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Step 2 > Deck 2 > Flashcards

Deck 2 Flashcards

1
Q

management of chorioamnionitis

A

ABX and immediate delivery

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2
Q

difference between narcissisitic PD and obsessive compulsive PD

A

its the motivation, narcissists are motivated by the need for praise whereas OC PD is more motivated by rules and the need for orderliness

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3
Q

differentiate between intussusception and malrotation presentation

A

intussusceptoin will have dark red currant jelly stool with attacks of pain every 15-30 mins vs. malroation will be bilious vomiting and hematochezia

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4
Q

treatment of decompression sickness

A

IV fluids ans 100% 02, hyperbaric oxygen

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5
Q

what situations do you use adenosine for

A

av node reentry tachycardia (AVNRT) or tachyarrythmias

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6
Q

clinical signs of amniotic fluid embolism

A

abrupt onset of cardio, respiratory or neurological compromise. Hypotensive, leads to DIC

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7
Q

how do you get trichenella

A

meat

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8
Q

aplastic anemia vs. leukemia presentation

A

both will have pancytopenias but leukemia will have splenomegaly and positive lymph nodes

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9
Q

what is power

A

1-beta

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10
Q
A
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11
Q

how long does a BCG vax cause positive ppd

A

it wanes within 5 years

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12
Q

when do you get lipid screening for men and women

A

men: 35 // women 45

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13
Q

treatment of boys with posterior urethral valves

A

daily abx therapy

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14
Q

signs of rubella

A

maculopapular exanthamous rash mainly confined to the neck and trunk with cervical lymphadenopathy

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15
Q

how do children with radial head subluxation present

A

with their arm flexed and pronated

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16
Q

what is primary eneuresis

A

this is when patients never develop nighttime dryness

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17
Q

what is osteomalacia

A

this is when you cant mineralize bone because you have a deficiency in vitamin D

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18
Q

how does obesity cause precocious puberty

A

obesity causes increased leptin which in turn causes increased GnRH pulsatility

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19
Q

how are peripheral and central precocious puberty different

A

peripheral is due to exogenous exposure to estrogen/progesterone without GnRH increase and central is due to increased GnRH production

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20
Q

where do infants get the miliaria rubra

A

neck, axilla, groin

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21
Q

first line treatment for gastroparesisi

A

metoclopramide

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22
Q

clinical course of senile purpura

A

spontaneous regression

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23
Q

what is the length of time allowed for second stage of labor in a nulliparous woman without epidural

A

3 hours 4 with epidural

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24
Q

what causes anemia of prematurity

A

impaired EPO production

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25
Q

lab findings for anemia of prematurity

A

normocytic normochromic anemia with normal reticulocyte count

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26
Q

when is eneuresis considered pathologic

A

> 5yrs

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27
Q

when do you have to give tamiflu by

A

within 48 hours

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28
Q

who specifically gets oral hairy leukoplakia

A

immunodeficient ppl

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29
Q

treatment of HCM

A

beta blocker or non DHP CCB

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30
Q

what are the two types of contact dermatitis

A

allergic and irritant

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31
Q

what patients with HIV get CMV colitis

A

CD4 <50

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32
Q

what is osteodystrophy

A

imparied response by the kidney to parathyroid hormone

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33
Q

painless jaundice and weightloss most likely dx

A

panc cancer

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34
Q

first line test in children for any imaging

A

do ultrasound first

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35
Q

management of myocardial contusion

A

serial ECG monitoring

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36
Q

when do you use atropine for heart stuff

A

symptomatic bradycardia

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37
Q

viral meningitis (aseptic meningitis) CSF

A

clear, mainly lymphocytes, normal glucose, normal or elevated protein, normal or slightly high opening pressure

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38
Q

which bloody diarrhea causes thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia

A

EHEC

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39
Q

signs of MAC

A

similar presentation to TB but with bronchiectasis, CF, etc and multiple small nodules scattered in the middle and lower lobes

