Dental Antiviral and Antifungal Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

virus in latin means:

A

poison

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2
Q

what is a virus

A

small, obligate parasites with DNA or RNA genomes

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3
Q

how do viruses work

A

viral genomes direct their own replication and the synthesis of other viral components using host cell machinery
- no metabolic activity of their own
- not alive themselves

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4
Q

who do viruses infect

A
  • can infect all living organisms, commonly cause disease in humans
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5
Q

do viruses reproduce faster or bacteria

A

viruses

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6
Q

are viruses easier or more difficult to treat than bacteria

A

more difficult

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7
Q

what is the animal virus life cycle

A
  • attachment: polypeptide binding sites (on envelope or capsid) interact with host cell receptors
  • entry: receptor- virus complex enters host cell (endocytosis)
  • replication: utilizing host cell metabolic processes, nucleic acids and proteins are synthesized and assembled into viral particles
  • process varies (DNA vs RNA)
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8
Q

why do antiviral drugs have limited selective toxicity

A
  • viruses mostly use host cell machinery, so very few unique targets
  • most drugs block steps that take place within cells, increasing chances for cell toxicity
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9
Q

describe the viral attachment to host cell

A
  • highly specific interaction first step in infection
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10
Q

what does enfuvirtide do

A
  • anti-HIV drug
  • viral attachment to host cell
  • blocks folding of gp41 protein, prevents fusion of virus with host cell membrane
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11
Q

describe the uncoating of the virus

A

for most viruses, nucleic acid must leave the capsid for transcription or replication

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12
Q

what is amantadine and what does it do

A
  • anti flu drug
  • uncoating of virus
  • blocks M1 receptor, preventing detection of pH outside of virus
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13
Q

describe the viral DNA/RNA synthesis and give examples

A

-enzymes needed for replication of viral nucleic acid are either unique targets (reverse transcriptase) or more sensitive than host enzymes to drugs
- inhibition of specific enzymes
- NRTIs (HIV), baloxavir (flu), remdesivir (COVID-19)

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14
Q

describe the inhibition of viral assembly and give examples

A
  • proteins attached to host membrane
  • HIV makes long precursor protein which is then cut into functional proteins by HIV protease
  • protease inhibitors such as saquinavir, ritonavir, and indinavir block this step
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15
Q

describe the blocking of budding/release and give examples

A
  • many viruses bud, taking host membrane with viral proteins embedded
  • surface glycoproteins (neuraminidase) must remove terminal sialic acid residues from glycoproteins or new virions will attack on way out, and get stuck
  • oseltamivir (Tamiflu): drugs inhibit neuraminidase; dont stop viral replication but prevent viral spread
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16
Q

describe the stimulation/assisting of immune system and give examples

A
  • natural human peptides used as drugs
  • interferon: inhibit protein synthesis, degrade viral RNA
  • immunoglobulin
  • monoclonal antibodies
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17
Q

what is the herpes simplex virus

A
  • HSV-1 and HSV-2
  • large DNA virus spread by direct contact due to viral shedding from saliva or blood
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18
Q

what is the infectious process of herpes simplex

A

infection through broken skin and inoculates nerve tissue- primary infection

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19
Q

when is herpes simplex active and latent

A
  • herpes viruses remain latent for long periods of time without reproducing and avoid the immune response
  • immune deficiency states, stress, irritating agents reactivate latent virus, trauma to the area of primary infection by dental procedures, extractions, lip injury
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20
Q

what are the prodromal symptoms of herpes simplex virus

A

pain, tingling, burning

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21
Q

where does herpes occur

A

on keratinized tissue

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22
Q

what is herpes simplex labialis

A
  • a cold sore
  • HSV type 1
  • primarily oral
    3% genital area
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23
Q

what is herpes simplex genitalis

A
  • HSV type 2
  • primarily genital
  • 30% oral
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24
Q

what is the latency of herpes simples

A
  • virus ascends (trigeminal) nerves- survives/persists
  • hides from immune system in nerve cell bodies of ganglia
  • virus lies dormant (for life) in nerve roots, intermittently reactivates. shed new virus through blisters
  • herpes is never eliminated- only managed
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25
Q

what are the reactivation triggers for herpes simplex

A
  • UV light
  • friction, trauma
  • fever, illness
  • stress
  • steroids
  • immunosuppressants
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26
Q

what approach for the management of HSV-1 depends on:

