day 5 - Practical Blood Transfusion Flashcards

1
Q

how is blood collected / stored

A

Blood is collected in CPDA-1 (citrate phosphate dextrose and adenine), an anticoagulant preservative that allows storage of red cells for up to 35 days at 4-6°C. Generally, 450 ml of blood are collected in 63 ml CPDA-1. All blood in the UK is now leucodepleted shortly after donation in the unproved belief that this may reduce the transmission of new variant CJD.
1 UNIT = WHOLE BLOOD OR COMPONENTS DERIVED FROM ONE SINGLE BLOOD DONATION

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2
Q

when is whole blood useful

A

Whole Blood: Not a good term - as blood has preservative and anticoagulant added, and is deficient in labile clotting factors and functional granulocytes and platelets. It is not therefore identical to blood that is lost through haemorrhage.

Whole blood is useful in cases of acute massive blood loss - in other cases it is wasteful (massive = > 1 blood volume loss).

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3
Q

what are you giving when you give red cells

A

Red cells suspended in an optimum additive solution: SAG-M in the UK (saline adenine glucose and mannitol). Most of the plasma is replaced by SAG-M. This is the most commonly used red cell component. There are no contraindications for use except for exchange transfusions of large volume in infants.

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4
Q

what are washed red cells and when are they used

A

Washed red cells: Red cells are frozen using glycerol as cryopreservative; shelf life 10 years. Thawing must be followed by extensive washing with saline to remove the glycerol. Once thawed the shelf life is 24 hours. Freezing of cells of rare groups enables long-term storage to provide blood for patients with antibodies to high frequency antigens, and for those with multiple antibodies.

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5
Q

what forms are platelets available in

A

Platelet concentrates: Available in two forms.
Pooled platelets - platelets from several donations (4-5) pooled to constitute a single dose.

Apheresis (cell separator) platelets - from a single donor equivalent to 5 - 6 single donations of platelets.
Usually contain 2.5-4.0 x 1011 platelets per adult dose.

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6
Q

indications for platelet transfusions

A

Indications:
a) Prophylactic:
Prophylaxis due to thrombocytopenia or defective platelet function.
In prophylaxis bleeding becomes likely when platelet count is less than 10 x 109/L, but can occur at higher levels when there is fever, infection, platelet dysfunction (e.g. post
cardiac bypass).
Thrombocytopenia with decreased platelet production especially where intensive support needed e.g. chemotherapy, bone marrow transplant, aplastic anaemia.

b) Therapeutic: for treatment of bleeding due to thrombocytopenia.
Massive blood transfusion (dilutional thrombocytopenia)
Platelet dysfunction (cardiac bypass, aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) Autoimmune thrombocytopenias (AITP): platelet transfusions not indicated because there is rapid destruction of all platelets by the autoantibody. In this disease, platelets are indicated only if there is danger of serious bleeding.

Important to monitor clinical response (not just rise in platelet count). Requirements increase if platelet antibodies are present and if there is excess consumption e.g. in hypersplenism, fever, DIC.

Dose: Standard adult dose = 2.5 - 3.0 x 1011 platelets (0.6 x 1011 platelets per 10kg wt). Ideally of the same ABO and Rh group as the recipient (platelets carry some
ABO antigens).

Recovery in recipient is approximately 60-70% of the administered dose (more if splenectomised). 90% disappear by 7 days.

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7
Q

what are plasma products

A

Plasma products: clotting factors/albumin/immunoglobulins.

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8
Q

Tests undertaken on blood donations

A

Tests undertaken on blood donations
Blood grouping: every blood donation has the ABO and RhD blood group determined.

Additionally, the other Rh blood groups, namely, C, c, E, e and the K blood group are determined on most donations in the UK.
The following microbiological tests are mandatory in the UK: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), anti-HIV1 and 2, anti-HCV , HTLVI and syphilis antibody. Selected units are tested for antibodies to CMV, malaria and T. cruzi (Chagas’ disease).

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9
Q

ABO system

A

The ABO system is important because of the universal presence of naturally occurring antibodies that are IgM, reactive at 37°C and capable of activating complement. They are, therefore, able to cause intravascular haemolysis if incompatible blood is transfused, i.e.

Blood group O subjects - possess anti-A and anti-B
Blood group A subjects - possess circulating anti-B
Blood group B subjects - possess circulating anti-A
Blood group AB subjects - possess neither anti-A nor anti-B

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10
Q

the Rh system

A

In the Rh system, the most important antigen is D, because of its high immunogenicity.

D positive = RhD positive = Rh positive
D negative = RhD negative = Rh negative

In UK 85% of population are D positive (homozygous or heterozygous) and 15% are D negative, therefore, it is relatively common for a D negative woman to become sensitised through pregnancy, as her partner is likely to be D positive (feto-maternal leakage of red cells across the placenta occurs commonly at the time of delivery, but may also occur during late pregnancy).

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11
Q

what happens in blood grouping

A

Red cells are grouped for ABO and D by taking washed red cells, incubating with antibodies of known specificity, and observing for agglutination.

  • This involves separating the recipient sample into cells (rbc) and plasma (containing the antibodies.)
  • The cells are then tested against known antibodies (monoclonal) – forward group
  • The plasma is then tested against known ABO and Rh cells for the ABO group – reverse group
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12
Q

what is a cross match?