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40
Q

when do you trach someone

A

if they are going to require prolonged mechanical ventilation after 10-14 days

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41
Q

who can be treated for CAP in the outpatient setting

A

young people with no comorbidities who are generally healthy

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42
Q

treatment for CAP in outpatient setting

A

oral azithromycin, doxy, or amoxicillin

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43
Q

what is considered a hemodynamically unstable patient

A

tachy or hypotensive

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44
Q

signs of roseola

A

several days of high fevers followed by blanching macular eruption on the trunk that spreads to face and extremities

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45
Q

what is osteochondroma

A

small bony spur covered by cartilage

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46
Q

what is chondroblastoma

A

benign cartilage neoplasm in epiphysis with sclerotic border

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47
Q

signs of ileus on xray

A

maintanence of haustra with colonic dilation with stool and air fluid levels

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48
Q

unpaired vs. paired T test

A

paired is means of the same group at different time points or something and unpaired is comparing means of two different groups

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49
Q

what is ANOVA

A

this is when you compare the means of three or more groups

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50
Q

describe categorical vs. not categorical dependent variable

A

categorical is when the variable can take on a limited number of values, such as yes/no vs. not categorical is a value or a response to treatment stuff like that

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51
Q

what do you use for non categorical dependent varaibles analyasis

A

t test for 2 groups ANOVA for 3+ groups

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52
Q

what is the calculation for sensitivity in terms of false negative rate

A

1-false negative rate

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53
Q

if someone wants to know the failure rate of a test what value is this

A

sensitivity (false negatives)

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54
Q

which polyps need more frequent follow up

A

adenomatous

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55
Q

dubin johnson vs. gilbert type of bilirubinemia

A

dubin is conjugated and gilbert is unconjugated

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56
Q

how do you get tinea capitis

A

its spread through fomites on combs, pillows, hats, etc

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57
Q

what are vegetarians often deficienct in

A

B12 and calcium

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58
Q

is asthma restrictive or obstructive

A

it is obstructive

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59
Q

what abx for pre dental procedure

A

amoxacillin or azithromycin/clarithromycin

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60
Q

when do you vaccinate mothers after birth

A

asap, do not have to wait for infant to be immunized

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61
Q

odds ratio vs. relative risk calculatin

A

odds ratio is X:Y vs. relative risk is X/total / y/total

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62
Q

metabolite changes in CKD pts

A

hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis

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63
Q

estrogen levels depending on withdrawl bleeding being present or not

A

if withdrawal bleeding happens there is enough estrogen its just annovulatory cycles, if it does not happen with progesterone test there is a structural issue or inadequate estrogen from something else

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64
Q

essential tremor timing

A

increases with action

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65
Q

person with DVT that then has an arterial embolus what to check

A

check their heart bc they likely have a patent foramen ovale that let a clot through!!

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66
Q

when to start mammos and ed

A

40-75

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67
Q

tests to evaluate a pt AFTER starting infliximab

A

CBC

68
Q

how does lowering a screening value affect PPV and NPV

A

lowering the screening age lowers the PPV and raises the NPV

69
Q

how does cows milk intolerace present in babies

A

diarrhea, failure to thrive, dehydration

70
Q

signs of reflux esophagitis in a baby

A

frequent regurgitation, pain after feeding, back aching, low weight gain, etc.

71
Q

risk factors for squamous cell CA

A

immunosuppression (chronic), sun exposure, chronic wound

72
Q

treatment of parathyroid adenoma

A

resection if symptomatic or if asymptomatic with evidence of renal or sekeltal involvement

73
Q

management of hereditary spherocytosis

A

splenectomy

74
Q

fever abdominal pain, peritonitis hx epigastric pain

A

perfed ulcer

75
Q

dx of perforated viscous

A

chest and abdomen xray to check for air (upright)

76
Q

smoking and birth contorl

A

no go!!

77
Q
A
78
Q

recurrent nesseria infection

A

terminal comp def

79
Q

CML CBC

A

leukocytosis with thrombocytosis and elevation of many lineages

80
Q

clinical signs of CML

A

splenomegaly, B sx etc.

