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Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Question

A

Explanation

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2
Q

what do you do for infacnts with brachial plexus injury

A

you just observe them and can do physical therapy

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3
Q

what causes irregular menses and anovulatory bleeding in adolescesnts

A

immature HPA axis

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4
Q

what population of HIV patients get HIV associated dementia

A

patients with uncontrolled HIV that are not on ART

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5
Q

skin findings of NF1

A

cafe-au-lait spots, axillary and inguinal freckling, lisch nodules

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6
Q

tumors associated with NF1

A

optic glioma, pheo, neurofibromas

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7
Q

skin findings NF2

A

skin nodules (schwannomas)

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8
Q

tumors associated with NF2

A

bilateral vestibular schwannoma

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9
Q

skin findings tuberous sclerosis

A

multicle facial adenomas, ash-leaf spots, shagreen patchs, ungual fibromas

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10
Q

neuro findings tuberous sclerosis

A

seizures, intellectual disability

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11
Q

tumors associated with tuberous sclerosis

A

hamartomas, giant cell astrocytoma, cardiac rhabdomyomas, renal angiomyolipoma, cysts and RCC

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12
Q

findings of von-hippel lindau disease

A

cerebellar and retinal hemangioblastomas, pheo, RCC

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13
Q

what color does blood show on non contrast CT

A

white

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14
Q

what is bright in T1 weighted MRI

A

fat and contrast

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15
Q

what is bright in T2 weighted MRI

A

water (CSF), and fat (but less intense than T1)

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16
Q

flesh colored raised papules in anogenital area

A

condyloma accuminata (HPV)

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17
Q

sudden decline in development of a young girl

A

Rett syndrome

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18
Q

signs of Rett syndrome

A

gait disturbances, sudden decline in development, hand movements, loss of speech

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19
Q

signs of myotonic dystrophy

A

myotonia and weakness, distal mm atrophy

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20
Q

complications of myotonic dystrophy (heart)

A

cardiomyopathy, arrythmias,

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21
Q

if a vertebral body goes forward what joint get dislocated

A

facet joint dislocation

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22
Q

what brain issues do people with ADPCKD get

A

aneurysms (berry)

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23
Q

what is associated with difficulty with an upward gaze

A

pinealoma

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24
Q

functional tremor signs

A

abrupt stopping in the tremor, stops with distraction, changeable features of the tremor

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25
Q

where do neuroblastomas arise

A

adrenal medulla or along the sympathetic chain

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26
Q

where do medulloblastomas arise

A

in the cerebellum

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27
Q

clinical features of neuroblastoma

A

opsoclonus-myoclonus, periorbital eccymosis, abdominal mass

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28
Q

clincal features of medulloblastoma

A

cerebellar signs (gait changes, central uncoordination), hydrocephalus

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29
Q

what cervical nerve is injured if patient has claw hand and wrist extension

A

C8 and T1

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30
Q

are antipsychotics safe in pregnancy

A

yes, use for acute mania

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31
Q

dx of a fluid collection spanning multiple vertebra on MRI

A

spinal epidural abcess

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32
Q

treatment of spinal epidural abcess

A

ABX and urgent laminectomy

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33
Q

what is most specific to seizure activity

A

tongue biting

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34
Q

treatment of organophosphate poisoning

A

atropine and then pralidoxime

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35
Q

what is physostigmine

A

achetylcholineesterase inhibitor

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36
Q

complications of asymptomatic bacteruria of pregnancy

A

pyelo or preterm labor

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37
Q

what nerve can be compressed with uncal herniation

A

occulomotor (CNIII)

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38
Q

what type of brain hernation occurs after epidural hematoma

A

uncal

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39
Q

signs of pelvic organ prolapse

A

any mass that increases in size with valsalva

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40
Q

what is the main defining feature of PTSD

A

exposure to a life-threatening trauma

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41
Q

difference between rathkes cleft cyst and craniopharyngioma

A

craniopharnygioma will have calcifications seen on imaging

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42
Q

day and night time eneureis in children with red flags eval

A

MRI

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43
Q

treatment of NPH

A

high volume lumbar puncture

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44
Q

what does the head thrust test evaluate

A

vestibuloocular reflex

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45
Q

what happens to TSH during pregnancy

A

decreased because HCG stimulates thyroid hormone production so TSH decreases bc neg feedback

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46
Q

presentation of conus medullaris vs. cauda equina pain

A

conus medullaris is severe low back pain and cauda equina is radicular pain (down leg

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47
Q

presentation of conus medullaris vs. cauda equina upper motor or lower motor neuron signs

A

conus medullaris has upper motor and cauda equina has lower

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48
Q

presentation of conus medullaris vs. cauda equina bladder symptoms

A

both have bowel and bladder dysfunction because of pudendal nerve

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49
Q

alcohol withdrawal vs. thiamine deficiency differentiation

A

alcohol withdrawal has autonomic instability and thiamine is more of an encephalopathy

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50
Q

central cord syndrome signs

A

sensory distubances in upper extremities, upper extremity weakness because the corticospinal tract has arms closest to the center of the cord

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51
Q

1hr glucose tolerance test cutoff

A

200

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52
Q

do absence seizures have a postictal period

A

no!

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53
Q

best form of emergency contraception

A

IUD and then levonorgestrel

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54
Q

time course for alteplace/TNK for stroke

A

<4.5 hours

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55
Q

signs of PTSD in kids

A

emotional dysregulation, play that imitates trauma, nightmares

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56
Q

signs of reactive attachment disorder

A

lack of emotional responsiveness, no seeking of comfort from caregivers

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57
Q

what causes reactive attachment disorder

A

early childhood abuse

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58
Q

what types of hemorrhage is cause by nonaccidental trauma

A

subdural and retinal hemorrhage

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59
Q

what is pituitary apoplexy

A

hemorrhage or acute ischemia of the pituitary causing acute adrenal insufficiency

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60
Q

what is the most common childhood brain tumor

A

low-grade astrocytoma

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61
Q

what do you use for benzo overdose

A

flumenazil

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62
Q

what does elevation of the diaphragm on chest xray typically indicate

A

this means that there is diaphragmatic weakness likely from ALS

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63
Q

why do pts with spinal cord injurys get autonomic dysreflexia

A

because the parasympathetic response cannot be sent down the spinal cord

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64
Q

noxious stimulus below a spinal cord injury effects

A

you get autonomic dysreflexia which means you get sweating, palpitations, etc, above the lesion and

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65
Q

clinical signs of sturge webber

A

seizures, port wine stain, glaucoma,

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66
Q

signs of methamphetamine intoxication vs. acute manic disorder

A

meth often has severe dental symptoms, more tactile hallucinations, and skin excoriations vs. mania which is more grandiose delusions and no sympathetic overdrive

