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Step 2 > Deck 3 > Flashcards

Deck 3 Flashcards

1
Q

which side MI do you fluid restrict and which do you give fluids

A

left no fluids (inferior leads) because this can cause flash pulmonary edema // right give fluids bc you want to maintain preload

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2
Q

signs if CNIII palsy

A

right ptosis, opthalmoplegia, pupillary dilation

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3
Q

what type of bias is attrition bias

A

selection bias

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4
Q

congenital melanocytic nevus signs

A

has extra hair, can be large, this is what maya has

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5
Q

loss of fetal station during delivery what does that mean

A

uterine rupture, fetus retracts up into the uterus

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6
Q

cholestasis of pregnancy vs. HELLP syndrome

A

cholestasis wont have HTN or significantly lower platelets, HELLP will be more acute with HTN and low platelets

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7
Q

child with minimal care for comfort and little desire for connection

A

reactive attachment disorder

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8
Q

rib fracture with hemothorax cause

A

injury to the intercostals which are right below the rib

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9
Q

signs of ecstacy overdose

A

hypertension, hyperthermia, euphoria, serotonin syndrome, hyponatremia

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10
Q

what do you see in smear of a patient with sickle cell in the RBCs

A

howell jolly bodies (remnants of RBCs the spleen typcally removes)

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11
Q

can immunocomp poeple get live vax

A

NOPE

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12
Q

treatment of pain crisis IV or PO pain meds

A

IV

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13
Q

what is salmeterol

A

it is a beta agonist

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14
Q

do you treat partners of pt dx with trichomonis

A

yace with metronidizole

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15
Q

what type of renal injury does MM cause

A

parenchymal disease

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16
Q

what does heroin do to the kidneys

A

causes focal segmental glomerulosclerosos via nephrotic syndrome

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17
Q

treatment of body dysmorphic disorder

A

SSRI

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18
Q

delusions about body image dx

A

this is body dysmorphic disorder NOT delusional disorder

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19
Q

treatment of tourettes

A

antidopaminergic meds like tetrabenazine or antipsychotics

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20
Q

management of suspected VP shunt complication

A

CT head

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21
Q

infants with PJP b or t cell deficiency

A

t cells!

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22
Q

signs of hypermagnesemia

A

absent reflexes, weakness, paralysis, bradycardia, hypotension, lethargy, somnolence

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23
Q

management of hemorrhagic stroke

A

blood pressure control, reversal of any anticoagulation, ICP regulation with mannitol etc.

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24
Q

mangement of snake bite

A

antivenom IF unstable

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25
Q

what is likelihood ratio

A

how likely a person with a given test result is to have the disease depending on their pretest probability

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26
Q

equation for positive likelihood ratio

A

TP rate/FP rate (1-specificity)

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27
Q

signs of polycythemia in the newborn

A

high HCT, ruddy appearance, hypoglycemia, jitteriness

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28
Q

VACTERL association

A

vertebral, Anal, cardiac, TEF, renal, limb

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29
Q

signs of riboflavin deficiency

A

stomatitis, glossitis, anemia, dermatitis

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30
Q

biceps innervation

A

musculocutaneous nerve, C5/C6

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31
Q

what nerve does wrist extension

A

radial

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32
Q

what nerve does wrist flexion

A

medial

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33
Q

signs of scleroderma renal crisis

A

severe hypertension with acute renal failure

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34
Q

treatment of scleroderma renal crisis

A

ACE inhibitors

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35
Q

what does no bleeding on progesterone challenge test mean

A

NO to minimal estrogen!

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36
Q

signs of biliary leakage post lap chole

A

persistent RUQ pain, fever, leukocytosis, elevated livery enzymes

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37
Q

lyme facial uni or bilateral

A

can be either

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38
Q

firm mass in testicle of younger male likely dx

A

testicular cancer, typically noticed after injury or sex

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39
Q

what type of branching does candida have

A

pseudohyphae budding yeast

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40
Q

treatment of sunburn in child

A

NSAIDs

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41
Q

what type of incontinence is it if you have frequent need to use the bathroom

A

urge incontinence caused by involuntary detrusor contractility

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42
Q

brain herniation signs depending on type

A

uncal: CNIII palsy // subfalcine: Anterior cerebral artery (legs) // foramen magnum: impaired consciousness, decerebrate posturing, apnea

