deck_4805980 Flashcards

1
Q

What is edema?

A

accumulation of fluid resulting from a net outward movement of water into extravascular spaces.

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2
Q

What is Hemostasis?

A

the process of blood clotting that prevents excessive bleeding after blood vessel damageInadequate hemostasis may result in hemorrhage, which can compromise regional tissue perfusion and, if massive and rapid, may lead to hypotension, shock, and death

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3
Q

What is the difference between thrombosis and embolism?

A

inappropriate clotting (thrombosis) or migration of clots (embolism) can obstruct blood vessels, potentially causing ischemic cell death (infarction).Indeed, thromboembolism lies at the heart of three major causes of morbidity and death in developed countries: myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, and cerebrovascular accident (stroke).

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4
Q

What do hyperemia and congestion mean?

A

both refer to an increase in blood volume within a tissue but they have different underlying mechanisms.

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5
Q

What is hyperemia caused by?

A

Hyperemia is an ACTIVE process resulting from arteriolar dilation and increased blood inflow, as occurs at sites of inflammation or in exercising skeletal muscle.Hyperemic tissues are redder than normal because of engorgement with oxygenated blood

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6
Q

What is congestion caused by?

A

Congestion is a PASSIVE process resulting from impaired outflow of venous blood from a tissue. It can occur systemically, as in cardiac failure, or locally as a consequence of an isolated venous obstruction.

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7
Q

What color are tissues experiencing congestion? Why?

A

Congested tissues have an abnormal blue-red color (cyanosis) that stems from the accumulation of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the affected area. In long-standing chronic congestion, inadequate tissue perfusion and persistent hypoxia may lead to parenchymal cell death and secondary tissue fibrosis, and the elevated intravascular pressures may cause edema or sometimes rupture capillaries, producing focal hemorrhages.

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8
Q

On microscopic examination, acute pulmonary congestion is marked by blood-engorged alveolar capillaries and variable degrees of alveolar septal edema and intra-alveolar hemorrhage. In chronic pulmonary congestion, the septa become thickened and fibrotic, and the alveolar spaces contain numerous macrophages laden with hemosiderin (“heart failure cells”) derived from phago- cytosed red cells.

A

On microscopic examination, acute pulmonary congestion is marked by blood-engorged alveolar capillaries and variable degrees of alveolar septal edema and intra-alveolar hemorrhage. In chronic pulmonary congestion, the septa become thickened and fibrotic, and the alveolar spaces contain numerous macrophages laden with hemosiderin (“heart failure cells”) derived from phago- cytosed red cells.

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9
Q

In acute hepatic congestion, the central vein and sinusoids are distended with blood, and there may even be central hepatocyte dropout due to necrosis. The periportal hepatocytes, better oxygenated because of their proximity to hepatic arterioles, experience less severe hypoxia and may develop only reversible fatty change. In chronic passive congestion of the liver, the central regions of the hepatic lobules, viewed on gross examination, are red-brown and slightly depressed (owing to cell loss) and are accentuated against the surrounding zones of uncon- gested tan, sometimes fatty, liver (nutmeg liver) Microscopic findings include centrilobular hepatocyte necrosis, hemorrhage, and hemosiderin-laden macrophages. In long-standing, severe hepatic congestion (most commonly associated with heart failure), hepatic fibro- sis (“cardiac cirrhosis”) can develop. Because the central portion of the hepatic lobule is the last to receive blood, centrilobular necrosis also can occur in any setting of reduced hepatic blood flow (including shock from any cause); there need not be previous hepatic congestion.

A

In acute hepatic congestion, the central vein and sinusoids are distended with blood, and there may even be central hepatocyte dropout due to necrosis. The periportal hepatocytes, better oxygenated because of their proximity to hepatic arterioles, experience less severe hypoxia and may develop only reversible fatty change. In chronic passive congestion of the liver, the central regions of the hepatic lobules, viewed on gross examination, are red-brown and slightly depressed (owing to cell loss) and are accentuated against the surrounding zones of uncon- gested tan, sometimes fatty, liver (nutmeg liver) Microscopic findings include centrilobular hepatocyte necrosis, hemorrhage, and hemosiderin-laden macrophages. In long-standing, severe hepatic congestion (most commonly associated with heart failure), hepatic fibro- sis (“cardiac cirrhosis”) can develop. Because the central portion of the hepatic lobule is the last to receive blood, centrilobular necrosis also can occur in any setting of reduced hepatic blood flow (including shock from any cause); there need not be previous hepatic congestion.