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67
Q

PML on imaging

A

multiple NON enhancing lesions

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68
Q

new onset psychosis plus tremor/parkinsonism

A

wilsons diseaseI

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69
Q

pH of genitourinary syndrome of menopause

A

elevated pH (6.5) due to decreased vaginal secretions that are acidic

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70
Q

CNS lesions in tuberous sclerosis

A

subependymal tumors, giant cell astrocytoma, etc

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71
Q

where are brachial cleft cysts on the neck

A

lateral

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72
Q

difference between nightmare disorder and sleep terror disorder

A

nightmare the child is fully aware and they are able to communicate but in sleep terror disorder they are not aware and have amnesia

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73
Q

long term complication of delerium

A

cognitive decline

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74
Q

main difference between serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

serotonin syndrome has hyperreflexia vs. NMS is just rigidity

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75
Q

4 clinical manifestations of IgA vasculitis

A

palpable purpura, arthralgia/arthritis, abdominal pain, renal disease

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76
Q

signs of cerebellar dysfunction

A

truncal or gait ataxia, wide-based gait, poor heel-toe coordination

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77
Q

what happens with blood pressure in TRALI

A

tanks

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78
Q

is INO ipsilateral/contralateral in terms or MLF lesion to eye not adducting

A

ispilateral

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79
Q

orthopedic signs of tethered cord

A

back pain, scoliosis, foot deformities

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80
Q

is a sputum cytology helpful for cancer dx

A

no!

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81
Q

difference between illness anxiety disorder and somatic symptom

A

illness anxiety is where you have preoccupation with having a serious illness vs. somatic symptom disorder you have unexplained symptoms and anxiety around the symptoms

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82
Q

treatment of stroke in sickle cell

A

exchange transfusion

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83
Q

5-alpha reductase defiency genotype

A

46 XY

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84
Q

5 alpha reductase signs

A

virulization at puberty due to increased testosterone (acne, cliteromegaly, increased muscle mass, male pattern hair)

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85
Q

treatment of phantom limb pain

A

multimodal, antidepressants, CBT etc.

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86
Q

return to sports after concussion timeline

A

rest for 2 days, gradual progression of activity with return to rest if there is headaches etc.

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87
Q

who gets cyclic vomiting syndrome

A

people with migraines or fam hx of, identifialble triggers like stress

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88
Q

timeline for adjustment disorder

A

sx onset within 3mo of an identifiable stressor

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89
Q

management of hyaditiform mole after curretage

A

month B-hcg levels and 6mo of contraception

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90
Q

physical exam of a patient with cervical insufficiency

A

shortened cervix or dilated cervix, no vaginal bleeding, pelvic pressure

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91
Q

signs of placenta previa

A

painless vaginal bleeding at >20 weeks gestation

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92
Q

sleep changes in MDD

A

decreased REM sleep latency, increased REM, decreased non-rem, multiple nighttime awakenings

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93
Q

5 P’s of acute intermittent porphyria

A

painful abdomen, polyneuropathy, psychologic disturbances, port wine pee, precipitated by drugs

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94
Q

can scfe be bilateral

A

yes

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95
Q

pain with internal rotation in a child with hip pain

A

SCFE

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96
Q

management of frostbite

A

rapid warming, angiography if rewarming not successful

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97
Q

triad of wiskott aldrich

A

recurrent infections, eczema, purpura

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98
Q

what is transient hypogammoglobulinemia of infancy

A

this is when the infant has delayed rise in IgG after physiologic nadir after 6mo of age, will resolve

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99
Q

ultrasound findings of placenta accreta

A

US with placenta previa, numberou lacunae, myometrial thinning

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100
Q

what is considered adequate contractions

A

> 200 montevideo units

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101
Q

dx of hirschsprungs

A

biopsy, contrast enema, anorectal manometry

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102
Q

who gets uterine rupture

A

patients with previous uterine surgeries

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103
Q

what does the uterus feel like in uterine rupture

A

can feel palpable fetal parts

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104
Q

clinical presentation of placental abruption

A

sudden onset vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, high freq/low intensity contractions, rigid uterous

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105
Q

when do you do a ERCP for pancreatitis

A

if there is CBD dilation indicating stone or evidence of acute cholangitis

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106
Q

management of gallstone panc after panc resolved and no cholangitis/biliary issue

A

cholecystectomy once pancreatitis resolved

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107
Q

treatment of periorbital hemangioma in infant

A

propanolol

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108
Q

treatment of port wine stain

A

laser (cosmetic)

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109
Q

can you give metronidozole in pregnancy

A

Yace

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110
Q

treatment of binge eating disorder

A

SSRI

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111
Q

signs of NMDA (ecstacy) toxicity

A

sympathomimetic tox and serotonin sydrome and hyponatremia

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112
Q

signs of blunt thoracic aortic injury

A

bruising on the chest, weak femoral pulses, cool limbs, proximal hypertension

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113
Q

what is aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease (triad)

A

asthma, bronchospasm following aspirin use, chonic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps

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114
Q

treatment of parkinsons tremor

A

anticholingergic therapy

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115
Q

signs of separation anxiety

A

reluctance to leave, avoidance of activities, excessive worry

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116
Q

signs of growing pains

A

worse at night, primarily at night

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117
Q

what does a positive arm drop test mean

A

rotator cuff tear

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118
Q

what newborns get ABO incompatability hemolytic disease

A

newborns who are AB that have mothers who are O

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119
Q

in a neonate with cyanosis does their O2 sat change when they are given oxygen if it is a heard issue

A

no it wont change so if it increases they have a pulmonary pathology

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120
Q

effects of gestational diabetes on fetal lungs

A

immaturity, poor surfactant maturation

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121
Q

what are pulses like in aortic regurg

A

wide pulse pressure

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122
Q

treatment of NEC

A

stopping enteral feeds, fluids, BCX and then ABX, if no improvement or has bowel perf, then surgery

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123
Q

treatment of migraine in pregnancy

A

acetominophen, antiemetics, NSAIDs, opioids

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124
Q

treatment of croup

A

dexamethasone and racemic epinephrine

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125
Q

when does uric acid precipitate from the urine

A

it precips at low pH <5.5

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126
Q

why do crohns or CF patients get Ca oxalate stones

A

because they absorb less Ca and Ca binds oxalate in the intestine so more oxalate gets absorbed and then excreted in the kidney which causes increased Ca oxalate stones

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127
Q

treatment of frequent uric acid stones due to gout

A

alkalinazation of the urine

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128
Q

what part of the brain gets atrophy in alzheimers

A

temporal lobe (with the hippocampus and amygdala

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129
Q

signs of croup

A

barking cough, hoarseness, inspiratory stridor

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130
Q

signs of babeosis

A

flu like sx, DIC, anemia, thrombocytopenia, increased bili, LDH etc.