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43
Q

distal limb ischemia and gangrene in a young person with no atherosclerosis risk

A

thromboangiitis obliterans

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44
Q

when do you give penicillin for unknown GBS status

A

<35wks, previous baby with sepsis, prolonged rupture of membrane

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45
Q

most common reason for medication nonadherance

A

chronic silent illnesses in which patients dont have immediate perceived benefit

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46
Q

signs of colonic pseudo obstruction on xray

A

colonic dilation wtihout obstruction, no loss of haustra

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47
Q

consequences of consistently elevated phosphorus

A

soft tissue calcification, cataracts, nephrocalcinosis

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48
Q

basophilic stipling, neuro deficits, GI sx likely dx

A

lead poisoning

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49
Q

what does chemo do to the heart

A

fibrous replacement causing cardiomyopathy

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50
Q

signs of olecrenon bursitis

A

pain free range of motion, minimal pain

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51
Q

hepatic lesion with central stellate scar management

A

this is focal nodular hyperplasia and you dont need to do anything

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52
Q

female sexual interest disorder signs

A

lack of interest and lack of response to sexual cues or attemps to initiate activity

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53
Q

what do you see in the optic disc of a pt. with glaucoma

A

optic disc cupping

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54
Q

most common cause of amaurosis fugax (artery)

A

atherosclerotic emboli originating from the carotid artery

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55
Q

chorio mets in vagina appearance

A

friable vascular nodule

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56
Q

which PSC or PBC has intrahepatic fibrosis

A

PSC

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57
Q

adverse effects of lithium

A

thyroid, diabetes insip

58
Q

neutrophil changes in myelodysplastic syndromes

A

decreased segmentation and decreased granulation

59
Q

what causes testicular torsion

A

failure of fixation of the tunica vaginalis to testes

60
Q

causes of uric acid kidney stones

A

chronic diarrhea (from acidic urine), gout, DM, increased urine concentration

61
Q

where in the lung are squamous, small cell and adeno

A

squamous is mostly central and causes cavitary // small cell : central hilar mass // adeno: periphery

62
Q

signs of acute cerebellar ataxia

A

gait disturbances, symmetric involvement of all extremities, nystagmus

63
Q

what are kids with ADHD without treatment at risk of

A

substance use disorder

64
Q

what medication do you use for after TIA

A

aspirin or plavix

65
Q

what do you use for testing in a patient iwthout a pituitary gland to see if they’re treated adequately

A

Free T4

66
Q

what meds are used for alcohol use disorder

A

acomprosate, disulfiram, gabapentin, naltrexone

67
Q

do you have to tell police about poeples drug use

A

NO

68
Q

what other drugs can cause serotonin syndrome

A

lithium, triptans, odansetron

69
Q

drug to avoid in WPW

A

beta blockers

70
Q

causes of potter sequence

A

abscense of urinary tract parts,

71
Q

consequences of potter sequence

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

72
Q

treatment of pitiriasis versicolor

A

topical steroid for sx but generally reassurance

73
Q

what is hyperplastic dystrophy

A

this is chronic inflammatory changes to the vulva like lichen sclerosis, dermatitis etc

74
Q

duration of action of hydromorphone

A

2-3 hours

75
Q

infections seen in hyper IgM

A

severe pyogenic infections and oppurtunistic infections too

76
Q

treatment of lumbar spinal stenosis

A

NSAIDs, physical therapy, surgery for refractory cases

77
Q

treatment of de quarvain thyroiditis

A

beta blockers for thyrotoxif phase, NSAIDs for pain and to decrease inflammation

78
Q

gram stain of neisseria

A

gram negative dipIococcus

79
Q

most common cause of meningitis in 1mo-2yo

A

strep pneumo

80
Q

signs of poor prognosis in COPD

A

progressive dyspnea despite adequate medical therapy

81
Q

management of exposure to parvo in pregnancy

A

measure IgG and IgM to see if pregnant person infected

82
Q

treatment of viral conjunctivitis

A

supportive!

83
Q

signs of zinc deficiency

A

dermatitis, alopecia, taste disturbance, delayed wound healing

84
Q

signs of vertebrobasilar infarct

A

vertigo, lightheadedness, ataxia, nystagmus

85
Q

signs of carotid artery dissection

A

ipsilateral headache/face pain, partial horner syndrome, cranial nerve neuropathies

86
Q

what tumor causes facial flushing and what does it secrete

A

carcinoid tumor, secretes serotonin, histamine, etc

87
Q

common signs of zenkers

A

cough!, dysphagia, regurg of undigested food

88
Q

treatment of androgen insensitivity

A

gonadectomy and then hormone replacement

89
Q

what vessel is affected in anterior MI

A

LAD (give dobutamine)

90
Q

signs of DVT in the arm

A

superficial collateral veins dilation on the upper arm and chest

91
Q

what is tracheitis

A

this is a serious respiratory infection that presents similar to epiglottitis but the trache is what gets infected

92
Q

signs of chronic transplant nephropathy

A

onset of sx after a long asymptomatic period, fatigue, swelling, decreased appetite

93
Q

for patients with hydronephrosis what is best next step to prevent failure of kidneys

A

insert nephrostomy tube

94
Q

when can gestational htn be diagnosed

A

after the 20th week

95
Q

what type of hyperparathyroidism do CKD patients get

A

tertiary hyperparathy from parathyroid hyperplasia

96
Q

what to administer next in the case of shock not repsonding to pressors

A

hydrocortisone or some sort of steroid

97
Q

first imaging for back pain

A

xray!