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10
Q

Where is the bulk of the body’s water held?

A

Approximately 60% of lean body weight is water, two thirds of which is intracellular. Most of the remaining water is found in extracellular compartments in the form of interstitial fluid; only 5% of the body’s water is in blood plasma.

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11
Q

Edema is an accumulation of interstitial fluid within tissues. Extravascular fluid can also collect in body cavities such as the pleural cavity (hydrotho- rax), the pericardial cavity (hydropericardium), or the perito- neal cavity (hydroperitoneum, or ascites).

A

Edema is an accumulation of interstitial fluid within tissues. Extravascular fluid can also collect in body cavities such as the pleural cavity (hydrothorax), the pericardial cavity (hydropericardium), or the peritoneal cavity (hydroperitoneum, or ascites).

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12
Q

What is Anasarca?

A

severe, generalized edema marked by profound swelling of subcutaneous tissues and accumulation of fluid in body cavities.

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13
Q

Fluid movement between the vascular and interstitial spaces is governed mainly by what two opposing forces?

A

the vascular hydrostatic pressure and the colloid osmotic pressure produced by plasma proteins.Normally, the outflow of fluid produced by hydrostatic pressure at the arteriolar end of the microcirculation is neatly balanced by inflow due to the slightly elevated osmotic pressure at the venular end; hence there is only a small net outflow of fluid into the interstitial space, which is drained by lymphatic vessels.

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14
Q

Generalized (as opposed to local) increases in venous pressure, with resultant systemic edema, occur most commonly in _____.

A

congestive heart failurecaused by increased arterial hydrostatic pressure. not colloid loss.

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15
Q

Several factors increase venous hydrostatic pressure in patients with congestive heart failure. Name some.

A

1) Increased hydrostatic pressureThe reduced cardiac output leads to hypoperfusion of the kidneys, triggering the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis and inducing sodium and water retention (secondary hyperaldosteronism). In patients with normal heart function, this adaptation increases cardiac filling and cardiac output, thereby improving renal perfusion. However, the failing heart often cannot increase its cardiac output in response to the compensatory increases in blood volume. Instead, a vicious circle of fluid retention, increased venous hydrostatic pressures, and worsening edema ensues. Unless cardiac output is restored or renal water retention is reduced (e.g., by salt restriction or treatment with diuretics or aldosterone antagonists) this downward spiral contin- ues. Because secondary hyperaldosteronism is a common feature of generalized edema, salt restriction, diuretics, and aldosterone antagonists also are of value in the manage- ment of generalized edema resulting from other causes.

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16
Q

Under normal circumstances ____ accounts for almost half of the total plasma protein

A

2) Reduced protein pressure (from last slide)albuminTherefore conditions in which albumin is either lost from the circulation or synthesized in inadequate amounts are common causes of reduced plasma osmotic pressure.

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17
Q

How does nephrotic syndrome affect plasma osmotic pressure?

A

damaged glomerular capillaries become leaky, leading to the loss of albumin (and other plasma proteins) in the urine and the development of generalized edema.

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18
Q

Reduced albumin synthesis occurs in the setting of severe liver disease (e.g., cirrhosis) and protein malnutrition. Regardless of cause, low albumin levels lead in a stepwise fashion to edema, reduced intravascular volume, renal hypoperfusion, and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Unfortunately, increased salt and water retention by the kidney not only fails to correct the plasma volume deficit but also exacerbates the edema, since the primary defect—low serum protein-persists.

A

Reduced albumin synthesis occurs in the setting of severe liver disease (e.g., cirrhosis) and protein malnutrition. Regardless of cause, low albumin levels lead in a stepwise fashion to edema, reduced intravascular volume, renal hypoperfusion, and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Unfortunately, increased salt and water retention by the kidney not only fails to correct the plasma volume deficit but also exacerbates the edema, since the primary defect—low serum protein-persists.

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19
Q

Impaired lymphatic drainage and consequent lymphedema usually result from what?