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131
Q

consequenses of preeclampsia

A

ischemic stroke, seizures, AKI, hepatic subcapsular hematoma, ARDS, placental abruption

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132
Q

signs of central brain herniation

A

decorticate to decerebrate posturing

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133
Q

why do you get thrombocytopenia in SLE

A

peripheral destruction due to immune thrombocytic purpura

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134
Q

can you hear a bruit on exam for aortic aneurysm

A

no

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135
Q

what do nitrates do to the heart

A

they decrease preload which decreased left ventricular end diastolic volume because of venous dilation

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136
Q

which is external vs. internal in CNIII for parasympathetic vs. motor

A

external is parasympathetic and internal is motor

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137
Q

is parasympathetic or motor (somatic) fibers more susceptible to ischemia

A

motor because the center of the nerve is more susceptible to ischemia because the blood vessel is on the outside

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138
Q

granulomatosis with polyangiitis pulmonary findings

A

ulceration, lung nodules with cavitation

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139
Q

signs of retinal detachment in the history

A

flashes of lights, dark spots or webs, floaters, peripheral vision defects

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140
Q

describe odds ratio

A

the odds that an event with occur in one group vs. the odds of an event occuring in another group

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141
Q

describe risk ratio

A

the likelihood of an outcome in one group exposed to a potential risk factor compared to the risk in another unexposed group

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142
Q

what is considered macrocephaly

A

> 97th percentile

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143
Q

what is the uterus like in adeomyosis

A

symetrically enlarged and painful

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144
Q

what is the mutation in CML and what is the chromosome

A

this is chrom 22 which is the BCR ABL gene creating always active tyrosine kinase

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145
Q

differences in TM in acute otitis media vs. otitis media with effusion

A

AOM has bulging and erythema of the TM whereas otitis media with effusion is not bulging just immobility

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146
Q

management of prepnant people with HSV prior to pregnancy

A

if they have lesions you do a c section if they are asymtomactic you do antiviral therapy starting at 36 weeks

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147
Q

how do you treat SCFE

A

screw fixation

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148
Q

size of ovary in torsion

A

enlarged due to trapped blood flow

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149
Q

CHARGE syndrome

A

Coloboma, heard defects, choanal atresia, retardation of growth, genitourinary anomalies, ear abnormalities

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150
Q

VACTERL features

A

vertebral anomalies, anal atresia, cardiac issues, TEF, renal and limb issues

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151
Q

signs of choanal atresia

A

hypoxia during breast feeding or sleeping that gets better with crying

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152
Q

two main causes of pleural fluid with glucose less than 30mg/dl

A

rheeumatoid pleuracy or empyema

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153
Q

causes of infectious adrenalitis

A

TB, CMV, histo

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154
Q

risks for somatic sx disorder

A

sexual trauma, lower education level, chroic chiIdhood illness, female

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155
Q

signs of mesenteric ischemia

A

rapid onset periumbilical pain, hematochezia, extreme pain

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156
Q

lab abnormalities in acute mesenteric ischemia

A

leukocytosis, elevated hemoglobin, elevated amylase, metabolic acidosis

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157
Q

signs of psychosis

A

delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech

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158
Q
A
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159
Q

what is the mutation in fanconi anemia

A

DNA repair defect

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160
Q

clinical findings of fanconi anemia

A

short stature, hypo or hyper pigmented macules, abnormal thumbs, genitourinary findings

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161
Q

thyroid changes in pregnancy

A

TSH goes down (BHCG), free T4 and total T4 goes up

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162
Q

signs of open globe injury

A

fixed tear drop pupil, relative afferent pupillary defect, decreased intraocular pressure

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163
Q

urticarial transfusion reaction

A

hives and itching NO RESP DISTRESS

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164
Q

treatment of urticarial transfusion reactions

A

cessation of transfusion, antihistamines, then resume if theyre well

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165
Q

what is a dupuytren contracture

A

thickening of palmar fascia at the 3/4/5th digits

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166
Q

neuro sx of B12 deficiency

A

sensory ataxia, upgoing plantar reflexes, lower extremity paresthesias, neuropsychiatric changes

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167
Q

emypema vs. abscess imaging

A

empyema is just puss filled NO AIR FLUID LEVEL // abcess has an air fluid level

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168
Q

what is transverse myelitis

A

this is immune mediated destruction of the spinal cord

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169
Q

clincial features of transverse myelitis

A

bilateral motor weakness, LMN to UMN symptoms, bilateral sensory dysfunction, autonomic dysfunction

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170
Q

likely dx of a person with fluctuating bulbar weakness

A

myasthenia gravis

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171
Q

WAGR syndrome

A

wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary abnormalities, range of developmental delays

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172
Q

clinical features of fat necrosis of the breat

A

firm irregular mass, skin/nipple retraction

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173
Q

signs of urethral injury

A

blood at urethral meatus, high riding prostate

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174
Q

what does an MECP2 mutation do

A

rett syndrome (girls X dom, hands)

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175
Q

tay sachs enzyme and common findings

A

hexosaminidase A and this is severe neurodegeneration and death by 2-5

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176
Q

clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

frequent fractures, blue sclera, dentinogenesis imperfecta

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177
Q

symptoms of pelvic organ prolapse

A

pelvic pressure, voiding dysfunction (incontinence, urinary retention, etct)

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178
Q

what lab abnormality is seen in von willebrand disease

A

long bleeding time, normal PT and PTT

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179
Q

methotrexate adverse effects

A

myelosuppression, pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity,

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180
Q

causes of duodenal vs. jejenal atresia

A

duodenal is typically failure to recanalize vs. jejenal is due to vascular accident

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181
Q

most common cause of potter sequence in males

A

posterior urethral valves

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182
Q

where are venous vs. arterial ulcers on the maleoli of legs

A

venous are on the medial side and arterial are on the lateral maleolus

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183
Q

first step in evaluation of hypospadias

A

karyotype analysis

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184
Q

features of disseminated neisseria gonorrhea infection

A

skin manifestations, tenosynovitis, polyarthralgias, purulent arthritis

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185
Q

what mutation causes osteosarc and retinoblastoma

A

Rb

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186
Q

frequent bronchitis, pneumonia and bronchiectasis

A

common variable immunodeficiency

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187
Q

treatment of wide complex tachycardia

A

synchronized cardioversion

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188
Q

epidural hematoma shape

A

lemon aka DOES NOT cross suture lines

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189
Q

which type of hematoma has a lucid interval

A

epidural hematoma

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190
Q

signs of eosinophilic esophagitis on EGD

A

circumfrential lesions, strictures, linear longtitudinal furrows

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191
Q

what is the best way to improve burnout

A

organization directed interventions like scribes, and reducing workload

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192
Q

clinical features of x linked agammaglobulinemia

A

recurrent pyogenic infections, hypoplastic tonsils, absent B cells on flow

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193
Q

treatment of x linked agammaglobulinemia

A

IV immunoglobulin therapy

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194
Q

which is associated with IBD PSC or PBC?