81
Q

cause of delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

auto abs against minor antigens which takes longer to develop

82
Q

hemolysis and recent transfusion

A

hemolytic transfusion reaction which is due to abs against RBCs

83
Q

describe seborrheic keratoses

A

these are waxy stuck on lesions that are sharply demarcated and round, more common in older adults

84
Q

what abx do you give for hospital acquired pneumonia

A

vanc and pseudomonas coverage

85
Q

abx for pseudomonas

A

pip-tazo, ceftazidime, cefepime, fluoroquinolones, carbapenems, aminoglycocydes

86
Q

sodium level in urine of a patient with ATN

A

high because it is not being reabsorbed

87
Q

signs of candidemia

A

severe sepsis with skin and ophthalmologic lesions

88
Q

best statistical measure for screening vs. diagnosing

A

sensitive: screening, captures the most people, specific is for diagnosing

89
Q

what is a near miss error

A

this is when someone makes a mistake but someone else catches it or there is a safeguard in place to interfere with giving the med or whatever to the patient

90
Q

newborn with viral bacterial and fungal infections

A

combined immunodeficiency

91
Q

signs of opiod intoxication

A

low respiratory rate, 3mm pupils

92
Q

what causes people to be obtunded in opioid intoxication

A

hypercarbia

93
Q

suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage but no changes seen on CT

A

lumbar puncture

94
Q

what is the formula for attributable risk

A

incidence with exposure minus incidence without exposure

95
Q

NF1 vs. NF2

A

1: optic gliomas, many neurofibromas, cafe au lait spots pheo // 2: meningiomas, bilateral vestibular schwannoma

96
Q

do you ever want to biopsy an ovarian tumor

A

no! it can seed the abdomen

97
Q

treatment of tinea capitis

A

ORAL griseofulvin or terbinafine

98
Q

bronchiectasis in a child likely dx

A

CF or primary ciliary dyskinesia

99
Q

what does the sinusoidal pattern mean for fetal heart tracing

A

anemia or hypoxia

100
Q

management of likely galactocele

A

ultrasound and then for symptomatic ones can do fine needle aspiration

101
Q

who should get the hepA vax

A

MSM, people with HIV, IVDU, travel high risk settings

102
Q

treatment of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

A

oral acetominophen

103
Q

what type of incontinence does diabetes mellitus cause

A

overflow incontinence which is caused by impaired detrusor contractility

104
Q

treatment of femoral artery aneurysm

A

symptomatic you need to do surgical repair right away

105
Q

what type of lung disease does alpha1 antitrypsin cause

A

COPD/emphysema with bronchiectasis

106
Q

treatment of IgA deficiency

A

treatment of symptomatic infections, nothing else really extra

107
Q

respiratory distress with audible stridor after thyroid surgery

A

laryngeal nerve injury

108
Q

how do you dx macular degeneration

A

dilated funoscopic xam

109
Q

management of asymptomatic thyroid nodule

A

FNA

110
Q

next step in neg xray that is a likely hip fracture

A

MRI

111
Q

do you get nystagmus in NPH

A

nope

112
Q

which tumor presents with opsoclonus myoclonus

A

neuroblastoma

113
Q

allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis labs

A

eosinophilia, high IgE

114
Q

who should get prophylaxis with ABX after splenectomy

A

children <5yo, aduts and children for 1 year, immunocompromise lifelong

115
Q

rash that starts as one small spot that then spreads and is pruritic

A

pityriasis rosea

116
Q

complications of preeclampsia

A

placental abruption, DIC

117
Q

what do U waves mean on EKG

A

hypokalemia

118
Q

common complication of cleft palate

A

velopharyngeal insufficiency

119
Q

treatment of entameba histolytica

A

metro and drainiate of liver masses if no improvement with treatment

120
Q

what is a case serius

A

study that describes the history, exposures, clincal findings and treatment of a group of patients

121
Q

signs of OCD

A

obsessions that people then act on by doing a compulsion and bring people anxiety

122
Q

ewing signs on xray

A

onion skin appearance in periosteum

123
Q

TRALI vs. fluid overload

A

TRALI will have fever cyanosis, hypotension vs. fluid overload will have peripheral edema and hypoxia but no fever