A

a localized obstruction caused by an inflammatory or neoplastic conditionFor example, the parasitic infection filariasis can cause massive edema of the lower extremity and external genitalia (so-called elephantiasis) by engendering inguinal lymphatic and lymph node fibrosis.Peau d’orange

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20
Q

How can salt retention cause edema?

A

Excessive retention of salt (and its obligate associated water) can lead to edema by increasing hydrostatic pres- sure (due to expansion of the intravascular volume) and reducing plasma osmotic pressure. Excessive salt and water retention are seen in a wide variety of diseases that compromise renal function, including poststreptococcal glo- merulonephritis and acute renal failure

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21
Q

Subcutaneous edema can be diffuse but usually accumulates preferentially in parts of the body positioned the greatest distance below the heart where hydrostatic pressures are highest. Thus, edema typically is most pronounced in the legs with standing and the sacrum with recumbency, a relationship termed dependent edema.

A

Subcutaneous edema can be diffuse but usually accumulates preferentially in parts of the body positioned the greatest distance below the heart where hydrostatic pressures are highest. Thus, edema typically is most pronounced in the legs with standing and the sacrum with recumbency, a relationship termed dependent edema.

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22
Q

How would you diagnose subcutaneous edema?

A

Finger pressure over edematous subcutaneous tissue displaces the interstitial fluid, leaving a finger-shaped depression; this appearance is called pitting edema.

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23
Q

Edema due to renal dysfunction or nephrotic syndrome often manifests first where?

A

loose connective tissues (e.g., the eyelids, causing periorbital edema).

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24
Q

Subcutaneous edema is important to recognize primarily because it signals what?

A

potential underlying cardiac or renal diseasehowever, when significant, it also can impair wound healing or the clearance of infections

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25
Q

Pulmonary edema is a common clinical problem that most frequently is seen in the setting of _______.

A

FROTHY MATERIALleft ventricular failure but also may occur in renal failure, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and inflammatory and infectious disorders of the lungIt can cause death by interfering with normal ventilatory function; besides impeding oxygen diffusion, alveolar edema fluid also creates a favorable environment for infectionsNOTE: Brain edema is life-threatening; if the swelling is severe, the brain can herniate (extrude) through the foramen magnum. With increased intracranial pressure, the brain stem vascular supply can be com- pressed.

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26
Q

What is a hemorrhage?

A

the extravasation of blood from vessels

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27
Q

What is a hematoma?

A

accumulation of a hemorrhage in a tissue

28
Q

What are Petechiae?

A

minute (1 to 2 mm in diameter) hemorrhages into skin, mucous membranes, or serosal sur- faces

29
Q

What are some causes of Petechiae?

A

causes include low platelet counts (thrombocytopenia), defective platelet function, and loss of vascular wall support, as in vitamin C deficiency

30
Q

What are Purpura?

A

slightly larger (3 to 5 mm) hemorrhages. Purpura can result from the same disorders that cause petechiae, as well as trauma, vascular inflammation (vasculitis), and increased vascular fragility

31
Q

What are Ecchymoses?

A

larger (1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous hematomas (colloquially called bruises). Extravasated red cells are phagocytosed and degraded by macrophages; the characteristic color changes of a bruise are due to the enzymatic conversion of hemoglobin (red-blue color) to bilirubin (blue-green color) and eventually hemosiderin (golden-brown).NOTE: chronic or recurrent external blood loss (e.g., due to peptic ulcer or menstrual bleeding) frequently culminates in iron deficiency anemia as a consequence of loss of iron in hemoglobin. By contrast, iron is efficiently recycled from phagocytosed red cells, so inter- nal bleeding (e.g., a hematoma) does not lead to iron deficiency.

32
Q

What are the main steps in the process of hemostasis and its regulation?