A

PSC!!!

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195
Q

pathology of PSC

A

inflammation and fibrosis of intra and EXTRA hepatic ducts, strictures and dilatations

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196
Q

pathology of PBC

A

autoimmune destruction of intrahepatic dugs, lymphocytic infiltration of portal areas and granulomas

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197
Q

how are becker/duchenne dx

A

genetic analysis, only do mm bx if genetics inconclusive!

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198
Q

respiratory changes in pregnancy

A

respiratory alkalosis due to increased minute ventilation to facilitate gas exchange at the placenta

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199
Q

what is the depot shot made of

A

progesterone, hypercoag ppl can take it

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200
Q

definition of mood disorder with psychotic features

A

this is like MDD or bipolar with psychosis DURING the manic/depressive episode, you dont see the psychosis anytime else

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201
Q

what is schizoaffective disorder

A

features of both schizophrenia AND mood disorder and the pscyhosis has to be >2 weeks from the mood disorder, essentially you have psychosis episodes AND depressive/manic episodes

202
Q

brief psychotic disorder vs. schizophreniform vs. schizophrenia

A

brief psychotic : 1 day -1 month // schiziphreniform: 1-6months // schizophrenia: >6mo

203
Q

management of laryngomalacia

A

reassurance and follow up

204
Q

treatment of lead poisoning

A

oral succimer

205
Q

where do you see herpetic whitlow

A

fingers and sometimes orally

206
Q

do healthly term neonates need VZV PEP

A

no! only if they are premature or their mother was infected at birth

207
Q

treatment of chronic suppurative otitis media

A

fluoroquinolone topical

208
Q

best way to prevent cathether associated UTI

A

do intermittent catheterization instead of leaving an indwelling cathether in

209
Q

treatment of condyloma accuminata (anal warts)

A

curretage, cryotherapy, laser, etc.

210
Q

fibromyalgia vs. myofascial pain syndrome

A

fibromyalgia is widespread pressure points whereas myofascial pain syndrome is more focal in one anotomic position

211
Q

what is the treatment for Myasthenia gravis

A

pyridostigmine which increases the availability of Ach by inhibiting Achesterase

212
Q

what is edrophonium

A

this is also an achetylcholinesterase inhibitor

213
Q

when does babinski sign dissipate

A

max two years

214
Q

steps in treatment of malignant hyperthermia

A

discontinue anesthetics, then dantroline and then cooling measurres

215
Q

signs of sjogrens

A

dry mouth, dry eyes, arthritis, etc.

216
Q

what ab is positive in sjogrens

A

anti Ro/SSa and SSb

217
Q

what ab is positive in systemic sclerosis

A

anti topoisomerase/ scl-70 or centromere

218
Q

hepatic and pulmonary granulomas in an infant infection

A

listeria

219
Q

if a child missed a vaccination do they need to restart

A

NO!!

220
Q

if there is gas in the stomach where is the TEF

A

the TEF is connected to the esophagus somehow likely the distal part

221
Q

in trauma, what is the main difference in imaging modalities in a stable vs. unstable patient

A

stable: can do CT unstable: do FAST scan with ultrasound

222
Q

treatmenbt of ITP plts <10k and <30k

A

<10k you transfuse plts <30k you do steroids IVIG

223
Q

signs of horner syndrome

A

ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis (too much parasympathetic bc no sympathetic input

224
Q

premenstrual dysphoric disorder vs. premenstrual syndrome

A

PMDD is more severe mood disturbances prior to the onset of menses whereas PMS is more just bloating cramping and off mood

225
Q

when do you give the tetanus vaccine for wounds

A

if it is a tetanus prone wound and they either have an unknown vax hx or <3 doses OR it has been 5yrs since they got a booster

226
Q

what is the typical genotype of pts with 5 alpha reductase deficiency

A

46XY

227
Q

differentiate between acute fatty liver of pregnancy vs. intrahepatic cholestasis of preg

A

AFLP: sudden onset jaundice, nausea, vom, RUQ pain, coagulopathy // cholestasis: pruritis, jaundice

228
Q

treatment of acute fatty liver of pregnancy vs. intrahepatic cholestasis of preg

A

AFLP: immediate delivery // cholestasis: ursodeoxycholic acid

229
Q

what is a luteoma and how do you manage it

A

this is a rare benign tumor of the ovary caused by hormonal effects of pregnancy, causes virulization, just observe bc it will likely regress on it sown

230
Q

how often do braxton hicks contractions occur

A

couple an hour

231
Q

what is considered true labor

A

coordinated regular contractions about every 10 minutes AND cervical change

232
Q

management of duodenal hematoma

A

NG tube to decompress the stomach and TPN for

233
Q

what is the most common side effect of ECT

A

reversable amnesia headaches, nausea

234
Q

what is the confirmatory test for multiple myeloma

A

bone marrow biopsy

235
Q

what is the purpose of intention to treat analysis

A

helps avoid selection bias by keeping the balance of characteristics that was created during randomization

236
Q

when do you use unpaired t tests

A

comparing two groups independent data

237
Q

when do you use paried t tests

A

comparing one groups dependent variables across two points in time

238
Q

when do you use ANOVA

A

comparing the means of dependent variables between 2 or more categories

239
Q

what are the greatest two things that impact COPD patients survival

A

1- smoking cessation 2- long term oxygen

240
Q

what is a potential AE of local anesthetic

A

methemoglobinemia, perioral numbness, dysgeusia, tinnitus, etc.

