Dental Antibiotic Pharmacology Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

why not use augmentin for everything?

A
  • cost
  • 3x more side effects
  • resistance
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2
Q

what is a narrow therapeutic spectrum ang give example

A

act on a single organism or type of organism
- ex: penicillin

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3
Q

what is an extended spectrum drug and give example

A
  • works on gram positives and also some gram negatives
  • amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
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4
Q

what is a broad spectrum antibiotic and give example

A
  • affect a wide variety of organisms
  • cindamycin
  • may cause superinfections of unaffected microbes or fungi
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5
Q

enough antibiotics are prescribed every year for ______ americans to receive an antibiotic prescription

A

5 of every 6 americans

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6
Q

________ of antibiotic courses prescribed in the US outpatient setting are deemed unnecessary

A

more than 30%

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7
Q

total inappropriate antibiotic use (unnecessary antibiotic use plus inappropriate antibiotic selection, dosing, and duration) is near_______ of outpatient antibiotics

A

50%

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8
Q

what is the most prescribed antibiotic by dentists

A

amoxicillin

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9
Q

most beta lactamases ________- the activity of cepahlosporins

A

do not

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10
Q

cephalosporins are active against:

A

gram negatives producing b-lactamase

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11
Q

each successive generations of cephalosporins include more:

A

gram-negative activity

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12
Q

cephalosporins are ____against anaerobes

A

poor

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13
Q

describe the side effects of cephalosporins

A

limited

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14
Q

cephalosporins are ______ in penicillin intolerance history

A

safely tolerated

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15
Q

describe 1st generation cephalosporins

A
  • excellent against gram positive coverage- step spps. and staph aureus
  • some gram negative activity:
  • proteus, e.coli and klebsiella
  • limited oral gram negatives- No P. gingivalis
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16
Q

what are the orals for 1st generation cephalosporins

A
  • cephalexin (Keflex)
  • cefadroxil (Duricef)
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17
Q

describe the 2nd generation cephalosporins

A
  • still excellent gram positive coverage- strep spps
  • some additional gram negatives:
  • morexella, haemophilus, enterobacter, neisseria
  • still overall limited oral gram negatives- YES P. gingivalis
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18
Q

what are the orals for 2nd generation cephalosporins

A

-cefaclor
- cefuroxime
- cefprozil

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19
Q

are there perio indications for 1st and 2nd generation cephalosporins

A

no

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20
Q

how can 1st and 2nd generation cephalosporins be used in dentistry

A

for early odontogenic infections

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21
Q

individuals allergic to amoxicillin may receive cephalexin as long as:

A

the reaction was not anaphylactic like

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22
Q

what are the cell wall active antibiotics

A
  • beta lactams: penicillin and cephalosporins
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23
Q

what are the non cell wall active antibiotics

A
  • macrolides
  • clindamycin
  • doxycyline
  • metronidazole
  • trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
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24
Q

what antibiotics do ribosome, protein synthesis inhibition

A
  • macrolides
  • clindamycin
  • doxycyline
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25
Q

what antibiotics do DNA inhibition

A
  • metronidazole
  • trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole
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26
Q

what is another name for metronidazole and what does it do

A
  • flagyl
  • bactericidal against all obligate anaerobes: bacteroides spps and fusobacterium
  • breaks DNA structure directly through production of free radicals
  • antiprotozoal: amoeba, trichomonas, giardia
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27
Q

what are the adverse reactions to metronidazole

A
  • metallic taste, dry mouth
  • dark urine
  • skin rashes
  • disulfiram reaction (headache, flushing)
  • avoidance of alcohol no longer required
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28
Q

what is the mechanism of action of metronidazole

A

CYP2C9 inhibitor

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29
Q

what are the drug interactions with metronidazole

A
  • warfarin
  • lithium
  • phenytoin
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30
Q

consistent INR elevations observed with warfarin and:

