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VPH > Defintions > Flashcards

Defintions Flashcards

1
Q

<p>Disability Adjusted Life Year (DALY)</p>

A

<p>Metric chosen to measure disease burden, years of life lost to mortality (YLL) plus number of years lived with disability due to morbidity (YLD)

</p>

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2
Q

<p>YLL</p>

A

<p>Calculated by the summation of all fatal cases due to that specific disease, each case multiplied by expected individual life span at age of death</p>

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3
Q

<p>YLD</p>

A

<p>Calculated by accumulation over all health outcomes and is the product of the number of cases, duration of illness, and severity weight of a specific disease</p>

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4
Q

<p>Cattle Identification Regulations</p>

A

<p>Enforced by trading standards where keepers ensure that cattle are registered, correct ID, have valid passport prior to slaughter, movements and/or deaths are registered</p>

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5
Q

Veterinary Managers

A

Perform approval visits and follow up audits, investigate food incidents, provide technical support to veterinary auditors

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6
Q

Veterinary Auditors

A

Carry official audits and follow up visits in cutting plants and abbatoirs, carry out unannounced audits at the same premises (risk-based)

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7
Q

Meat Hygiene Inspectors

A

Perform PMIs, carry animal identification checks at PM, assess animal welfare based on carcass condition, observe FBO representatives to assess their diligence, correct collection of ABP, report issues to OV

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8
Q

Official Veterinarians

A

Carry out AMI, verify hygienic operation in abbatoir, enforce legislation, provide technical support to MHI, liaise with gov. representatives, assess and follow up on data collected at the abattoir, export duties

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9
Q

Harmonization

A

Means bringing national laws into line with one another, very often in order to remove national barriers that obstruct the free movement of workers, goods, services, and capital

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10
Q

Equivalence

A

Capability of different systems or measures to meet the same objective

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11
Q

Vertical Rgulations

A

Legislation which is specific to particular species or commodities

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12
Q

Horizontal Regulations

A

Legislation which cuts across to particular operations or commodities- ie, food hygiene regulations applicable across all species/products/etc.

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13
Q

Proportionality

A

Applying principles of risk assessment when enforcing legislation, focus on most serious risk, and compliance with low risk activities should be encouraged

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14
Q

Consistency

A

Enforcement should be consistent regionally and nationally, not uniform just similar approach

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15
Q

Killing

A

Any intentionally induced process which causes death of an animal

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16
Q

Slaughter

A

Killing of animals intended for human consumption

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17
Q

Stunning

A

Any intentionally induced process which causes loss of consciousness and sensibility without pain including any process resulting in instantaneous death

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18
Q

Simple Stunning

A

Those methods that do not cause instantaneous death

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19
Q

Food Chain

A

Sequence of stages and operations involved in the production, processing, distribution, storage, and handling of food and its ingredients from primary production to consumption- includes feedstuff and materials intended to come in contact with food or raw material

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20
Q

Food Security

A

Concept that food is produced in a sustainable way, accessible to all, available at all times, wholesome (balanced, nutritious and safe)

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21
Q

Food Safety

A

Concept that food will not cause harm to the consumer when prepared and/or eaten according to its intended use

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22
Q

Risk

A

A function of the probability of an adverse health effect and the severity of that effect consequential to a hazard present in our food

Risk (X) = Impact (Z) + Likelihood (Y)

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23
Q

Hazard Identification

A

Process of identifying hazards in order to plan for, avoid or mitigated their impacts (aetiology, epidemiology, pathogenicity) “Know Your Enemy”

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24
Q

Hazard Characterisations

A

Qualitative and/or quantitative evaluation of the nature of the adverse effects associated with the biological, chemical and physical agents which may be present in food (dose- response assessment, minimum infectious doses)

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25
Q

Exposure Assessment (EA)

A

Qualitative and/or quantitative evaluation of the likely intake of biological, chemical and physical agents via food as well as exposures from other sources if relevant