A

• Vascular injury causes transient arteriolar vasoconstriction through reflex neurogenic mechanisms, augmented by local secretion of endothelin (a potent endothelium- derived vasoconstrictor). This effect is fleeting, however, and bleeding would quickly resume if not for the activation of platelets and coagulation factors.• Endothelial injury exposes highly thrombogenic suben- dothelial extracellular matrix (ECM), facilitating platelet adherence, activation, and aggregation. The formation of the initial platelet plug is called primary hemostasis.• Endothelial injury also exposes tissue factor (also known as factor III or thromboplastin), a membrane-bound pro- coagulant glycoprotein synthesized by endothelial cells. Exposed tissue factor, acting in conjunction with factor VII, is the major in vivo trigger of the coagulation cascade and its activation eventually culminates in the activation of thrombin, which has several roles in regulating coagulation.• Activated thrombin promotes the formation of an insolu- ble fibrin clot by cleaving fibrinogen; thrombin also is a potent activator of additional platelets, which serve to reinforce the hemostatic plug. This sequence, termed secondary hemostasis, results in the formation of a stable clot capable of preventing further hemorrhage.• As bleeding is controlled, counterregulatory mechanisms (e.g., factors that produce fibrinolysis, such as tissue-type plasminogen activator) are set into motion to ensure that clot formation is limited to the site of injury

33
Q

Normal endothelial cells express a variety of anticoagulant factors that inhibit platelet aggregation and coagulation and promote fibrinolysis; after injury or activation, however, this balance shifts, and endothelial cells acquire numerous procoagulant activities

A

Normal endothelial cells express a variety of anticoagulant factors that inhibit platelet aggregation and coagulation and promote fibrinolysis; after injury or activation, however, this balance shifts, and endothelial cells acquire numerous procoagulant activities

34
Q

T or F. Nonactivated platelets do not adhere to normal endothelium

A

T.

35
Q

T or F. Activated platelets do not adhere to normal endothelium.

A

T. even with activated platelets, prostacyclin (i.e., PGI2) and nitric oxide produced by endothelium impede their adhesion. Both mediators also are potent vasodilators and inhibitors of platelet aggregation; their synthesis by endothelial cells is stimulated by a number of factors (e.g., thrombin, cytokines) produced during coagulation. Endothelial cells also produce adenosine diphosphatase, which degrades ADP and further inhibits platelet aggregation

36
Q

What do heparin-like molecules do (expressed on healthy endothelial cells)?

A

act indirectly: They are cofactors expressed on healthy endothelial surfaces that greatly enhance the inactivation of thrombin (and other coagulation factors) by the plasma protein antithrombin III (which binds to it)without antithrombin IIII, heparin won’t do anything for you

37
Q

How does thrombomodulin work (expressed on healthy endothelial cells)?

A

Thrombomodulin also acts indirectly: It binds to thrombin, thereby modifying the substrate specificity of thrombin, so that instead of cleaving fibrinogen, it instead cleaves and activates protein C, an anticoagulant

38
Q

How does activated Protein C prevent clotting?

A

Activated protein C inhibits clotting by cleaving and inactivating two procoagulants, factor Va and factor VIIIa

39
Q

What cofactor does Protein C need to work?

A

protein S, which is also synthesized by endothelial cells

40
Q

What does tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) do (expressed on healthy endothelial cells)?

A

directly inhibits tissue factor–factor VIIa complex and factor Xa.

41
Q

Healthy endothelial cells also synthesize tissue-type plas- minogen activator. What does it do?

A

it is a protease that cleaves plasminogen to plasmin; plasmin, in turn, cleaves fibrin to degrade thrombi

42
Q

When are platelets activated?

A

upon binding to exposed ECM via vMF

43
Q

When do endothelial cells begin to produce tissue factor?

A

In response to cytokines (e.g., tumor necrosis factor [TNF] or interleukin-1 [IL-1]) or certain bacterial products including endotoxin

44
Q

What does tissue factor do?

A

It is the major in vivo activator of coagulation, and downregulate the expression of thrombomodulin upon tissue injury or inflammationActivated endothelial cells also secrete plasminogen activator inhibitors (PAIs), which limit fibrinolysis and thereby favor thrombosis

45
Q

Platelets are anucleate cell fragments shed into the blood- stream by marrow megakaryocytes. They play a critical role in normal hemostasis by forming a hemostatic plug that seals vascular defects, and by providing a surface that recruits and concentrates activated coagulation factors. Platelet function depends on several integrin family glyco- protein receptors, a contractile cytoskeleton, and two types of cytoplasmic granules:

A

α granules and dense granules

46
Q

What do alpha granules express?

