relapsing Fever.
* Leptospira: Causes Leptospirosis.

409
Q

Describe the morphology and motility of Treponema pallidum.

A

Treponema pallidum is a Gram-negative, helical-shaped (spirochete) bacterium approximately 6-20 micrometers in length. It possesses periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) located between the outer membrane and the peptidoglycan layer, enabling flexible, corkscrew-like movement through viscous environments like mucus and tissue fluids.

410
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Treponema pallidum, and what are its clinical stages?

A

Treponema pallidum causes Syphilis, which progresses through several stages:
* Primary Syphilis: Characterized by the development of a chancre (painless ulcer) at the infection site.
* Secondary Syphilis: Presents with systemic symptoms such as rash (often on palms and soles), fever, lymphadenopathy, and mucocutaneous lesions.
* Latent Syphilis: An asymptomatic phase that can persist for years.
* Tertiary Syphilis: Involves gummas (granulomatous lesions), cardiovascular syphilis, and neurosyphilis (e.g., meningitis, tabes dorsalis).

411
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Treponema pallidum?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Outer Membrane Proteins (Tpr): Facilitate adhesion and invasion of host tissues.
* Lipooligosaccharide (LOS): Acts as an endotoxin, inducing inflammatory responses.
* Antigenic Variation: Changes in surface proteins to evade the host immune system.
* Ability to Penetrate Host Cells: Invades endothelial cells and phagocytes to avoid immune detection.

412
Q

How is Treponema pallidum infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis Methods:
* Serological Tests:
* Non-Treponemal Tests: Such as VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin).
* Treponemal Tests: Such as FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption) and TP-PA (T. pallidum Particle Agglutination).
* Dark-Field Microscopy: Direct visualization of spirochetes from chancre exudate.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects T. pallidum DNA from clinical samples like blood or lesion swabs.

413
Q

What treatments are effective against Treponema pallidum infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy:
* Penicillin G: The treatment of choice for all stages of syphilis.
* Benzathine Penicillin G: Single intramuscular injection for primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis.
* Procaine Penicillin G or Penicillin G Benzathine: For late latent or tertiary syphilis.
* Alternatives: For penicillin-allergic patients, options include Doxycycline or Tetracycline, though penicillin remains preferred.

414
Q

Describe the morphology and growth characteristics of Borrelia burgdorferi.

A

Borrelia burgdorferi is a Gram-negative, spirochete-shaped bacterium with a flexible, helical structure approximately 10-30 micrometers in length. It possesses periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) that facilitate spirochetal motility, allowing movement through host tissues and the extracellular matrix.

415
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, and what are its clinical manifestations?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme Disease, characterized by:
* Early Localized Stage: Erythema migrans (bull’s-eye rash) at the tick bite site, accompanied by flu-like symptoms (fever, chills, headache, muscle aches).
* Early Disseminated Stage: Multiple erythema migrans, neurological symptoms (e.g., facial palsy, meningitis), and carditis (e.g., heart block).
* Late Disseminated Stage: Arthritis (commonly knee), neurological deficits (e.g., neuropathy, encephalopathy), and chronic symptoms such as fatigue and cognitive dysfunction.

416
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Outer Surface Proteins (OspA, OspC): Facilitate attachment to host tissues and evade immune responses.
* VlsE Variable Surface Lipoprotein: Undergoes antigenic variation to avoid immune detection.
* Capsule: Protects against phagocytosis.
* Enzymes: Such as DNases and proteases that degrade host tissues and immune components.
* Chemotaxis Proteins: Aid in movement towards host tissues and colonization.

417
Q

How is Borrelia burgdorferi infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis Methods:
* Clinical Evaluation: Based on exposure to ticks, presence of erythema migrans, and symptoms.
* Serological Tests:
* Two-Tiered Testing: ELISA followed by Western blot for confirmation.
* PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Detects Borrelia DNA from joint fluid, skin lesions, or blood samples; highly sensitive and specific.
* Culture: Difficult, performed on Barbour-Stoenner-Kelly (BSK) agar, requiring specialized media and several weeks to grow.