A
  • primary HSV-1 infection or reactivation
  • severity of symptoms
  • site of infection
  • frequency of recurrences
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27
Q

what are the systemic agents used for management of HSV-1

A
  • acyclovir, famiciclovir, valacyclovir
  • famciclovir and valacyclovir better oral bioavailability than acyclovir: longer half life, dosed less frequently, more expensive
  • excellent safety for all three medications: selectively converted to active compounds within virally infected cells
  • acyclovir is the only intravenous agent
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28
Q

describe DNA nucleoside analogs

A
  • drugs are structural analogs of nucleosides- building blocks of DNA and RNA
  • good anti viral drugs- block viral nucleic acid synthesis
  • are selectively toxic prodrugs. only viruses with viral thymidine kinase are affected
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29
Q

what is the key to selectivity with thymidine kinase

A
  • changes nucleosides into a nucleotides by adding 1st phosphate
  • thymidine kinase is less active in normal nerve cells
  • herpesvirus has its own viral thymidine kinase that is very active
  • selectively toxic because the drug is phosphorylated by the viral thymidine kinase only. drug is activated in infected cells only
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30
Q

viral thymidine kinase works _____ than host cell thymidine kinase

A

100x faster

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31
Q

what stops DNA polymerase/synthesis with nucleoside antivrial drugs

A

false nucleotide

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32
Q

what is the dosing of herpes simplex virus with acyclovir

A

acyclovir 400mg PO TID for 5 days or 200mg PO five times a day for 7-10 days

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33
Q

what herpes drug needs to be adjusted for dose with kidney disease

A

acyclovir

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34
Q

what is the drug interaction with acyclovir

A

tizanidine

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35
Q

what is the MOA of valacyclovir

A

prodrug which is rapidly converted to acyclovir

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36
Q

what is the dosing with valacyclovir

A

1 gram PO BID 7-10 days but if recurrent infection only 2 grams PO BID for one day

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37
Q

what is the drug interaction with valacyclovir

A

tizanidine

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38
Q

can pregnant women take herpes simplex therapeutics

A

yes acyclovir and valacyclovir

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39
Q

what is the MOA of the drug-drug interaction with acyclovir and valacyclovir

A
  • they are weal CYP1A2 inhibitors
  • may increase serum concentration of tizanidine
  • risk rating D -> consider therapy modification
  • if therapy cannot be modified, monitor for increase adverse reactions of tizanidine such as hypotension, bradycardia, drowsiness
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40
Q

what is the MOA of famiciclovir

A

prodrug which is rapidly converted to active penciclovir

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41
Q

what is the dosing for famciclovir

A

250mg TID or 500mg BID for 7-10 days
for recurrent ifnections 1500mg single dose

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42
Q

what are the drug interactions with famciclovir

A

none and safe in pregnancy

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43
Q

topicals are _____ than oral agents

A

less effective

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44
Q

describe the 1% penciclovir cream and dose

A
  • recurrent: apply q2h x 4 days (x9 times a day)
  • best topical to date
  • cream should not be applied to mucocutaneous tissue
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45
Q

describe the 5% acyclovir cream or ointment and dose

A
  • topical ointment has not demonstrated much benefit in adult non immunocompromised patients
  • recurrent: apply 5 times daily for 4 days
  • ointment appropriate for mucocutaneous tissues
  • buccal tablet: apply one 50 mg tablet as a single dose to the upper gum region (canine fossa)
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46
Q

what is the OTC treatment for herpes labialis and describe it

A
  • n-docosanol (Abreva)
  • used in cosmetics as thickener, ointment, emollient
  • inhibits fusion between human cell membrane and viral envelope
  • applied 5x daily beginning within 12 hours of onset
  • safe and somewhat effective
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47
Q

what type of virus is the HIV virus

A

RNA retrovirus

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48
Q

what is the MOA of HIV

A
  • transforms its RNA into DNA, reversing the natural process
  • requires reverse transcriptase (viral DNA polymerase)
  • main target of HIV:T- cells (CD4) and macrophages
  • host- where the virus harbors and replicates
  • in the host cytoplasm:
    -1st step: viral RNA transcribed into a double- stranded DNA
  • 2nd step: Viral DNA incorporated into T-cells DNA
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49
Q

what are the oral health care considerations for the HIV patient

A
  • HIV patients are often referred for routine and preventative dental care
  • range of oral manifestations can occur due to immunodeficient status or antiretroviral therapy
  • challenges with access to oral health services
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50
Q

what are the oral complications of HIV

A
  • oral candidiasis
  • oral hairy leukoplakia
  • oral kaposi’s sarcoma (human herpes virus 8)
  • oral viral infections (HSV)
  • ulcerative disease
  • malignancy
  • dental caries, gingivitis, periodontitis
  • more severe manifestations of periodontal disease (linear gingival erythema, necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis and necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
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51
Q

what determines what infections occur in HIV

A

CD4 count

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52
Q

what is the normal CD4 count

A

greater than 1000

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53
Q

aids defining opporunistic infections start to appear at CD4 count of:

A

less than 750

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54
Q

which infections first occur in HIV

A

candida, TB, bacterial infections

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55
Q

with the opportunisitc infection of pneumocystic jiroveci pneumonia with HIV what is the CD4 count that warrants prophylaxis and what is the prophylaxis

A
  • less than 200
  • sulfamethoxale- trimethoprim (bactrim) 1 DS tablet daily
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56
Q

with the opportunisitc infection of toxoplasmosis with HIV what is the CD4 count that warrants prophylaxis and what is the prophylaxis

A
  • less than 100
  • sulfamethoxale- trimethoprim (bactrim) 1 DS tablet daily
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57
Q

with the opportunisitc infection of mycobacterium avium complex with HIV what is the CD4 count that warrants prophylaxis and what is the prophylaxis

A
  • less than 50
  • azithromycin 1200mg once weekly
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58
Q

what are the HIV targets in treatment

A
  • fusion inhibitors
  • protease inhibitors
  • reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • integrase inhibitors
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59
Q

how many NRTIs are used together

60
Q

describe nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A
  • incorporated into viral DNA stops further transcription to DNA
  • interrupt the virus from duplicating
  • nucleoside analogs converted by host cell thymidine kinase to nucleototides
61
Q

what are the NRTIs

A
  • Abacavir
  • Lamivudine
  • Tenofovir
62
Q

what are the combination NRTIs for once daily dosing

A
  • Epzicom
  • Truvada
63
Q

what do non- nucleoside transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) do

A

directly binds/blocks reverse transcriptase enzyme

64
Q

what are the disadvantages of NNRTI

A
  • highest incidence of resistance ~18%
  • high cross resistance in entire class - requires only a single mutation
  • CYPP450 inducers
65
Q

what are the advantages of NNRTI

A
  • daily dosing (long half lives)
  • no interference with food
  • do not increase TG, less severe side effects vs PIs
  • can use in renal disease
66
Q

NNRTIs block the infection of new cells by HIV with these drugs:

A
  • Efravirenz (Sustiva, EFV)
  • Rilpivirine (Edurant, RPV)
67
Q

what do protease inhibitors do

A
  • blocks last stage of virus production - new protein production
  • prevents HIV assembly
  • all are CYP 3A4 substrates
68
Q

what are the drugs that are protease inhibitors

A
  • atazanvir (reyataz, ATV)
  • fosamprenavir (Lexiva, FOS)
  • Prezcobix = Darunavir + cobicistat
69
Q

describe protease inhibitors

A
  • often boosted
  • strong inhibitors of CYP3A4 added to boost levels of PI’s/NNRTI’s
  • Ritonavir and cobicistat are strong CYP3A4 inhibitors that are added
  • less frequent dosing, same efficacy
  • less resistance: unboosted resistance ~5%/year
  • boosted resistance <1%/yr
70
Q

what are the adverse effects of protease inhibitors

A
  • insulin resistance
  • hyperglycemia
  • diabetes
  • hyperlipidemia
  • lipodystrophy
  • hepatotocivity
  • increased risk of bleeding **
  • PR internal prolongation
71
Q

what are the oral adverse effects of protease inhibitors per drug

A
  • fosamprenavir (Lexiva) - perioral numbness, taste changes
  • atazanavir (Reyataz) - Dental pain, taste changes
  • ritonavir (Norvir) -taste changes
72
Q

what do integrate strand transfer inhibitors do

A
  • bind integrase enzyme, block viral DNA integration into host cell DNA
73
Q

describe integrate strand transfer inhibitors

A
  • no major side effects
  • preferred for initial therapy: high efficacy, low adverse effect profile, minimal drug interactions
74
Q

what drugs are integrase strand transfer inhibitors

A
  • Dolutegravir (trivicay)
  • Bictegravir (biktarvy)
75
Q

what is the initial treatment for HIV

A
  • combination of INSTI and 2 NRTIs is preferred for most patients: 2 NRTIs and 1 INSTI
  • 3 drugs from at least 2 different classes of medication
  • first line treatment variation: 2 NRTIs and 1 PI
76
Q