124
Q

complications of DM even in adolescents

A

early onset CAD, renal disease

125
Q

which has oral/anal involvemetn UC or crohns

A

crohns

126
Q

facial features of digeorge

A

hypertelorism, low set ears

127
Q

which polyps need repeat in 3 years

A

any polyps with dysplasia tubular adenomas, or sessile polyps

128
Q

treatment of firbromuscular dysplasia

A

antihypertensives and if those fail then angioplasty

129
Q

when to intubate

A

hypoxia with pt. not protecting airway

130
Q

further testing of hyperfunctioning thyroid nodule

A

thyroid scintigraphy/radioactive iodine uptake scan, ultrasound

131
Q

further studies after dx pericardiitis

A

echo to evaluate for pericardial effusion

132
Q

do you close surgical wounds with spilled bowel contents

A

no leave open with wound vac

133
Q

management of loud breathing during death

A

scopolomine or glycopyrrolate

134
Q

treatment of AIN

A

cessation of the causal medication

135
Q

side effects of continued cannabis use

A

cannabis hyperemesis syndrome, relief with hot shower

136
Q

clear mammo and FNA management of suspicisous breast mass

A

exisional biopsy is next step

137
Q

what causes endometritis

A

polymicrobial but mainly ascending organisms like gardereella, staph epidermidid, GBS, ecoli

138
Q

treatment of corneal abrasion

A

topical ABX, if contact wearers, use antipseudomonal coverage

139
Q

treatment of placenta accreta dx before birth

A

cesarian hysterectomy

140
Q

treatment of pinworm

A

albendazole or pyramantel pamoate

141
Q

osler nodes

A

painful lesions from Infective endocarditis

142
Q

vertebrobasilar insufficiency vs. BPPV

A

vertebrobasilar insuff will have syncope, tinnitis, nausea, visual changes, etc. which are not seen in BPPV, more related to head position and no syncope or other sx

143
Q

natural course of osteochondroma

A

growth until physis closure

144
Q

alcoholic cerebellar degeneration signs

A

slowly progressive truncal ataxia, normal proprioception and sensory

145
Q

B12 deficiency early signs

A

paresthesias happen first and then you lose proprioception and sensation

146
Q

does rotator cuff injury cause sensory loss

A

NO

147
Q

what is observer bias

A

when the investigators decision is biased by the knowledge of exposure status

148
Q

management of suspected lyme disease

A

if it is early, empiric ABX, no need to test

149
Q

what is relative risk reduction

A

this is absolute risk reduction divided by control rate

150
Q

what is telogen effluvium

A

this is when you have lots of acute hair loss without any inflammation, triggered by stress, positive hair pull test

151
Q

treatment of menieres

A

low salt intake, limit caffeine and alcohol, avoid allergy triggers

152
Q

diagnostic process for HCV

A

serology and if positive then to PCR

153
Q

peribronchial cuffing on xray

A

bronchiolitis

154
Q

who needs PEP for varricella exposure

A

immunocomp, pregnant/newborns who are not immune to varicella

155
Q

what NT is lost in huntingtons

A

GABA

156
Q

eval of pts with blunt chest trauma who are stable

A

CXR, ECG, FAST scan

157
Q

management of cryptorchidism

A

orchiopexy before age 1

158
Q

stool or serology for h pylori

A

stool bc past infections will make serology always positive

159
Q

which side is the colon CA if there is bright red blood

A

left

160
Q

which side is colon CA if there is occult blood

A

righ

161
Q

stool changes colon cancer side

A

left (sigmoid)

162
Q

what is an aplastic crisis for sickle cell

A

this is when you have transient arrest of erythrocytosis typically secondary to infection and reticulocytes are low

163
Q

where does lithium cause diabetes insipidus

A

in the kidney collecting duct

164
Q

what is trihexyphenidyl

A

anticholinergic

165
Q

mitral regurg vs. mitral prolapse murmur with squatting

A

squatting increases MR v.s decreases MP

166
Q

does TB infiltrate nerves

A

NO

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