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26
Q

Risk Characterisation

A

Qualitative and/or quantitative estimation including attendant uncertainties of the probability of occurrence and severity of known or potential adverse health effects based on HI, HC, and EA

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27
Q

Risk Attiburtion

A

Source, reservoir, exposure (environment or consumer’s behavior)

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28
Q

Official Controls

A

Systematic and independent examination to determine whether activities and related results comply with planned arrangements and whether these arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to achieve objectives

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29
Q

Quality Assurance

A

Systematic, independent, and documented process for obtaining audit evidence and evaluating it objectively to determine the extent to which audit criteria are fulfilled

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30
Q

Internal First Party Audit

A

Audit an organization carries out on itself and plays vital part in ensuring that Food Safety Management System is effective

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31
Q

External Second Party Audit

A

Audit carried out by one organization on another, ie, by a customer on supplier either directly or through hired auditor

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32
Q

External Third Party Audit

A

Audit carried out by independent organization for example by FSA, UKAS, with scope to grant approval, certification, or to verify a system, provide objective evidence of conformance and degree of effectiveness by independent party

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33
Q

Certification

A

Provision by an independent body of written assurance that the product, service or system in question meets specific requirements (ie, Red Tractor, Red Lion, etc.)

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34
Q

Accreditation

A

Formal recognition by an independent body that a certification body operates according to international standards, accreditation usually required for inspection and certification bodies, etc.

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35
Q

Anthropozoonoses

A

Infections transmitted to humans from animal reservoirs (e.g. visceral larvae migrans)

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36
Q

Zooanthroponoses

A

Diseases are normally present in humans but could be transmitted to animals (e.g. amoebosis)

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37
Q

Amphixenosis

A

Disease in which both man and animals could act as reservoir hosts (e.g. staph)

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38
Q

Anthrozoonoses

A

Perpetuated by single vertebrate host

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39
Q

Cyclo-zoonoses

A

Require more than one vertebrate species but no intervertebrate host

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40
Q

Meta-zoonoses

A

Require both vertebrate and intervertebrate host to complete transmission- develops/multiples in intervertebrate vector (e.g. West Nile)

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41
Q

Sapro-zoonoses

A

Perpetuated by a single vertebrate host and non-animal developmental site (larva migrans through soil)

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42
Q

Primary Prevention

A

Activities directed towards avoiding exposure to causal factors (e.g. hand washing, stress reduction)

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43
Q

Secondary Prevention

A

Activities designated to detect disease as early as possible before onset of clinical signs (e.g. TB screening)

44
Q

Meat

A

Edible parts of domestic bovine, porcine, ovine, or caprine animals, domestic solipeds, poultry, rabbits, farmed game and wild game

45
Q

Carcass

A

Body of an animal after slaughter and dressing

46
Q

Offal

A

Fresh meat other than that of the carcass- including viscera and blood

47
Q

Viscera

A

Organs of the thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavities as well as trachea and oesophagus (includes crop in birds)

48
Q

Microbial Resistance

A

When bacterium can tolerate higher concentrations of an antimicrobial than phenotypically related bacteria of the “wild type” strain

49
Q

Clinical Resistance

A

Those infections having a low probability of clinically responding to treatment even in maximum doses of a given antimicrobial are administered

50
Q

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration

A

o Obtained Minimum Inhibitory Concentration of drug associated with high likelihood of therapeutic failure of treatment with that drug

51
Q

Intrinsic Resistance

A

A trait of bacterial species (e.g. B-Lactamase producing staphylococcus)

52
Q

Acquired Resistance

A

Resistance acquired through either mutation (vertical transfer) or by uptake of exogenous genes (horizontal transfer)

53
Q

Cross Resistance

A

Mechanism of resistance which gives resistance to all members of an antimicrobial class due to similar mode of action, in unrelated classes due to overlapping target (e.g. macrolides and lincosamides), or where mechanism of resistance has low specificity (e.g. affecting efflux pumps)