multiple agents in treating HIV are ____ used

77
Q

what drug for HIV is known as the backbone of therapy

78
Q

what are the most common single tablet regimens for HIV

A
  • bictegravir - TAF- Emtricitabine = Biktarvy
  • Dolutegravir - Abacavir- Lamivudine = Triumeq
  • Dolutegravir - Lamivudine (Dovato)
79
Q

what is the post exposure of HIV prophylaxis

A
  • cleanse intact skin with soap and water, open wounds with antiseptic, and mucosal by flushing with lots of water
  • start PEP < 2 hours
80
Q

what body fluids are of concern in Post exposure prophylaxis with HIV

A
  • semen, vaginal, other body fluids contaminated with visible blood
81
Q

what body fluids are not considered infectious unless they contain blood with HIV

A
  • feces
  • nasal secretions
  • saliva
  • gastric secretions
  • sputum
  • sweat
  • tears
  • urine
  • vomut
82
Q

what is the risk of exposure with HIV

A

HIV transmission in .33% following percutaneous expsure

83
Q

what is the drug regiment for post exposure prophylaxis for HIV

A
  • tenofovir- emtricitabine (Truvada) plus dolutgravir (trivicay)
  • tenofovir- emtricitabine (Truvada) plus raltegravir (Isentress)
  • 4 weeks of therapy
84
Q

what is influenza A

A
  • obligate intracellular parasite
  • replicates inside host respiratory cells
85
Q

what are the two major surface glycoprotein antigens in influenza A and what do they do

A
  • hemagluttinin (H)- cell attachment
  • neuraminidase (N)- maturation and release
86
Q

what is the treatment for influenza A

A
  • neuraminidase inhibitors (INfluenza A and B): zanamavir (relenza), oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
  • endonuclease inhibitors (influenza A and B): baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza)
87
Q

what are the indications, mechanism of action, and examples of neuraminidase inhibitors

A
  • indications: prophylaxais and treatment of influenza A and B
  • MOA: prevent the release of new virions from the cell surface, binds the surface antigen neuraminidase, on influenza A and B viruses preventing release of new viruses, neuraminidase releases virus from cell surface
  • Oseltaminir (Tamiflu)
  • Zanamivir (Relenza)
88
Q

what is the dosing for Tamiflu

A
  • tx: 75mg by mouth BID for 5 days
  • prevention: 75 mg PO QD for 7 days following exposure
  • begin within 48 hours of symptoms or exposure
89
Q

what do endonuclease inhibitors do

A
  • inhibits initiation of mRNA and transcription of viral RNA
90
Q

what is an example of endonuclease inhibitors

A

baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza)

91
Q

what is the dosing of baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza)

A
  • less than 80 kg: 40 mg as single dose within 48 hours of symptoms or exposure
  • more than 80 kg: 80mg as a single dose within 48 hours of symptoms or exposure
92
Q

fungus are mainly seen as:

A

opportunistic or superinfections

93
Q

describe the difference between cutaneous fungal infections and systemic fungal infections

A
  • cutaneous: common, chronic, seldom dangerous
  • systemic: difficult to diagnose, treat and often lethal
94
Q

visible fungal infections of the mouth can tell you:

A
  • immune status
  • drugs that are taking
95
Q

describe the selective toxicity in treating fungal infections

A
  • rigid cell walls contain chitin and the cell membrane contains ergosterol
  • selectiv toxicity achieved by targeting ergosterol
96
Q

what are the medically important fungal groups

A
  • molds (dermatophytes)
  • yeasts (candida, cryptococcus, aspergillus)
97
Q

describe dermatophytes

A
  • subgroup of molds that live on skin
  • normla inhabitants of skin, contagious, spread by contact
  • produce keratinases that dissolve keratin
  • hyphal filaments penetrate into keratin
  • invades hair shafts and nail beds
98
Q

dermatophyte (tinea) infections affect:

A

keratinized tissues

99
Q

what are the 3 common pathogenic dermatophytes

A
  • trichophyton
  • epidermophyton
  • microsporum
100
Q

what are the Tinea disease/ “cutaneous mycoses”