241
Q

what antibodies/antigen are present in chronic Hep B infection

A

Hbc IgG, HBsAg, antiHbe

242
Q

what infections are common in kids with selective IgA deficiencyI

A

mucosal infections (sinusitis, giardia)

243
Q

treatment of dermatitis herpetiformis in celicacs

A

oral dapsone

244
Q

first step in evaluation of precocious puberty

A

GnRH stim test, increase in LH means this is central

245
Q

treatment of body dysmorphic disorder

A

CBT

246
Q

what does meconium aspiration put a term neonate at risk of

A

persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

247
Q

for wounds is it best to do tension free or with tension

A

tension free

248
Q

dx of a patient with low total Ca but normal ionized Ca

A

pseudohypocalcemia mostly due to low albumin

249
Q

how do you dx appendicitis in pregnant ppl

A

graded compression ultrasonography

250
Q

abdominal compartment syndrome effect on the heart

A

decreased preload because fo compression of the vena cava which restricts blood flow causing decreased preload. There is increased CVP though due to the compression it just cant get to the heart

251
Q

what is the equation for Number needed to treat

A

1/ARR

252
Q

which tay sachs or nieman pick has hepatomegaly

A

nieman pick

253
Q

what disorder does a neonate with e coli sepsis likely have

A

galactosemia

254
Q

signs of benzo overdose

A

normal vitals, ataxia, lethargy, coma, slurred speech

255
Q

meniscal tear vs. mcl tear

A

both have joint line tenderness and delayed effusion but only meniscal tear has clicking

256
Q

what is the child version of a pheo

A

neuroblastoma

257
Q

what shape are calcium oxalate crystals

A

dumbell or envelope rhomboid

258
Q

signs of glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency

A

hepatomegaly, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperuricemia, elevated lactate,

259
Q

which cells make testosterone

A

leydigs

260
Q

what is waldenstrom

A

this is abnormal production of IgM

261
Q

signs of IgM

A

progressive nephropathy, impaired platelet function, hyperviscosity, anemia

262
Q

management of ectopic pregnancy with surgery vs. methotrexate

A

do surgery if the patient is unstable or bhcg is >5000

263
Q

what leads show elevation in LAD infarct

A

I, aVL, V1-V6

264
Q

treatment of lichen sclerosis in the vagina

A

topical steroids

265
Q

if a patient has hepatojugular reflux, is it a heart or a liver issue

A

heart! because there wouldnt be reflux if the right heart could keep pumping

266
Q

signs of alport syndrome

A

cant pee cant see cant hear a bee (kidneys, eyes, ears)

267
Q

treatment of symptomatic pagets

A

IV bisphosphonates

268
Q

do you need to give rhogam in ectopic pregnancies

A

yace

269
Q

when can you administer stimulants for ADHD

A

> 6yo

270
Q

what is transient proteinuria and who gets it

A

this is minimal proteinuria transiently which is seen in kids just do urinalysis 1x ayear

271
Q

what type of intubation do you do if you cannot do endotracheal in an emergency setting

A

cricothyroidotomy

272
Q

what does a positive direct coombs mean

A

Ab against the RBC surface

273
Q

jauncide with a positive coombs test

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

274
Q

hwo do you treat genitourinary schistosomiasis

A

praziquantel

275
Q

treatment of fulminant hepatic failure

A

liver transplantation

276
Q

signs of congenital toxo

A

chorioretinitis, diffuse calcifications, ventriculomegaly

277
Q

what is systemic vascular resistance like in hypovolemic shock

A

high! because the sympathetic sys is telling the body to try to increase blood pressure

278
Q

treatment of vtach

A

amiodarone

279
Q

what is considered prolonged labor in the first stage

A

slow progression with <6cm in dilation

280
Q

whta is considered prolonged second stage of labor

A

> 3 hours in nulliparous or >2 hours in multiparous

281
Q

what causes prolonged labor

A

3 Ps, passenger (too big of head), pelvis (pelvic inadequacy), <200 montevedo units in 10 minutes

282
Q

skin effects of warfarin

A

warfarin induced skin necrosis

283
Q

who gets warfarin skin induced necrosis

A

strongest factor is defiency or protein C

284
Q

signs of amaurosis fugax on fundoscopy

A

bright yellow plaques at bifucation of retinal arterioles, microaneurysms, increased tortuosity of retinal arteries

285
Q

signs of retinal vein occlusion

A

dilated tortuous retinal veins, macular edema, papilledema, retinal hemorrhages

286
Q

what is the cause of abdominal pain in HELLP syndrome

A

stretching of the glisson capsule

287
Q

complication of IgA vasculitis

A

intussusception

288
Q

when do transplanted kidneys get RAS

A

within the first two years

289
Q

timeline for when isoniazid can cause liver injury

A

can cause it months later as it has a variable latent period

290
Q

seminoma elevations

A

bhcg

291
Q

leydigs hormone elevations

A

estrogen or testosterone

292
Q

sertoli hormone elevations

A

estrogen

293
Q

non seminoma germ cell (yolk, embryonal carcinoma, teratoma, chorio)

A

bhcg and AFP

294
Q

complications of pprom

A

placental abruption, preterm labor, intraamniotic infection, cord prolapse

295
Q

what do patients with beta thal need who also get frequent transfusions

A

chelation therapy

296
Q

when do you initiate nutritional support for critically ill patients

A

asap

297
Q

which two foodborne illnesses do you ingest the toxin

A

bacillus cereus and staph aureus

298
Q

does craniopharyngioma or pit ademomas have calcifications

A

cranios

299
Q

von hippel lindau

A

hemangioblastomas, RCC, pheos

300
Q

evaluation of a post menopausal adnexal mass

A

ultrasound and then if no malignant features, do CA-125, if malignant do surgery

301
Q

what does the tinel sign dx

A

tarsal tunnel syndrome

302
Q

when does acute chest syndrome happen like timing wise

A

it happens later down the line like after somethign that triggers it liek infection or vasoocclusive pain crisis

303
Q

common cause of intraventricular hemorrhage in the newborn

A

prematurity, low birth weight

304
Q

treatment of vesicouretal reflex

A

prophylacitic abx in mild-severe cases and surgery in severe reflux

305
Q

drugs to avoid in parkinsons patients

A

first gen antipsychotics, because of their potent dopamine antagonism

306
Q

management of rectus diastasis

A

observation and reassurance

307
Q

what disorder has multiple personality states

A

dissociative identity disorder

308
Q

what is the main feature of depersonalization disorder

A

feelings of detachment from or observing yourself

309
Q

causes of jitteriness in neonates

A

hypoglycemia and hypocalcemia

310
Q

difference in dementia with lewy bodies vs. parkinsons demenita

A

in lewy body disease the dementia occurs at the same time as the parkinsonism and in parkinsons it occurs late in the disease

311
Q

what tumor gives opsoclonus myolconus syndrome

A

neuroblastoma

312
Q

what does each value increased from 1 mean for odds ratio

A

1 = 100% chance increased odds, 2 = 200% chance increase etc.