54
Q

Co-Resistance

A

Genes conferring resistance which are linked to other unrelated resistance genes to another antimicrobial class but which may be transferred together

55
Q

Conjucation

A

Transfer where mobile genetic element can be transferred from one bacterium to another

56
Q

Transduction

A

Bacteriophage takes up resistance gene from on bacterium and transfers it to another

57
Q

Transformation

A

Where naked DNA released from one bacterium is taken up by another bacterium

58
Q

Direct hazard

A

Presence on food of antimicrobial resistant pathogenic bacterium which can colonize and infect a human after ingestion

59
Q

Indirect Hazard

A

Antimicrobial resistant bacterium (non-pathogenic) on food transfers resistance genes to human pathogenic bacterium directly or via another commensal bacterium

60
Q

ESBL

A

Extended Spectrum B-Lactamases; plasmid encoded enzymes found in Enterobacteriaceae that confer resistance to variety of B-Lactam antibiotics including penicillins, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th generation cephalosporins, and monobactams (not usually carbopenams or cephamycins)

61
Q

Large Wild Game

A

All wild land mammals living freely in wild that do not fall within definition of small wild game (e.g. deer, feral wild boar, feral wild goats)

62
Q

Small Wild Game

A

Wild game birds and lagomorphs living in the wild or conditions of freedom similar to wild.

63
Q

Feathered

A

pheasants, partridges, ducks, or pigeons

64
Q

Small Furred

A

rabbits, hares

65
Q

Trained hunter

A

Person with sufficient knowledge and training to undertake initial on the spot examination of game meat. Could be: a hunter, gamekeeper, game manager (if located in vicinity of hunt)

66
Q

Approved Game Handling Establishment

A

Any FSA approved establishment in which game and game meat are received after hunting and prepared for placing on the market for human consumption- can only accept game examined by trained hunter

67
Q

Deer Stalking

A

Hunters have to observe game and not any abnormal behavior prior to shooting, including level of alertness, carriage of head, limbs, general condition, quality of movement

68
Q

Gralloching

A

Disemboweling shot deer, may be partial (to lessen weight but limit exposed flesh) or full (best then covered and dragged in drag bag)

69
Q

Animal By-Products

A

Entries bodies or parts of animals or products of animal origin NOT intended for human consumption

70
Q

Edible Co-Products

A

Parts of animal unsuitable for human consumption when produced at slaughterhouse, but which can later be processed (cleaned, cooked, etc) for use in human food (e.g. pig stomach)

71
Q

Specified Risk Material

A

Parts of the animals which MUST be removed, disposed of as ABP Category 1, not for human consumption

72
Q

Rendering

A

In case of edible co-products- removal extraction of fat from meat by melting

73
Q

Greaves

A

Protein residue of the rendering process, after separation of fat and water

74
Q

Runners

A

Intestines which have been separated from stomachs and mesentery and had their contents removed

75
Q

Casings

A

Runners which have been processed to remove all layers of intestines apart from sub-mucosa (primarily used in production of sausages)

76
Q

Chitterings

A

Large intestine and often stomach of pig that are cooked and used as food

77
Q

Biochemical Oxygen Demand

A

Used to show the polluting strength of livestock manures and organic wastes- measure of amount of oxygen needed by micro-organisms to break down organic material

78
Q

Hazardous Waste

A

Water that may be harmful to human health or the environment (e.g. veterinary medicines, fluorescent light tubes, oily sludges, lead-acid batteries, etc.)