A

express the adhesion molecule P-selectin on their membranes and contain fibrinogen, fibronectin, factors V and VIII, platelet factor-4 (a heparin-binding chemokine), platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), and transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β)

47
Q

What do dense granules contain?

A

adenine nucleotides (ADP and ATP), ionized calcium and Mg2+, histamine, serotonin, and epinephrine, polyphosphates

48
Q

After vascular injury, platelets encounter ECM constituents (collagen is most important) and adhesive glycoproteins such as vWF. This sets in motion a series of events that lead to:

A

(1) platelet adhesion, (2) platelet activation, and (3) platelet aggregation

49
Q

Platelet adhesion initiates clot formation and depends on what two things?

A

vWF and platelet glycoprotein Gp1bUnder shear stress (e.g., in flowing blood), vWF undergoes a conformational change, assuming an extended shape that allows it to bind simultaneously to collagen in the ECM and to platelet Gp1b

50
Q

What happens during platelet activation?

A

Platelet adhesion leads to an irreversible shape change and secretion (release reaction) of both granule types—a process termed platelet activationDuring activation, platelets undergo a dramatic change in shape from smooth discs to spheres with numerous long, spiky membrane extensions, as well as more subtle changes in the make-up of their plasma membranes. The shape changes enhance subsequent aggregation and increase the surface area available for interaction with coagulation factors. The subtle membrane changes include an increase in the surface expression of negatively charged phospholipids, which provide binding sites for both calcium and coagulation factors, and a conformation change in platelet GpIIb/IIIa that permits it to bind fibrinogen.

51
Q

Platelet aggregation follows platelet adhesion and activation. What is it caused by?

A

Aggregation is promoted by bridging interactions between fibrinogen and GpIIb/IIIa receptors on adjacent platelets (The importance of this interaction is emphasized by a rare inherited deficiency of GpIIb/IIIa (Glanzmann thrombas- thenia), which is associated with bleeding and an inability of platelets to aggregate.)

52
Q

Concurrent activation of the coagulation cascade generates thrombin, which stabilizes the platelet plug through two mechanisms:

A

• Thrombin activates a platelet surface receptor (protease- activated receptor [PAR]), which in concert with ADP and TxA2 further enhances platelet aggregation. Platelet contraction follows, creating an irreversibly fused mass of platelets that constitutes the definitive secondary hemostatic plug.*• Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin within the vicinity of the plug, cementing the platelet plug in place.

53
Q

The interplay of platelets and endothelium has a profound impact on clot formation. For example, prostaglandin PGI2 (synthesized by normal endothelium) is a vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation, whereas TxA2 (synthesized by activated platelets) is a potent vasoconstrictor. The balance between the opposing effects of PGI2 and TxA2 varies: In normal vessels, PGI2 effects domi- nate and platelet aggregation is prevented, whereas endo- thelial injury decreases PGI2 production and promotes platelet aggregation and TxA2 production. The clinical utility of aspirin (an irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibitor) in lowering the risk of coronary thrombosis resides in its ability to permanently block TxA2 production by platelets, which have no capacity for protein synthesis. Although endothelial PGI2 production is also inhibited by aspirin, endothelial cells can resynthesize cyclooxygenase, thereby overcoming the blockade. In a manner similar to that for PGI2, endothelium-derived nitric oxide also acts as a vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation

A

The interplay of platelets and endothelium has a profound impact on clot formation. For example, prostaglandin PGI2 (synthesized by normal endothelium) is a vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation, whereas TxA2 (synthesized by activated platelets) is a potent vasoconstrictor. The balance between the opposing effects of PGI2 and TxA2 varies: In normal vessels, PGI2 effects domi- nate and platelet aggregation is prevented, whereas endo- thelial injury decreases PGI2 production and promotes platelet aggregation and TxA2 production. The clinical utility of aspirin (an irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibitor) in lowering the risk of coronary thrombosis resides in its ability to permanently block TxA2 production by platelets, which have no capacity for protein synthesis. Although endothelial PGI2 production is also inhibited by aspirin, endothelial cells can resynthesize cyclooxygenase, thereby overcoming the blockade. In a manner similar to that for PGI2, endothelium-derived nitric oxide also acts as a vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation

54
Q

What element is critical for the coagulation pathway?