313
Q

management of sleep terrors

A

reassurance

314
Q

management of drowning

A

if they have problems obviously admit them but if theyre chilling still admit them to observe for ARDS

315
Q

signs of preeclampsia

A

RUQ pain, hyperreflexia, ankle clonus, headache,

316
Q

what does an immature hypothal-pit-ovary axis do to periods

A

it causes irregular and anovulatory bleeding NOT heavy bleeding

317
Q

cause of primary dysmenorrhea

A

increased prostaglandin production

318
Q

what causes hand foot mouth disease

A

coxsackie A

319
Q

description of molluscum contagiosum

A

flesh colored papule with umbilicated center

320
Q

classic findings of sphincter of oddi dysfunction

A

increased pain after opioids due to increased contraction, dilated bile duct without stones

321
Q

where do you see toxo in the brain

A

basal ganglia! multiple lesions

322
Q

who gets erythema nodosum

A

strep, histo, sarcoid, crohns

323
Q

what is polyarteritis nodosa

A

fibrinoid necrosis of the arterial wall with tissue ishcmia

324
Q

clinical features of polyarteritis nodosa

A

fever, weight loss, malaise, livdeo reticularits, ulcers, purpura, headahces, GI ischemia, myalgias, arthritis, neuropathy

325
Q

signs of wernicke encephalopathy

A

encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction, postural and gait ataxia

326
Q

signs of essential tremor

A

bilateral, worsens with stress, improves with alcohol, worsens with

327
Q

treatment of essential tremor

A

propanolol, primidone

328
Q

what is the hawthorne effect

A

this is when people change their actions based on the knowledge that they are being observed

329
Q

what are uterine fibroids made of

A

proliferation of smooth muscle within the myometrium

330
Q

signs of inhalent use

A

loss of consciousness, elevated LFTs, perioral rash

331
Q

cause of hypoxemia in ARDS

A

increased R to L shunting, the blood is not getting oxygenated

332
Q

tinea capitis skin appearance

A

tiny black dots from broken hair shafts and scaly patches, can have boggy scaly pus

333
Q

manifestations of granulomatosis with polyangiits

A

sinusitis, interstitial lung disease, alveolar hemorrhage, glomerulonephritis, ulcers

334
Q

management of placenta previa

A

c section at 36-37 weeks

335
Q

clinical signs of placenta previa

A

sudden painless bright red bleeding

336
Q

clinical signs of placental abruption

A

sudden onset PAINFUL bleeding, tender uterus, fetal distress, hypertonic rigid uterus

337
Q

when do you give tdap in pregnancy

A

27-36 weeks

338
Q

treatment of adjustment disorder

A

pscyotherapy, short term sleep aids, anti anxiety meds etc

339
Q

difference between malingering and factitious disorder

A

in malingering you are doing this for another gain, and in factitious disorder you fake your sx with no gain and to assume sick role

340
Q

somatic sx disorder vs. illness anxiety

A

somatic sx you have multiple physical sx that cause distress and have lots of dx testing, illness anxiety you are anxious about having a specific disease despite absent or mild sx

341
Q

what uterine surgeries cause contraindications for trial of labors

A

prior classical vertical c section, myomectomy with entry to the uterine cavity

342
Q

avoidant personality disorder

A

this is when people avoid situations due to fear of criticism and rejection

343
Q

benzo withdrawal signs

A

seizures, tremors, anxiety, psychosis, diaphoreisis, nausea, vom, HTN

344
Q

normal vaginal pH

A

4-4.5

345
Q

what stage of labor do epidurals effect

A

stage 2 pushing

346
Q

what SSR is used in people with cardiac disease

A

sertraline

347
Q

complications of bicornate uterus

A

preterm labor, infertility, recurrent miscarriage

348
Q

contraception to avoid in the postpartum period

A

estrogen because you are hypercoaguable from the estrogen increase during pregnancy

349
Q

naltrexone vs. buprenophrine

A

naltrexone is a full antagonist vs buprenorphine which is partial agonist

350
Q

treatment of magnesium toxicity

A

calcium gluconate

351
Q

what causes tardive dyskinesia

A

dopamine receptor supersensitivity

352
Q

what happens with constant stimulation vs. blockade of a receptor

A

it downregulates in stimulation and upregulates with blockade

353
Q

most common cause of lobar intracranial hemorrhage

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy

354
Q

causes of SIADH

A

small cell lung cancer, pulmonary infections, head trauma, etc.

355
Q

what drug is contraindicated in post partum hemorrhage for pts with asthma

A

carboprost tromethamine

356
Q

what drug is contraindicated in post partum hemorrhage for pts with HTN

A

methylergonovine (methergine)

357
Q

complications of rapid deceleration from falls or motor vehicle collisions

A

blunt thoracic aortic injury, hypotension, cool extremities, tachy, hemothorax, widened mediastinum

358
Q

signs of measles

A

4Cs cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, koplik spots, high fever

359
Q

signs of rubella

A

cephalocaudal spread of maculopapular rash fever

360
Q

indications for removal of endometrial polyps

A

postmenopausal, premenopausal with: abnormal bleeding, infertility, lynch syndrome, obesity

361
Q

do you give anticoagulation in the setting of stroke

A

NO you give antiplatelet therapy instead

362
Q

what is the argyll robertson pupil

A

when pupils are miotic and irregular and do not accomodate to light but have normal

363
Q

what is histrionic personality disorder

A

excessive emotionality, attention seeking behavior, inappropriate sexual remarks, highly involved in relationships and thinking they are more intimate than they really are

364
Q

narcissistic PD signs

A

lack of empathy, interpersonal exploitation, NO EMOTIONAL DISPLAYS (thats histrionic)

365
Q

stevens johnson syndrome vs. staphylococcal scalded skin

A

SJS is blistering of the skin due to medications and is in adults +Mucus membranes involved vs SSSS which is due to staph aureus and has NO MUCUS membranes and is IN CHILDREN

366
Q

difference between 5 alpha and androgen insensitivity syndrome presentation

A

5alpha has no breast development because there is no estrogen vs. androgen insensitivity HAS breasts because the excess androgens get converted to estrogen via adipose tissue

367
Q

clincial signs of wiscott aldrich syndrome

A

eczema, thrombocytopenia, infections with encapsulated bugs

368
Q

pathophys of TACO

A

this is when you get transfusion overload due to accumulation of fluid within a couple hours, not immunologically related

369
Q

what does HSV encephalitis look like on MRI

A

uni or bilateral hyperintensity in the temporal lobe

370
Q

dx of vertebral osteomyelitis

A

MRI

371
Q

do you give fluids to someone who is hemodynamically stable and has hx of heart failure and is admitted for some sort of infectino

A

no!