79
Q

Traceability

A

Ability to trace and track food and food producing animals through all stages of production, processing and distribution

80
Q

Mince

A

Boned meat minced into fragments and containing <1% salt, no preservation or quality changing additives (must be stored at maximum of 2C due to increased risk)

81
Q

Meat Preparations

A

Meat (including fragmented meat) with foodstuffs, seasonings or additives but insufficiently processed to modify internal muscle fibres (can still recognize characteristics of fresh meat)(e.g. raw sausages, ground meats, patties, etc.)
o Must be stored at maximum temperature of 4C

82
Q

Mechanically Separated Meat

A

Product obtained by removing meat from flesh-bearing bones after boning or from poultry carcasses using mechanical means resulting in loss/modification of muscle fibre structure (calcium not to exceed 0.1%, stored at maximum of 2C)

83
Q

High Pressure Separation

A

Carcass or meat parts are pressed through machine-like sieve

84
Q

Low Pressure Separation

A

Meat is mechanically scraped from the carcass

85
Q

Short Term Toxicity

A

Causes acute illness, usually non-infectious and self-contained/self-limiting, more likely to see an “outbreak”, more traceable/immediate

86
Q

Long Term Toxicity

A

Years of low level exposure causing clinical cases- hard to trace and stop before human and animal health are affected.

87
Q

No Observed Effect Level

A

(NOEL) dose at which no negative effect is seen in mice

88
Q

Acceptable Daily Intake

A

(ADI) estimated of the amount of a food additive, expressed in milligrams on body weight basis, that can be ingested daily over life time without appreciable health risk

89
Q

Tolerable Daily Intake

A

(TDI) ADI version used to food contaminants

90
Q

Maximum Residue Limits

A

(MRL) maximum concentration of residue which may be accepted to be legally permitted or recognized as acceptable in or on food based on type and amount of residue considered to be without toxicological hazard to human health as expressed by ADI with additional safety factor, takes into account other public health risks

91
Q

Withdrawal Periods

A

Time which passes between administration of last dose of a medicine and the time the level of residues in tissues or products falls below the MRL

92
Q

Analyte

A

A substance in a test sample the presence of which has to be detected and/or quantified (what you test for to find out if a certain contaminant is present- may be a metabolite and not actual drug/contaminant/etc.)

93
Q

Detection Limit

A

The smallest analyte concentration for which a method has been validated with specified accuracy and precision (problematic if your MRL is below your detection limit)

94
Q

National Surveillance Scheme

A

(NSS) aims to detect whether unauthorized veterinary medicinal products are being used in food producing animals and that conditions attached are being observed through random sampling and testing of suspect animals

95
Q

Food Spoilage

A

Process in which food deteriorates to point at which it is inedible to humans, and which can be delayed but not fully stopped/controlled (Differs from food safety as not just concerned with pathogenic organisms)

96
Q

External Contamination

A

Contaminated on outside of food due to poor hygiene, usually with aerobic environmental bacteria causing slime layers, off odours, green persistant coloring

97
Q

Internal Contamination

A

Indicator of pathology as internal tissue usually sterile in healthy animal, with gas, dark cuts, bone taint, sours or putrefaction discovered only upon cutting into meat

98
Q

Meat Products

A

Products resulting from the processing of meat so that the cut surface shows that the product no longer has the characteristics of fresh meat

99
Q

Conduction

A

Transfer of heat from the heat source directly to the utensil (e.g. cooking in a pan)

100
Q

Convection

A

Transfer of heat requiring the movement of air or liquids (e.g. boiling or steaming)

101
Q

Radiation

A

Transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves through moisture content of food to cook (e.g. microwaving)

102
Q

Time-Temperature Combination

A

Varies for each food, requirement to reach the core of that food and inactivate the most heat resistant pathogens and spoilage bacteria dependent on heat penetration characteristics (e.g. size, geometry, fatty cover, moisture content)

103
Q

Pasteurisation

A

Low order heat treatment with no cooking effect of food stuff designed to destroy most of the pathogenic organisms

104
Q

Sterilisation

A

Complete destruction of all microorganisms (at least 121C of wet heat for 15 min to destroy bacterial spores)

105
Q

Commercial Sterilisation

A

May contain small number of heat resistant bacterial spores which will not normally multiply in food supply (applies to most canned or bottled products, shelf life of >2 years)

106
Q

Mallard Reaction

A

Chemical reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars that gives browned food its desirable flavor associated with loss of high value amino acids

VPH (21 decks)

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