A

Ca2+, explaining why blood clotting is prevented by calcium chelators

55
Q

The ability of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X to bind to calcium requires what?

A

additional γ-carboxyl groups be enzymatically appended to certain glutamic acid residues on these proteinsThis reaction requires vitamin K as a cofactor and is antagonized by drugs such as coumadin, which is widely used as an anticoagulant.

56
Q

The extrinsic pathway was so designated because it required what?

A

The addition of an exogenous trigger (originally provided by tissue extracts); the intrinsic pathway only required exposing factor XII (Hageman factor) to a negatively charged surface (even glass suffices).

57
Q

The extrinsic pathway is the most physiologically relevant pathway for coagulation occurring after vascular damage; it is activated by tissue factor, a membrane-bound glycoprotein expressed at sites of injury.

A

The extrinsic pathway is the most physiologically relevant pathway for coagulation occurring after vascular damage; it is activated by tissue factor, a membrane-bound glycoprotein expressed at sites of injury.

58
Q

What is Prothrombin time (PT)?

A

creens for the activity of the proteins in the extrinsic pathway (factors VII, X, II, V, and fibrinogen)The PT is performed by adding phospholipids and tissue factor to a patient’s citrated plasma (sodium citrate chelates calcium and prevents spontane- ous clotting), followed by calcium, and the time to fibrin clot formation (usually 11 to 13 seconds) is recorded.ecause factor VII is the vitamin K–dependent coagulation factor with the shortest half-life (roughly 7 hours), the PT is used to guide treatment of patients with vitamin K antagonists (e.g., coumadin).

59
Q

What is Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)?

A

screens for the activity of the proteins in the intrinsic pathway (factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, and fibrinogen). The PTT is performed by adding a negatively charged activator of factor XII (e.g., ground glass) and phospholipids to a patient’s citrated plasma, followed by calcium, and recording the time required for clot formation (usually 28 to 35 seconds). The PTT is sensitive to the anticoagulant effects of heparin and is therefore used to monitor its efficacy.

60
Q

Once activated, the coagulation cascade must be tightly restricted to the site of injury to prevent inappropriate and potentially dangerous clotting elsewhere in the vascular tree. Besides restricting factor activation to sites of exposed phospholipids, clotting also is controlled by three general categories of natural anticoagulants:

A

1) Antithrombins (e.g., antithrombin III) inhibit the activity of thrombin and other serine proteases, namely factors IXa, Xa, XIa, and XIIa. Antithrombin III is activated by binding to heparin-like molecules on endothelial cells— hence the clinical utility of heparin administration to limit thrombosis2) Protein C and protein S are two vitamin K–dependent proteins that act in a complex to proteolytically inactivate cofactors Va and VIIIa. 3) Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) is a protein secreted by endothelium (and other cell types) that inactivates factor Xa and tissue factor–factor VIIa complexes

61
Q

Plasmin is generated by proteolysis of plasminogen, an inactive plasma precursor, either by factor XII or by plasminogen activators. The most important of the plasminogen activators is _____.

A

tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA)

62
Q

Where is t-PA made by and when is it most active?

A

t-PA is synthesized principally by endothelial cells and is most active when attached to fibrinThe affinity for fibrin largely confines t-PA fibrinolytic activity to sites of recent thrombosis

63
Q

What are some other plasminogen activators present in the blood?

A

Urokinase-like plasminogen activator (u- PA) is another plasminogen activator present in plasma and in various tissues; it can activate plasmin in the fluid phase. In addition, plasminogen can be cleaved to its active form by the bacterial product streptokinase, which is used clinically to lyse clots in some forms of thrombotic disease.

64
Q

How is plasmin regulated?

A

To prevent excess plasmin from lysing thrombi indiscriminately throughout the body, free plasmin rapidly complexes with circulating α2-antiplasmin and is inactivatedEndothelial cells further modulate the coagulation– anticoagulation balance by releasing plasminogen activator inhibitors (PAIs); these block fibrinolysis and confer an overall pro-coagulation effectPAIs are stabilized by vitronectin

65
Q

What causes PAI production by endothelial cells?

A

It is increased by inflammatory cytokines (in particular IFN-γ) and probably contributes to the intravascular thrombosis that accompanies severe inflammation