A
  • bactrim
  • metronidazole (flagyl)
  • fluconazole
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31
Q

what are the general medical uses for metronidazole

A
  • deep space abscesses
  • gastrointestinal infections
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32
Q

is resistance a problem with metronidazole and is it given IV or oral

A

not a problem. given IV and oral

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33
Q

what are the dental uses for metronidazole

A
  • combined with beta lactams - 1st line for serious orofacial infections
  • management of refractory or progressive periodontitis
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34
Q

what is the dental prescription for metronidazole

A
  • 500mg po Q8h x 5 days
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35
Q

what are the protein synthesis inhibitors

A
  • clindamycin - static
  • macrolides - static
  • tetracycline- static
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36
Q

how is clindamycin given

A

IV or PO

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37
Q

what is the activity of clindamycin

A
  • strep and staph including MRSA
  • anaerobic gram negatives: actinomyces, bacillis, bacteroides (increases resistance)
  • no aerobic gram negatives
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38
Q

what are the clinical advantages of clindamcyin

A

PVL toxin inhibition

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39
Q

what are the disadvantages of clindamycin

A
  • c. difficile infection
  • clindamycin oral suspension unpleasant taste
  • high doses of oral clindamycin (>450mg Q6h) may cause esophagitis
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40
Q

what are the dental advantages of clindamycin

A
  • high penetration into saliva, gingival tissues, and bone
  • ## minimal renal concerns
41
Q

what is clindamycin prescribed for in dentistry

A

late or severe endo infections and abscesses with severe PCN allergy

42
Q

what is the prescription for clindamycin in dentistry

A

150mg PO TID x 5 days
- may use 300mg but more likely to have GI side effects, reserve for severe infections

43
Q

single dose clindamycin associated with:

A

significant rates of fatal and nonfatal ADRs

44
Q

is clindamycin recommended for antibiotic prophylaxis for a dental procedure

45
Q

what are the tetracylcines

A
  • tetracyclin
  • doxycyline
  • minocycline
46
Q

what is the MOA of tetracyclines

A

bind to 30S subunit of ribosome

47
Q

describe the MOA of tetracyclines

A
  • bacteriostatic
  • broad spectrum activity but mostly for gram positives
  • requires active transport into cells source of resistance
  • chelate/bind divalent cations: binds with Ca2+ and Mg2+, antacids, iron or multivitamins
  • no renal or hepatic adjustment: cleared totally unchanged in fecal excretion
48
Q

will tooth discoloration occur with doxycycline

A

no but recommended to only give for less than 21 days for children of all ages

49
Q

what are the doxycycline considerations

A
  • avoid during pregnancy
  • gi upset: more common with hyclate salt, monohydrate less acidic, better tolerated
  • erosive esophagitis- avoid taking at bedtime, drink full glass of water
  • peak plasma concentration may be reduced ~20% by high fat meal or milk
  • phototoxicity may occur
  • renal/hepatic disease patients can use doxy
50
Q

what are the dental uses of tetracyclines

A

periodontal only

51
Q

tetracyclines are no longer used for odontogenic infections due to:

A

resistance

52
Q

what periodontal uses are tetracyclines used for

A
  • management of localized juvenile periodontitis - aggregatibacter actinomycecomitans - make beta lactamase
  • AA sensitive to tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, bactrim, augmentin
  • low dose systmeic doxy for refractory agg perioodntitis (periostat 100mg PO daily)
  • local appilcation in adjunctive tx for resistant periodontitis: atridox gel , arestin
53
Q

what are the additive effects of tetracyclines

A
  • concentrates in the gingival crevice extremely well, 7-20 times more than any other drug
  • anticollagenase
  • anti inflammatory
  • inhibition of bone resorption
  • promotes reattachment
54
Q

what are the macrolides

A
  • azithromycin
  • clarithromycin
  • erythromycin
55
Q

what is the MOA of macrolides

A

binds to 50S ribosome (Static), prevents transpeptidation
- time dependent killing effect