372
Q

contraindications to NO administration

A

right ventricle MI, recent PDE-5 use

373
Q

whats a positive PPD in HIV patients

A

5 or greater

374
Q

when to use chi squared tests

A

when comparing means of things or categoral values

375
Q

signs of necrotizing faciitis on the skin

A

hemorrhagic bullae, crepitus

376
Q

what occurs after a miscarriage, hyaditiform mole or chorioCA

A

chorioCA

377
Q

signs of juvenile spinal muscular atrophy

A

degeneration of motor neurons, scoliosis, hypotonia, areflexia, autosomal recessive

378
Q

signs of duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

calf pseudohypertrophy, proximal muscular weakness, gower sign

379
Q

what is a pterygium

A

this is a winged like overgrowth of the conjuctival tissue tha tcan sometimes cover the iris, wear sunglasses and lubricate the eye

380
Q

uremia manifestations

A

pericarditis, uremic encephalopathy

381
Q

does myeloma cause hematuria

A

no, just proteinuria

382
Q

ketorlac administration method

A

injection, not good for outpatient managment

383
Q

ecg changes in cardiac tampenode

A

this is just electrical alternans

384
Q

fev1:FVC ratio and peak expiratory flow rate in asthma

A

both decreased

385
Q

when to test for hemophelia in newborns

A

immediately test the cord blood

386
Q

protective factors of ovarian cancer

A

things that decrease the number of ovulatory cycles such as OCP use

387
Q

signs of graves opthalmology

A

prominant appearing eyes, bilateral scleral injetion, limited upward gaze, and diplopia

388
Q

what is the length bias

A

this is when you have bias in a study that occurs when the disease is going to take a long time to show up so you make the analysis that the intervention isnt doing much

389
Q

management of empyema

A

chest tube

390
Q

onset of exposure to UV rays to cancer

A

decades

391
Q

signs of cutaneous leishmaniasis

A

slow heaing lesion with ulceration and edema

392
Q

what arrythmia is typically provoked by caffeine, stress, alcohol etc in a structurally normal heart

A

av node reentry tachycardia (AVNRT)

393
Q

valsalva effect on afterload

A

this decreases after load because it decreases venous return which decreases CO and decreases blood pressure

394
Q

complications of inserting central venous catheter

A

collapsed lung, air embolism

395
Q

management of suspected air embolism

A

place patient in lateral decubitus position, and in trendelenburg

396
Q

treatment of whipple disease

A

ceftriaxone followed by TMP-SMX

397
Q

epidemiology of zenker diverticulum

A

older male patients, likely achalasia in a younger person

398
Q

is the bili direct or indirect in breastfeeding jaundice

A

indirect because there is not enough of the enzyme

399
Q

predominance of conjugated (direct) bili in a newborn with jaundice

A

biliary atresia

400
Q

management of the thyrotoxic phase of subacute thyroiditis

A

beta blockers, NO ANTI THYROID DRUGS

401
Q

management of breast mass concerning for malignancy on physical

A

> 35yrs, mammography and biopsy // <35yrs ultrasound

402
Q

what drugs allow for positive inotropic support in cardiogenic shock

A

dopamine, dobutamine, norepi

403
Q

odds ratio or relative risk for case/control studies

A

odds ratio (odds of developing X with exposure)

404
Q

when do we use relative risk

A

cohort study looking at people with exposure and seeing the risk of developing X

405
Q

what is the equation for positive predictive value

A

True positives/ (TP + FP)

406
Q

is sensitivity/specificity affected by disease prevalence in the pop or is PPV/NPV

A

PPV and NPV are affected by prevalence

407
Q

what type of bias is it when you do statistical analysis after the data is seen and collected ie. when you see the outcome and then tweak the analysis

A

post hoc analysis

408
Q

first step in suspected placenta previa

A

pelvic ultrasound then c section

409
Q

when do patients who underwent splenectomy need abx prophylaxis

A

ONLY for procedures involving respirtory track

410
Q

SCID b/t cell levels

A

both are low

411
Q

digeorge b and t cell levels

A

only T cells are low

412
Q

signs of medication overuse headache

A

taking medications at minimum every other day who experiences headaches everyother day

413
Q

what is a hyphema

A

this si when you get blood in the anterior chamber of the eye due to damange to the vasculature of the iri, ciliary body, etc.

414
Q

what is felty syndrome

A

fevers, neutorpenia, splenomegaly, and pleuritic chest pain in a person with RA

415
Q

when to give the tdap vax during pregnancy

A

27-36 weeks EVERY pregnancy

416
Q

screening of type 1 diabetics

A

lipids, kidney #s, eye exam, monofilament testing, foot exam, blood pressuer

417
Q

timeline criteria for dx panic disorder

A

sx >1month

418
Q

signs of gas bloat

A

upper abdominal bloating after eating, discomfort, feeling of food getting stuck

419
Q

complication of umbilical artery catheterization

A

renal artery thrombosis

420
Q

first line management of prolactinoma

A

bromocriptine, if fails then can go to surgery

421
Q

does VSD cause cyanosis

A

NO

422
Q

cyanosis in a child that worsens with exertion/crying

A

tetrology of fallot

423
Q

principles to medication prescribing in elderly patients

A

limiting # prescribers, BEERS criteria, time to benefit of the drug, tailor regimine to life expectancy, frequently assess needs of prescriptions

424
Q

when is a relative risk and odds ratio considered statistically significant

A

if the confidence interval does not contain 1

425
Q

what is the complement of specificity

A

the false positive rate which is 1-specificity

426
Q

what is best way to reduce sign out errors

A

using a standard template when conducting sign out

427
Q

what are the best things in engineering strategies to reduce human errors

A

forcing functions, computerized automation, environmental design

428
Q

what is a cluster study design

A

grouping data points with simular categories, involves randomization at the level of groups

429
Q

what is a factorial design

A

this is when there are differentent interventions and there are multiple end points

430
Q

saline use in right vs. left MI

A

use saline in Right MI to avoid low preload and avoid in left MI to avoid fluid overload

431
Q

signs of acute heart failure in the setting of MI

A

basilar crackles halfway up lung fields, low O2, S3

432
Q

signs of vasovagal syncope

A

brief LOC, vagal prodrome (diaphoresis, warmth), enciting factor like emotional stress or prolonged standing

433
Q

sudden onset acute limb ischemia etiology

A

embolism or trauma

434
Q

what heart defect is necessary to maintain oxygenation in tricuspid atresia

A

VSD

435
Q

what does amyloidosis do to the heart

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

436
Q

noninfectoius thrombotic endocarditis

A

hypercoaguable states, noninfectious thrombi on a healthy valve

437
Q

what heart valve is affected in ankylosing spondylitis

A

aortic valve (regurg)

438
Q

what are the 6Ps of acute limb ischemia

A

pain, pallor, poikilothermia, paralysis, pulselessness, paresthesia

439
Q

management of suspected acute limb ischemia

A

heparin

440
Q

meds for acute coronary syndrome

A

nitrate, beta blocker, antiplatelet (aspirin and clopidegrel), anticoag, statin

441
Q

when do you not give a beta blocker for ACS

A

hypotension or acute heart failure

442
Q

treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in an infant of diabetic mother