A
  • tinea capitis- scalp - common in children
  • tinea corporis - body
  • tinea pedis- athletes foot
  • tinea cruris - groin
  • tinea unguium - toenails (onychomycosis)
101
Q

what are allymines and examples

A
  • binds/inhibits squalene epoxidase: squalene precursors build up and are also toxic aiding toxicity, requires actively growing fungi
  • fungicidal against dermatophytes only: weak fungistatic activity against candida, little drug interaction potential, few side effects
  • terbinafine
  • naftifine
102
Q

what is the most common fungal infection in the mouth

103
Q

c albicans normal habitat is:

A

the human oral cavity

104
Q

what are the symptoms of oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush)

A
  • cottony feeling in the mouth, loss of taste, and/or painful eating and swallowing
  • many pts are asymptomatic
  • immunosuppressed patients with thrush often have concomitant candida esophagitis
105
Q

what is the treatment for oropharyngeal candida albicans

A
  • 10 day duration
  • clotrimazole troches (one 10mg troche dissolved slowly 5 times a day)
  • miconazole mucoadhesive buccal tabs (50mg 1 daily apply to mucosal surface over canine fossa)
  • nystatin swish and swallow (400,000 to 600,000 units four times daily)
106
Q

what is the treatment for esophagitis candida albicans

A
  • fluconazole - 400mg as a loading dose and then 200-400 my daily for 14-21 days given orally
107
Q

what is the pros and cons of using clotrimazole (Mycelex)

A
  • pro: highly effective
  • cons: ease of use (5x a day), expensive, drug interactions, irritating to mucosa, alters taste, contains sugar
108
Q

what are the pros and cons of miconazole (oravig)

A

pros: ease of use (daily troche) , highly effective, tasteless, no sugar
- cons: expensive, drug interactions possible

109
Q

what are the pros and cons of nystatin

A
  • pro: no drug interactions, inexpensive, not irritating to mucosa
  • con: ease of use (QID), ease of use (swish contact time) , less effective, high sugar content
110
Q

what is angular cheilitis and what is it caused by

A
  • acute or chronic inflammation of lateral commisures
  • caused by excessive moisture and maceration from saliva
111
Q

what is the treatment and possibility of angular cheilitis

A
  • tx: topical barriers keep moisture out, prevent reoccurences
  • barrier creams (zinc oxide paste) or petroleum
  • may have candida superinfection: clotrimazole ointment BID 1-3 weeks
112
Q

what is the MOA of Azoles

A
  • inhibit cytochrome P450 14 alpha demethylase
113
Q

what are the first generation azoles

A

imidazoles

114
Q

what are the examples of imidazoles

A
  • miconazole, clotrimazole: not taken systemicaly
  • clotrimazole and miconazole oral formulations less cariogenic, better tolerated vs nystatin
115
Q

what is the dosage and instructions for miconazole

A

50mg (1 tablet) applied to upper gum once daily for 7-14 days
- apply in morning after brushing. alternate sides of mouth with each application; do not crush, chew, or swallow. avoid chewing gum while in place
- if the tablet does not adhere to gum or falls off within 6 hours of application, same tablet should be repositioned immediately
- exposure time is important: goal entirety of waking hours

116
Q

what is the dosage and instructions for clotrimazole

A

-10mg (1 troche) dissolved slowly 5 times daily for 7-14 days
- metabolized in lover - 3A4. contraindicated in liver disease
- avoid combination with benzos; HIV
- oral troche for management of oral candidiasis
- patient ed: 5 times daily, swallow the saliva. no eating or drinking for 30 minutes following medication
- dissolves over 30 minutes and remains in saliva for up to 3 hours

117
Q

what are the second generations of azoles

118
Q

what are examples of triazoles

A
  • fluconazole, itrconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole, isavuconazole
119
Q

describe triazoles

A
  • first line drugs for systemic fungal infections
  • fewer drug drug interactions and expanded spectrum
  • still metabolized via the cytochrome P450 enzyme system
  • all azole agents are both metabolized by and slow down hepatic cytochrome P450 activity
  • safer side effect profiles than ketoconazole for systemic use
120
Q

what are triazoles used for in dentistry

A

esophageal candidiasis or refractory resistant oral candidiasis

121
Q

why is resistance a big problem with triazoles

A

there are 2 mechanisms- efflux pumps and altered binding site on demethylase

122
Q

describe fluconazole (diflucan)