56
Q

describe clarithromycin

A
  • avoid use
  • liver metabolism: moderate CYP3A inhibitor
  • prodrug: metabolized to active compounds
  • less drug-drug interactions than erythromycin but more than azithromycin
57
Q

what is clarithromycin prescribed for

A
  • h.pylori- chronic dyspepsia, peptic ulcer development, and gastric cancer
58
Q

what are the side effects of clarithromycin

A

metallic taste

59
Q

describe erythromycin, adverse effects, MOA

A
  • not used as antibiotic
  • narrow spectrum: LOTS of resistance
  • adverse effects: prokinetic, GI disturbances, diarrhea, cramping
  • strong inhibitor of CYP3A, many drug interactions
  • highest QTc prolongation risk among antimicrobials
60
Q

what do erythromycin and clarithromycin do to CYP3A4 metabolism

61
Q

erythromycin and clarithromycin can cause accumulation of what other drugs

A
  • benzodiazepines
  • transplant drugs
  • HIV drugs
    0 CCBs
62
Q

azithromycin has a _____ effect on CYP3A4

63
Q

describe azithromycin, MOA, and side effects

A
  • given IV and PO
  • improved infected tissue penetration and half life
  • concentrates in tissues, phagocytes, and fibroblasts giving it a long half life
  • no phase I metabolism
  • eliminated unmetabolized- no drug interactions
  • long half life (60 hours)qday dosing
  • must use loading dose 2x
  • side effects: possible reversible tinnitus with large doses
  • liver reports- jaundice, necrosis, failure
64
Q

what are the dental uses for macrolides

A
  • used in odontogenic and periodontal infections in early, non-abscess infections as 2nd alternative or in severe penicillin allergies
65
Q

describe macrolides activity

A

no activity against bacteroides, common in dental abscesses

66
Q

why is macrolides alternative antibiotic in odontogenic infections

A
  • less effective than beta lactams (2nd choice)
  • overall limit use due to already high resistance rates
  • 50% of viridans group streptococci resistant
67
Q

what are the drug selection factors

A
  • common pathogens- empiric therapy targets
  • site of infection - ability to penetrate infection site
  • patient allergies and drug adverse reactions
  • renal and hepatic function , patients age: clearance and metabolism of antibiotics
  • concomitant medications and past medical histroy
  • pregnancy or breastfeeding
68
Q

what is a teratogen and what are the types

A
  • agent that can potentially cause a birth defect or negatively alter cognitive and behavioral outcomes
  • physical, cognitive, behavioral
69
Q

what are the determinants of teratogenicity

A
  • dose of toxicant
  • half life of toxicant
  • placental permeability
    -stage of development
70
Q

exposure during weeks ______ may cause death of child

71
Q

at 20 weeks during the _____ period, exposure may result in:

A

organogenesis; developmental or functional changes

72
Q

what are good safety in pregnancy and lactation

A
  • cephalosporins, penicillins, clindamycin, azithromycin
73
Q

what should you avoid in pregnancy and breastfeeding and why

A
  • doxycyclines: Ca2+ chelation
  • fluoroquinolones; kidneys/cartilage
  • sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim- various/kernicterus
  • metronidazole in 1st trimester- limited data
74
Q

what are the 3 indications for antibiotics and describe each

A
  • prophylactic therapy: to prevent an infection
  • empiric therapy: to cover most likely pathogens
  • directed therapy: target toward specific pathogen
75
Q

when are antibiotics recommended in dentistry

A
  • NUG- systemic symptoms or immunocompromised
  • aggressive periodontitis
  • fascial space infection
  • endo/perio with systemic symptoms
76
Q

when are antibiotics not recommended in dentistry

A
  • endodontic conditions
  • chronic periodontitis or gingivitis
  • periodontal abscess
  • NUG- no systemic symptoms
77
Q

when should you consider systemic antibiotics in dentistry

A
  • signs/symptoms of systemic spread- pyrexia, malaise, worsening of general condition
  • rapid onset and progress
  • infection in immunocompromised patients
  • swelling involving submental/submandibular or parapharyngeal spaces
  • presence of trismus indicates involvement of per mandibular spaces
78
Q

when are antimicrobial agents indicated

A

if fever and regional lymphadenopathy are present or when infection has perforated the bony cortex and spread into surrounding soft tissue

79
Q

what should be prescribed in early infection (less than 3 days)

