delivery Flashcards

1
Q

name some of the main indications for a caesarean

A

previous caesarean
foetal distress
failure to progress
maternal request
breech presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the most optimal presentation for vaginal delivery

A

cephalic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

name some maternal risk factors for malpresentation

A

uterine abnormalities, placenta previa, poly/oligohydramnios, previous abnormal presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name some foetal risk factors for malpresentation

A

prematurity, multiple pregnancy, foetal abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is transverse lie

A

foetus is lying sideways across the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is oblique lie

A

foetus lies diagonally within the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is frank breech

A

bum down, legs near head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is complete breach

A

baby in normal position, but bum down instead of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is PROM

A

amniotic sac ruptures at least one hour before contractions start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is classed as a premature baby

A

before 37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is pPROM

A

pre-term premature rupture of membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

name some risk factors associated with PROM

A

polyhydramnios, cervical insufficiency, infection, trauma, bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does PROM stand for

A

prolonged (pre-labour) rupture of membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is cervical insufficiency

A

cervix starts to dilate in the absence of uterine contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

clinical signs of PROM

A

liquor pooling in the posterior fornix on speculum
oligohydramnios on ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

management of pPROM

A

antibiotic prophylaxis, steroids, admission for minimum 48 hours, close monitoring for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a serious complication of PROM

A

cord prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name some acute causes of foetal hypoxia

A

uterine hyperstimulation, abruption, cord prolapse, uterine rupture, haemorrhage, vasa previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

name 2 chronic causes of foetal hypoxia

A

placental insufficiency, foetal anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do we monitor baby and identify foetal hypoxia

A

CTG
loss of accelerations, repetitive decelerations, rising baseline heartrate and loss of variability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

management of foetal hypoxia

A

change maternal position, stop contractions, IV fluids, scalp stimulation

22
Q

definitive management for foetal distress

A

operative delivery

23
Q

drug commonly given for tocolysis

A

terbutaline - stops contractions

24
Q

how do we define post dates pregnancy

A

extending beyond 42 weeks

25
Q

name the 3 main categories of management of post-dates pregnancy

A

expectant with increased monitoring
c-section
induction

26
Q

what is the role of cervical sweep in inducing labour

A

naturally stimulates the production of prostaglandins

27
Q

what are the 2 main types of cervical priming

A

mechanical with cooks balloon
vaginal prostaglandin

28
Q

what is a risk associated with vaginal prostaglandin to induce labour

A

uterine hyperstimulation

29
Q

what is failure to progress

A

delayed progress or slow labour

30
Q

how do we define failure to progress in the first stage of pregnancy

A

NP: <2cm in 4 hours
MP: <4cm in 4 hours

31
Q

how do we define failure to progress in the second stage of pregnancy

A

NP > 2 hours
MP > 1 hours

32
Q

how does failure to progress definitions change if patient has been given an epidural

A

add an hour as epidurals might slow labour

33
Q

what is obstructed labour

A

labour not progressing despite good contractions - must be a mechanical blockage

34
Q

how can we categorise the 3 main causes of failure to progress

A

3P’s
power: contraction strength and frequency
passage: short mum, pelvic shape, history of pelvic trauma
passenger: big baby, malposition

35
Q

name 2 foetal signs of obstruction during labour

A

moulding and caput

36
Q

what is moulding

A

bones of the foetal skull start to overlap during labour

37
Q

what is caput

A

swelling on top of baby’s head

38
Q

name 3 clinical signs of of obstructed labour (maternal signs)

A

anuria, haematuria
vulval oedema

39
Q

what can be used to assess the progression of labour

40
Q

definitive management of failure to progress

A

operative delivery

41
Q

how can we increase power during failure to progress

A

artificial rupture of membranes, IV oxytocin

42
Q

what is the ferguson’s reflex

A

the more the head pushes down on the cervix during labour, the more oxytoxin released

43
Q

what initiates and sustains contractions

A

the release of oxytocin - promotes the release of prostaglandins

44
Q

what are the 2 changes that happen to the cervix during labour

A

softening
ripening: thins and dilates

45
Q

what is the active first stage of labour

A

4cm onwards to full dilatation

46
Q

what is active management of the 3rd stage of labour

A

oxytocin and controlled cord traction

47
Q

what pelvic shape is most suitable for childbirth

48
Q

what are the 7 cardinal movements of labour

A

engagement
descent
flexion
internal rotation
crowning and extension
restitution and external rotation
expulsion

49
Q

what is used to determine whether it is safe to induce labour - and what is a positive indication

A

bishops score > 4

50
Q

what is a contraindication for giving ergometrine during the third stage of labour

A

hypertension