A
  • high absorption after oral administration with high distribution into all tissues
  • long half-life allows for once daily dosing
  • significant excretion via kidney- dose adjustment when adminsitered to renal impairment
  • strong inhibitor of CYP2C19 and a moderate inhibitor of CYP2C9 and CYP3A4: caution with benzos and warfarin
  • pregnancy category C- drug excreted in breastmilk. do not use in pregnancy and breastfeeding
123
Q

when is fluconazole used in dentistry and what is the dosage

A
  • esophageal candidiasis or refractory, resistant oral candidiasis
  • 200mg tablet, or 400mg once then 200mg PO daily x 14 days
124
Q

what other triazoles are used clinically

A
  • voriconazole
  • posaconazole
125
Q

what are drugs that stimulate metabolism of azoles

A
  • 3A4 inducers: rifampin, phenytoin, carbapenzamine, phenobarbital
126
Q

what is the MOA of polyenes

A
  • binds ergosterol in fungal cell membrane
  • forms pores in cell membrane
  • cell contents leak out
  • fungal cell death
127
Q

what do polyenes do

A
  • binds to ergosterol in fungal membranes. fungicidal
128
Q

what is a medication that is a polyene and describe it

A
  • amphotericin B: broad spectrum fungicidal for IV use
  • 1st line IV drug for most systemic yeasts: histoplasmosis, aspergillosis, crypto
  • standard tx: cryptococcal meningitis
  • severe, potentially lethal side effects (dose dependent nephrotoxicity)
129
Q

describe nystatin

A
  • broad spectrum antifungal
  • no GI absorption - entirely excreted in feces
  • pregnancy category B (safe)
  • topical only for mucocutaneous candidiasis
  • length of contact - 2minutes
  • suspension , high sucrose concentration
  • alterantive to clotrimazole/miconazole
130
Q

what is the pt counseling for nystatin

A
  • swish in mouth
  • hold in mouth for as long as possible
  • no eating or drinking for 30 minutes
131
Q

what are the indications for magic mouthwash

A
  • aphthous stomatitis
  • recurrent aphthous ulcers
  • chemo induced oral mucositis
132
Q

is there a standard formula for magic mouthwash

133
Q

what are the most common magic mouthwash ingredients

A
  • diphenhydramine (benadryl) >90%
  • viscous lidocaine 90%
  • magnesium hydroxide/aluminum hydroxide (maalox) 80%
  • nystatin 30%
  • corticosteroids 10%
  • tetracyclines 10%
134
Q

what is diphenhydramine used for in magic mouthwash

A
  • antihistamine/reduce inflammatory process: limit pain sensation, reduce swelling and erythema
  • may be useful for trauma, food allergens or infections
135
Q

what does viscous lidocaine do in magic mouthwash

A
  • topical anesthetic
  • relieves pain associated with irritated oral/pharyngeal mucous membranes
136
Q

ingesting too much viscous lidocaine can lead to:

A

arrhythmias

137
Q

what does magnesium hydroxide do in magic mouthwash

A
  • antacid- maalox and mylanta
  • primarily used as vehicle to enhance coating of other ingredients within the mouth
138
Q

what is nystatin used for in magic mouthwash

A
  • fungicidal polyene for mucocutaneous candidiasis
  • nonabsorbable by oral route
  • not appropriate for RAU or mucositis without fungal etiology
  • use if active oral candidiasis infection in concert with RAU or mucositis
139
Q

what are corticosteroids used for in magic mouthwash

A
  • hydrocortisone, dexamethasone, betamethasone, beclomethasone
  • reduce inflammatory process: limit pain sensation, reduce swelling and erythema
  • limited evidence for use/controversial
140
Q

what helps pain/oral irritation in magic mouthwash

A
  • diphenhydramine -analgesic
  • viscous lidocaine- analgesic
  • magnesium hydroxide - vehicle
  • 1:1:1 ratio
141
Q

what helps oral mucocutaneous candidiasis in magic mouthwash

A
  • diphenhydramine -analgesic
  • nystatin- antifungal
  • magnesium hydroxide - vehicle
  • 1:1:1 ratio
142
Q

what is the administration of magic mouthwash

A
  • 2 tablespoons (30mL) every 4-6 hours
  • swish and spit to avoid systemic side effects
143
Q

what are the side effects of magic mouthwash

A
  • taste disturbances (49%)
  • burning and/or tingling in the oral cavity (29%)
  • drowsiness or any central nervous system adverse effects (11%)
  • GI symptoms- constipation, diarrhea and nausea (11%)
144
Q

describe the evidence for magic mouthwash

A

limited and controversial

145
Q

what are the indications for each ingredient in magic mouthwash

A
  • diphenhydramine for all indications
  • maalox for all indications
  • lidocaine for pain
  • nystatin for candidiasis
  • avoid steroids