A
  • penicillin VK or amoxicillin: if recent mild/mod intolerance- ceftin. if severe allergy - clindamycin
  • no improvement after 48 hours: d/c penicillin and switch to augmentin or amoxicillin + metronidazole
80
Q

what should be prescribed for late infections (abscess or greater than 3 days)

A
  • think anaerobes and gram negative
  • augmentin
  • amoxicillin + metronidazole
  • cephalosporin + metronidazole
  • severe allergy - clindamycin
81
Q

pathogenesis involves following sequence of events:

A
  • formation of a small thrombus on an abnormal endothelial surface: surgical intervention
  • turbulent blood flow produced by congenital or acquired heart disease
  • bacteria access blood circulation (bacteremia)
  • secondary infection of thrombus with bacteria circulating in bloodstream
  • proliferation of bacteria resulting in cardiac vegetation on endothelial surface
82
Q

when is prophylaxis against IE reasonable

A

if it involves manipulation of gingival tissue, manipulation of periapical region of teeth, or perforation of the oral mucosa in patients with the following:
- non native cardiac valves
- cardiac valves repaired with prosthetic material
- previous IE
- cardiac transplant with valvular regurgitation
- pediatric: unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease or repaired congenital heart disease with residual shunts or valvular regurgitation

83
Q

what is the benefit of IE prophylaxis

A

70% reduction in risk

84
Q

when do you avoid antibiotic prophylaxis

A
  • routine anesthetic injections through noninfected tissue
  • dental radiographs
  • placement of removable prosthodontic appliances
  • placement or adjustment of orthodontic appliances
  • placement of ortho brackets
  • shedding of deciduous teeth
  • bleeding from trauma to the lips or oral mucosa
85
Q

what are the normal oral flora of the mouth

A
  • viridans group streptococci
  • strep spps.
  • lactobacillus
  • actinomyces spps.
  • prevotella spps
86
Q

cephalosporins should not be used in:

A

an individual with a history of anaphylaxis, angioedema or urticarial with penicillin or ampicillin

87
Q

what are the choices of prophylactic antibiotic

A
  • clindamycin 600mg
  • cephalexin 2g
  • amoxicillin 2g
  • clarithromycin 500mg
  • azithromycin 500mg
88
Q

what are the resistance considerations with AB prophylaxis

A

azithromycin and penicillin

89
Q

amoxicillin for:

A
  • non-allergic ADR Hx
  • vomiting
  • nausea
  • runny nose
  • cough
  • family hx of allergy
90
Q

cephalexin for:

A
  • low risk ADRs hx
  • diarrhea
  • non hive rash
  • itching
91
Q

azithromycin for:

A
  • high risk ADRs
  • lip/facial swelling
  • breathing difficulty/wheezing
  • skin peeling
  • mouth blisters
  • drop in BP
  • hive rash
92
Q

describe the AB prophylaxis considerations

A
  • AB should be prescribed and administered before procedure
  • single dose only
  • if pt forgets to take AB before procedure instruct to take within 2 hours following procedure
  • if procedure spans multiple days, a separate preventative dose is recommended for each procedure
93
Q

who is at highest risk for IE

A

patients with prosthetic heart valves, previous IE, and some types of congenital heart disease

94
Q

who is at highest risk for bacteremia

A

pts undergoing procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue, manipulation of the PA region of teeth, or perforation of the oral mucosa

95
Q

AB prophylaxis reduces _____ but no high level studies confirm that it reduces_______

A

bacteremia; IE

96
Q

what is the preferred AB prophylaxis

A

amoxicillin 2g x1 dose 30-60 mins prior

97
Q

are prophylactic ABs recommended for prosthetic joints

98
Q

why do we not need to give AB prophylaxis for joint replacement

A
  • there is evidence that dental procedures are not associated with prosthetic joint implant infections
  • there is evidence that antibiotics provided before oral care do not prevent prosthetic joint implant infections
  • there are potential harms of ABs including risk for anaphylaxis, AB resistance, and opportunistic infections like C difficile
  • the benefits of antibiotic prophylaxis may not exceed the harms for most patients
  • the individual patients circumstances and preferences should be considered when deciding whether to prescribe prophylactic antibiotics prior to the dental procedure