A

beta blockers and fluids

443
Q

what does inspiration do to preload

A

increases preload because it increases pressure to the venous system

444
Q

cardiovascular complications of turner syndrome

A

coarc, bicuspid valve, aortic dilatation/dissection, metabolic syndrome

445
Q

in the setting of possible ACS what do you give regardless of etiology of chest pain

A

you give aspirin

446
Q

management of pulseless electrical activity

A

NO SHOCK, you just do CPR and treat the cause of the arrythmia

447
Q

what rhythms are shockeable

A

ventricular fibrillation, pulseless ventricular tachycardia

448
Q

what are the nonshockeable rhythms

A

pulseless electrical activity, asystole

449
Q

characteristic murmur of tetrology of fallot

A

Left upper sternal border due to RVOT obstruction

450
Q

what type of PFT pattern is seen in sarcoid

A

this is a restrictive pattern

451
Q

restricive FEV1, Total lung, DLCO

A

FEV1 is normal or decreased, TLC is decreased, DLCO is decreased

452
Q

treatment of toxic megacolon

A

IV steroids

453
Q

congential cmv signs

A

calcifications mainly in the periventricules, chorio, sensorineuronal hearing loss, microcephaly

454
Q

common sign of cryptococcal meningitis

A

increased ICP

455
Q

signs of toxo

A

focal neurological signs, seizures, confusion, headaches

456
Q

meningitis skin findings (by pathogen)

A

viral: maculopapular rash // neisseria meningitidis: petichiae // cryptococcall: umbilicated papules

457
Q

management of unstable angina

A

same as STEMI, nitrates, beta blocker, antiplatelet, anticoag, statin, corinary reperfusion

458
Q

what is bicarb like in anion gap acidosis

A

high gap means low bicarb

459
Q

treatment of high altitude sickness

A

supplemental O2, acetazolamide, dexamethasone

460
Q

screening age for low dose ct vs. AAA ultrasound

A

low dose CT is yearly at 50 and ultrasound is one time at 65

461
Q

signs of hyperkalemia on EKG

A

peaked T waves, widened QRS with low amplitude which causes a sine wave pattern

462
Q

when do you get low aldosterone in adrenal insufficiency

A

ONLY when its primary adrenal insufficiency so like in addisons

463
Q

what are the main nerve roots in knee and achilles reflex

A

knee: L4 achilles: S1

464
Q

what are the ulcerations like in bacterial vs. herpes vs. fungal keratitis

A

bacterial is a central round ulcer // herpes is branched keratitis // fungal is feather margins with satellite lesions

465
Q

what is the formula for number needed to harm

A

1/ARI (absolute risk increase)

466
Q

aldosterone in primary vs. secondary adrenal insufficiency

A

primary it is decreased but in secondary its normal

467
Q

management of a myasthenic crisis

A

intubation –> plasmapheresis or IVIG with steroids

468
Q

what is selection bias

A

this is when the sample group is not representative of the population from which the participants are drawn because the sampling or treatment allocation is not random

469
Q

what is susceptibility bias

A

one disease predisposes affected individuals to another disease and the treatment for the first disease is mistakenly interpreted sa a predisposing factor for the second disease

470
Q

what is measurement bias

A

poor data collection methods with inaccurate results

471
Q

signs of physiologic tremor

A

tremor that worsens with stress and can be seen at rest and during action

472
Q

what does a succession splash mean

A

gastric outlet obstruction

473
Q

what is an afferent pupillary defect

A

this is when the eye cannot react to light but can accomodate. the direct pupillary reflex is absent in affected eye but DOES accomodate when light is shone in the non affected eye. there is NO consensual response in the non affected eye

474
Q

risk factors for sigmoid volvulus

A

chronic constipation and colonic dysmotility.

475
Q

effect of tamoxifen on the uterus

A

agonist affect

476
Q

adverse effects of tamoxifen

A

hot flashes, endometrial hyperplasia, VTE, uterine sarcom

477
Q

timing of worsening symptoms for different types of strokes

A

embolic is worst at onset, thrombotic is fluctuating, and hemorrhagic is progressively worse and worse

478
Q

signs of stroke in the putamen

A

strokes in the putamen almost always involve the internal capsule so you will get contralateral hemiparesis and contralateral sensory loss

479
Q

do you have focal neuro signs in subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

no!

480
Q

who gets optic gliomas

A

NF1

481
Q

genetic syndromes with pheo

A

VHL, MEN2

482
Q

what is associated with wilms tumor

A

WAGR, beckwith wiedman syndrome

483
Q

next step in management of person with anorectal fistula

A

surgery with fistulagram to evaluate tracks

484
Q

causes of asymmetric fetal growth

A

maternal hyptertension, maternal malnourishment

485
Q

causes of symmetric fetal growth restriction

A

chromosomal abnormalities, infections

486
Q

management of superficial wound dehiscence vs. rectus dehiscence

A

superficial: regular dresssing changes // rectus: urgent surgery

487
Q

lab abnormalities in DIC

A

high PT and PTT, low platelets, low fibrinogen (because it is being used up)

488
Q

what type of cholecystitis do pts. get that are critically ill

A

acalculous cholecystiits, can happen with TPN

489
Q

what is RBC mass

A

total # of red blood cells in circulation NOT the mass of the individual RBC

490
Q

which thalassemia has HIGH HbA2

A

beta thal

491
Q

what does it mean if the patient has no bleeding with progesterone challenge test

A

there is a structural issue or there is estrogen deficiency

492
Q

what antibodies are seen in UC vs. Crohns

A

UC: p-ANCA // Crohns: anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies

493
Q

whats the leading cause of death for adults over 65yrs

A

cardiovascular disease

494
Q

management of distal biceps tendon rupture

A

surgical repair within 2-3 weeks

495
Q

adverse effects of nitrates

A

hypotension, headaches, flushing, cyanide toxicity

496
Q

what is bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

this is premature arrest of pulmonary development, continued 02 requirement >28 days from birth

497
Q

common presentation of chronic bacterial prostatitis

A

recurrent UTI, pain with ejaculation, transient improvement with ABX, typically no swelling or tenderness of prostate

498
Q

signs of ecthyma gangrenosum

A

painless red macules that quickly progress to pustules and form gangrenous punched out ulcers

499
Q

what is the threshold in which you can visualize a pregnancy

A

> 3500 bhcg

500
Q

when do you do ABX for mammalian bites

A

if its a puncture wound, if its on the face, hand/foot, joint or genitals, immunocompromised pts, if they need primary closure

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