418
Q

What treatments are effective against Borrelia burgdorferi infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy:
* Doxycycline: 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-21 days; first-line for early Lyme disease.
* Amoxicillin: 500 mg orally three times daily for 14-21 days; alternative for penicillin-allergic patients.
* Cefuroxime Axetil: 500 mg orally twice daily for 14 days; alternative.
* For Late or Severe Cases:
* Ceftriaxone: 2 g intravenously once daily for 14 days.
* Supportive Care: Includes pain management and anti-inflammatory medications as needed.

419
Q

Describe the morphology and growth characteristics of Leptospira interrogans.

A

Leptospira interrogans is a Gram-negative, spiral-shaped (spirochete) bacterium with a flexible, helical structure approximately 6-20 micrometers in length. It possesses periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) that facilitate spirochetal motility. Leptospira are aerobic to microaerophilic, fastidious bacteria requiring semi-solid media and specific nutrients for laboratory growth.

420
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Leptospira interrogans, and what are its clinical features?

A

Leptospira interrogans causes Leptospirosis, characterized by:
* Biphasic Illness:
* Septicemic Phase: Acute fever, headache, myalgia (especially in the calves), jaundice, hemorrhage, renal impairment, and liver dysfunction.
* Immune Phase: Immune response causing inflammation of various organs, potentially leading to Weil’s disease (severe jaundice, renal failure, hemorrhage) and meningitis.
* Symptoms: Flu-like symptoms initially, progressing to more severe manifestations if untreated.

421
Q

What are the public health implications of infections caused by Spirochaetes (Treponema pallidum, Borrelia burgdorferi, Leptospira interrogans)?

A

Public Health Implications Include:
* High Morbidity and Mortality: Especially if infections are untreated, leading to long-term complications such as neurosyphilis, chronic arthritis, or renal failure.
* Antibiotic Resistance: Emerging resistant strains (e.g., Borrelia resistance to certain antibiotics) necessitate antibiotic stewardship and research into new treatments.
* Surveillance and Control: Importance of monitoring disease trends, vector control (ticks for Lyme disease), sanitation measures to prevent leptospirosis, and public health education.
* Vaccination Efforts: Currently, there are no effective vaccines for Lyme disease or leptospirosis, highlighting the need for ongoing research and development.
* Global Health Impact: These diseases affect populations worldwide, with varying prevalence based on geographical, environmental, and socioeconomic factors.
* Economic Burden: Costs related to healthcare treatment, diagnosis, public health interventions, and lost productivity.
* Preventive Measures: Emphasize safe sex practices (syphilis), tick bite prevention (Lyme disease), safe water practices (leptospirosis), public awareness campaigns, and prompt diagnosis and treatment to reduce transmission and disease burden.

422
Q

What is the Gram stain characteristic and shape of Leptospira interrogans?

A

Leptospira interrogans is a Gram-negative, spirochete-shaped bacterium. It has a flexible, helical structure approximately 6-20 micrometers in length and 0.1 micrometers in diameter, with a distinctive corkscrew-like appearance.

423
Q

Is Leptospira interrogans oxidase-positive or oxidase-negative?

A

Leptospira interrogans is oxidase-positive.

424
Q

Is Leptospira interrogans aerobic, anaerobic, or facultative?

A

Leptospira interrogans is a facultative anaerobe, capable of surviving in both the presence and absence of oxygen.

425
Q

Does Leptospira interrogans form spores?

A

No, Leptospira interrogans is non-spore-forming.

426
Q

Is Leptospira interrogans motile, and what type of flagella does it possess?

A

Yes, Leptospira interrogans is motile and possesses periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) located between the inner and outer membranes. These flagella enable its characteristic spirochetal motility, allowing movement through viscous environments.

427
Q

What disease is primarily caused by Leptospira interrogans, and what are its symptoms?

