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Gaby’s PassMRCOG repeats > December > Flashcards

December Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first line treatment for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

A

Propylthiouracil as it crosses the placenta less readily than carbimazole

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2
Q

What is the risk of PPH in deliveries complicated by shoulder dystocia?

A

10%

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3
Q

How should low mood be treated in patients taking Tamoxifen?

A

CBT
avoid SSRIs, St John’s Wort & soy isofavones

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4
Q

Compression of which nerve commonly results in foot drop?

A

Common peroneal nerve
Often from lithotomy position

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5
Q

What is the impact on VTE risk of taking COCPs containing levonorgestrel?

A

3 times
2:10,000 to 5-7:10,000

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6
Q

What is the suture absorption time of monocryl?

A

90-120 days

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7
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug has levels lowered by estrogen- containing contraception?

A

Lamotrigine

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8
Q

Spinal cord lesions at which level are associated with autonomic dysreflexia?

A

T6

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9
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to ECV?

A

Multiple pregnancy
Abnormal CTG
Ruptured membranes
CS needed for other reasons
Hemorrhage in last 7 days
Uterine anomaly

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10
Q

What are the reintervention rates for uterine artery embolisation?

A

1:3 within 5 years

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11
Q

How are patients with thaassamia managed for VTE rik in pregnancy?

A

Splenectpmy OR platelets >600: aspirin
“. AND. “. : aspirin + LMWH

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12
Q

What is the incidence of IBS in women in the UK?

A

10-15%

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13
Q

COCP containing which progestogens have the lowest VTE risk?

A

1st & 2nd generation eg norethisterone, levonorgestrel

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14
Q

What is the risk of needing a CS hysterectomy for placenta praevia?

A

11%

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15
Q

In suspected PE, how do CXR findings impact on imaging modality?

A

Normal CXR: V/Q
Abnormal CXR: CTPA

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16
Q

What percentage of UK obstetric admissions are complicated by AKI?

A

1.5%

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17
Q

What natural menopause remedy is banned in the UK due to causing liver damage?

A

Kava kava

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18
Q

Women with which conditions should be referred to hematologists for antenatal VTE decisions?

A

Asymptomatic antithrombin, protein C or protein S deficiency
More than 1 thrombophilic defect out of: homozygous factor V Leiden, homozygous prothrombin gene mutation, compound heterozygotes

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19
Q

What is the student’s t-test used for?

A

Comparing 2 sample means,
Assuming normal distribution

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20
Q

What is the chi squared test used for?

A

Nonparametric test
Comparing numerical or categorical data sets

21
Q

What is the ANOVA test used for?

A

Comparing multiple population means

22
Q

With tubal ectopics, what is the MSD cut-off for expectant management?

A

30mm

23
Q

What is the management for ultrasound finding of cervical length <25mm without hx of PTB or mid-trimester loss?

A

Prophylactic vaginal progesterone

24
Q

What is the risk of placenta praevia after 1 previous?

A

23:1000

25
Q

How does 1 shoulder dystocia affect the rate of future shoulder dystocia?

A

10 x general population

26
Q

What is the risk of requiring further treatment after a salpingotomy?

A

1:5

27
Q

What are the risk factors for endometrial polyps?

A

Increasing age
HRT
Tamoxifen

28
Q

What is the management for stage 1a vaginal cancer?

A

Wide local excision only

29
Q

What is the incidence of 3rd & 4th degree tears in instrumental births?

A

Forceps no epis: 22.7%
Forceps with epis: 6%
Ventouse no epis: 6%
Ventouse with epis: 2%

30
Q

What is the risk of serious harmorrhage with abdominal hysterectomy?

A

23:1000

31
Q

What are the RCOG risk categories?

A

1:1 - 1:10 Very common
1:10 - 1:100 Common
1:100 - 1:1000 Uncommon
1:1000 - 1:10,000 Rare
< 1:10,000 Very rare

32
Q

What are the risks with CF in pregnancy?

A
  1. Prematurity rate 25%
  2. Spontaneous preterm labour
  3. Diabetes
  4. Stillbirth (live birth rates 70-90%)
33
Q

Define relative risk!

A

Rate of disease in exposed group divided by rate of disease in unexposed group, aka risk ratio

34
Q

Define odds ratio!

A

Relative measure of effect, comparing exposed group to control group
Odds in exposed group divided by odds in control group

35
Q

What is the management of asymptomatic placenta praevia confirmed at 32/40?

A

Course of corticosteroids 34/40-35+6

36
Q

What is the 1st line Mx of PMS?

A
  1. Exercise
  2. CBT
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. COCP new generation
  5. Low dose SSRI, continuous or literal phase
37
Q

What is the rate of bowel obstruction following radiotherapy for cervical cancer?

A

10-15%

38
Q

What is the NNT for elective Caesareans & faecal incontinence?

A

90-170

39
Q

What is the NNT for breech ElCS for any adverse outcome vs vaginal breech?

A

16-35

40
Q

What is the NNT for ElCS vs Fati al bote for perinatal death?

A

170-440

41
Q

What is the rate of conversion to open procedure for transabdominal cerclage?

A

10%

42
Q

What is the order of ligament division in vaginal hysterectomy?

A
  1. Uterosacrals
  2. Cardinals
  3. Broads
  4. Rounds
43
Q

Tumour markers!!!

A

Make mnemonics

44
Q

What is a common nerve injury in traumatic births, leading to sensory loss anterior thigh & knee, quadriceps weakness & loss of knee jerk?

A

Femoral nerve

45
Q

What is the risk of ureteric injury in laparoscopic resection of severe endometriosis with hydronephrosis?

A

20%

46
Q

Following intrauterine death of 1 morochorionic twin, what is the risk of a) death & b) neurological abnormality in the 2nd twin?

A

a) 15%
b) 25%

47
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with necrotising fasciitis?

A

20-40%

48
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated malaria in pregnancy for plasmodium vivax, ovale & malariae?

A
  1. Admit
  2. PO chloroquine
  3. 600mg loading dose then 300mg 6-8 hours later, daily for 3 days then weekly
49
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated malaria in pregnancy with plasmodium falciparum?

A
  1. Admit
  2. Oral quinine 600mg 8-hourly
  3. Oral clindamycin 450mg 8-hourly
  4. For 7 days

Gaby’s PassMRCOG repeats (17 decks)

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