98
Q

two biggest complications of scaphoid fracture

A

avascular necrosis and nonunion

99
Q

can you do a sleep study in children

A

yace

100
Q

treatment of epithelioid sarcoma

A

amputation

101
Q

can oral candida always be scraped off

A

doesnt have to be able to be scraped

102
Q

drugs that help in frontotemporal dementia

A

SSRIs, atypical antipsychotics

103
Q

dx testing for insulinoma

A

72hr fast followed by measurement of insulin and glucose

104
Q

when do you give ABX prophylaxis for sickle cell

A

0-5yrs of age

105
Q

WHAT DOES VALSALVA DO TO HOCM

A

IT MAKES IT LOUDER!!!!

106
Q

ferritin in anemia of pregnancy

A

it is low! just like normal iron deficiency

107
Q

management of warfarin induced skin necrosis

A

stop warfarin, administer vitK, heparin and protein C

108
Q

management of chronic gout

A

first is lifestyle mods like low purine diet and reduced alcohol use, then allopurinol

109
Q

what will a UA of a patient with MM show

A

4+ protein, fat bodies, bence jones

110
Q

management of confirmed peripheral vascular disease

A

statin and antiplatelet therapy (aspirin or plavix)

111
Q

treatment of symptomatic PVD

A

cilostazol or pentoxifylline

112
Q

when do you discuss contraception with children

A

before they become sexually active so like 13-15yo

113
Q

complications of bronchiolitis in neonates

A

apnea and respiratory failure

114
Q

signs of LV aneurysm on ECG

A

persistent ST elevation, deep Q waves

115
Q

presentation of LV aneurysm post MI

A

typically heart failure or angina

116
Q

what causes erysipelas

A

GAS

117
Q

do you intubate or needle thoracostomy first in tension pneumo

A

needle thoracostomy

118
Q

lactation failure jaundice vs. breast milk jaundice

A

LF: age <1wk, signs of dehydration // breast milk jaundice: peaks at 2wks, due to increased beta glucuronidase

119
Q

evaluation of strabismus

A

dilated funduscopic examination

120
Q

cause of trigeminal neuralgia

A

compression of the trigeminal nerve by vasculature

121
Q

variability effect on power

A

greater variability decreases power and vice versa

122
Q

difference between ecthyma and pyoderma gangrenosum

A

ecthyma is caused by pseudomonas and you have systemic sx, pyoderma is typically due to a related systemic disorder (Cancer, IBD, etc)

123
Q

signs of vascular ring in baby

A

biphasic stridor that improves with neck extension

124
Q

sickle cell disease electrophereisi vs. sickle cell trait

A

HbF, HbS, NO HbA // trait: decreased HbA, HbS

125
Q

sleep changes in depression

A

decreased REM latency, increased REM, decreased slow wave sleep

126
Q

treatment of binge eating disorder

A

SSRI

127
Q

do you need to biopsy suspected lichen sclerosis

A

yes to make sure its not cancer

128
Q

antihistone ab

A

drug induced lupus

129
Q

what abs are seen in lupus

A

antinuclear, anti Ds DNA

130
Q

where is pes anserinus bursitis located

A

anteriomedial knee

131
Q

msk complications of turners

A

osteoporosis

132
Q

henoch shonlein purpura clinical signs

A

purpura, petichiae, abdominal pain, arthralgias

133
Q

HUS signs

A

hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, mucosal bleeding, hematuria, hx ecoli

134
Q

what deficiency does phenytoin cause

A

folic acid

135
Q

when is disruptive mood dysregulation disorder dx

A

before age 10

136
Q

which SNRI causes HTN

A

venlafaxine

137
Q

describe the types of decels

A

early- start with contractions (mirror them) // variable: sharp V’s that are not associated with contractions // late: peaked W’s that are after the contraction

138
Q

PEP for hepA

A

vaccine or immune globulin

139
Q

when do you do GTT in pregnancy

A

24-28 wks

140
Q

pulse ox level in acrocyanosis of the newborn

A

normal!

141
Q

CMV vs toxo calcifications

A

CMV is periventricular // toxo is diffuse

142
Q

timecourse of transient synovitis

A

typically occur within a couple weeks of infection and then resolves in a couple weeks

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