A

Leptospira interrogans causes Leptospirosis, which presents with a range of symptoms:
* Biphasic Illness:
* Septicemic Phase: Acute onset of fever, headache, muscle aches (especially in the calves), jaundice, hemorrhage, and renal impairment.
* Immune Phase: Flu-like symptoms may persist, and severe cases can lead to Weil’s disease (characterized by jaundice, renal failure, and hemorrhage) and meningitis.
* Symptoms: Fever, chills, headache, myalgia, red eyes, rash, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting.
* Severe Complications: Pulmonary hemorrhage, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), heart failure, and multi-organ dysfunction.

428
Q

What are the key virulence factors of Leptospira interrogans?

A

Key virulence factors include:
* Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): Acts as an endotoxin, triggering inflammatory responses and immune system modulation.
* Outer Membrane Proteins (e.g., LipL32, Lig proteins): Facilitate adhesion to host tissues, invasion, and immune evasion.
* Flagella: Enable motility and penetration through host tissues.
* Hemolysins: Cause destruction of red blood cells, contributing to hemorrhagic manifestations.
* Phospholipase C: Degrades host cell membranes, aiding in invasion and spread.
* Proteases: Degrade host proteins and extracellular matrix, facilitating tissue invasion.

429
Q

What is the primary reservoir for Leptospira interrogans?

A

The primary reservoirs include:
* Wild and Domestic Animals: Such as rats, mice, livestock (cattle, pigs, sheep), dogs, horses, and wild mammals.
* Environmental Sources: Leptospira can survive in water, soil, and freshwater sources contaminated with animal urine.
* Humans: While humans are dead-end hosts, they can become infected through direct contact with infected animals or indirect contact with contaminated environments.

430
Q

How is Leptospira interrogans infection diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis Methods:
* Serological Tests:
* Microscopic Agglutination Test (MAT): Considered the gold standard; detects antibodies against Leptospira.
* Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA): Detects IgM and IgG antibodies.
* Molecular Techniques:
* Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): Detects Leptospira DNA in blood, urine, or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF); highly sensitive and specific.
* Culture:
* Fletcher’s Medium: Specialized semi-solid agar used for isolating Leptospira; slow-growing and requires extended incubation periods.
* Dark-Field Microscopy: Direct visualization of spirochetes from blood, urine, or CSF samples during the septicemic phase.
* Other Diagnostic Methods: IgM immunochromatographic assays and loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP).

431
Q

What treatments are effective against Leptospira interrogans infections?

A

Antibiotic Therapy is crucial:
* Doxycycline: 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days; effective for mild cases and as prophylaxis for high-risk exposures.
* Penicillin G: Intravenously, 2-4 million units per day for 7-10 days; the treatment of choice for severe cases.
* Amoxicillin: 500 mg orally three times daily for 7 days; an alternative for mild to moderate infections.
* Third-Generation Cephalosporins: Such as Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime for severe or neurological infections.
* Macrolides: Such as Azithromycin as alternatives in specific cases.
Supportive Care:
* Hydration and Electrolyte Management
* Dialysis: For patients with renal failure
* Respiratory Support: For those with pulmonary complications
* Management of Hemorrhagic Manifestations
Note: Early antibiotic treatment significantly improves prognosis and reduces the risk of severe complications.

432
Q

What is the recommended dosage for mild to moderate infections?

A

Three times daily for 7 days; an alternative for mild to moderate infections.

433
Q

What are third-generation cephalosporins used for?

A

Such as Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime for severe or neurological infections.

434
Q

What are macrolides used for?

A

Such as Azithromycin as alternatives in specific cases.

435
Q

What supportive care measures are recommended?

A

Hydration and Electrolyte Management, Dialysis for patients with renal failure, Respiratory Support for those with pulmonary complications, Management of Hemorrhagic Manifestations.

436
Q

What is the significance of early antibiotic treatment?

A

Early antibiotic treatment significantly improves prognosis and reduces the risk of severe complications.