A

Compatibility test between donor red cells and recipient serum = cross-match

Red cells from the blood donations selected for transfusion and patient’s serum are incubated and then tested using the antiglobulin technique. The cross-match is performed only on those serum samples from patients with a high probability of needing transfusion in surgical procedures (e.g. hip replacements) and for all non-surgical patients for whom transfusion is actually prescribed as therapy (e.g. thalassaemia major; acute haemorrhage). Unimmunised patients who are admitted for surgical procedures not associated with large blood losses (e.g. cholecystectomy) do not need cross-matched blood prior to surgery and a group and screen will suffice. If, unexpectedly and exceptionally, they require blood during surgery, a rapid cross-match can be performed, or blood of the same ABO and Rh can be issued while the cross-match is being performed.

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13
Q

whats an anti globulin test

A

Antiglobulin test (Coombs’ test)

\a. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT or direct Coombs’ test) - this test will demonstrate incomplete IgG antibodies bound to red cells but not causing agglutination. Anti-human globulin reagent is added directly to well washed red cells. If any IgG is bound to rbc (e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, mild haemolytic transfusion reaction, haemolytic disease of the newborn) then the added antiglobulin reagent causes agglutination of the IgG coated cells.

b. Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) - is used to detect IgG antibodies free in the patient’s serum. The serum is first incubated with test red cells so that any IgG red cell antibody in the serum will bind to the test cells. The red cells are thoroughly washed to remove all the patient’s serum (including all serum IgG) and then the antiglobulin reagent is added. Agglutination will result if the test red cells bear the corresponding antigen, thus indicating that incomplete immune antibodies are present in the patient’s serum.

The crossmatch is generally an IAT between patient’s serum and donors’ red cells.
Direct antiglobulin test - detects antibody bound to patient’s red cells Indirect antiglobulin test - for antibody free in the patient’s serum

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14
Q

what does rhesus positive mean

A

Rhesus positive is equivalent to D positive and rhesus negative to D negative. In the UK 85% of the population are Rh D positive and 15% are Rh D negative. A D negative woman sensitised through pregnancy by a D positive partner will make anti-D antibodies. These do not usually cause a problem for her first Rh D positive pregnancy but any subsequent Rh D positive pregnancies run the risk of developing rhesus haemolytic disease of the newborn. Without prophylaxis, a second pregnancy has a 20% chance of fetal loss and with subsequent pregnancies the risk rises to 40%.

• Two genes for RhD groups:
– D - codes for D antigen on RBC and is dominant
– d - codes for no antigen and is recessive
• Therefore dd = no D antigen = RhD negative
DD or Dd = D antigen present = RhD positive

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15
Q

what are Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR)

A

Immediate intravascular haemolysis:
This is caused mainly by incorrect identification of the recipient, and is usually due to ABO incompatibility. The antibody immediately binds to the incompatible donor’s red cells and activates the full complement cascade leading to haemolysis. Important signs in the unconscious patient are hypotension and uncontrollable bleeding. In the conscious patient, the transfusion of even a few ml of ABO incompatible blood may cause symptoms within 1-2 min. Restlessness, a feeling of oppression, substernal pain, vomiting, abdominal or flank pain and facial flushing are common. Haemoglobinuria or haemoglobinaemia occurring during the transfusion indicate acute haemolysis. Infusion of bacterially contaminated blood has similar effects and should be excluded.

The main purpose of keeping an i.v. infusion of crystalloid solution is to prevent hypotension and to maintain the urinary output to prevent renal failure.
If DIC develops, appropriate treatment should be given.

Immediate extravascular haemolysis:

HTR may also be caused by other clinically significant antibodies in the recipient’s blood, e.g. anti-RhD, -E, -c and anti-K. However, these antibodies do not activate complement at all, or if they do, it is only up to C3 and the reactions are usually much milder. Fever and jaundice are common and haemoglobinuria may sometimes develop due to severe extravascular haemolysis.

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16
Q

Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions

A

Patients who have previously been pregnant or transfused (i.e immunised against foreign white cells) may have potent anti-leucocyte antibodies and the transfusion of blood derivatives containing white cells of another HLA type may provoke severe reactions. The most common feature is fever, with rigors, 30-60 minutes after commencing transfusion. Mild reactions can be dealt with by slowing the infusion and giving antipyretics (e.g. paracetamol). Severe reactions may require the unit from that particular donor to be abandoned and pethidine administration. The recipient’s blood may be tested for anti-HLA antibodies.

17
Q

Allergic reactions to transfusions: from urticaria to anaphylaxis

A

The commonest adverse reaction to plasma is urticaria, presumably caused by a reaction between a foreign protein (e.g. from pollen or milk) present in the donor’s plasma and the corresponding IgE antibody in the recipient. Urticaria is usually mild, but if severe may be treated by slowing the transfusion and giving an antihistamine. Urticaria is not a reason for discontinuing transfusion.

Rarely, severe anaphylactic reactions occur during or after transfusion and they are characterised by sudden hypertension, followed by profound hypotension, substernal pain, dyspnoea, wheezing and gastrointestinal symptoms including abdominal cramps with no fever. These reactions are usually caused by IgA in the donor’s plasma reacting with anti-IgA in a recipient who is IgA deficient and may be fatal. Prompt treatment is required; the transfusion discontinued and adrenaline 0.5-1.0 mg i.m. and hydrocortisone 100-200 mg i.v. given.

18
Q

Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)

A

If the donor’s plasma contains potent leucoagglutinins incompatible with the recipient’s granulocytes, transfusion may cause a severe reaction characterised by chills, fever, a non-productive cough and dyspnoea with congestive cardiac failure. TRALI is uncommon. Acute cardiopulmonary dysfunction during transfusion is more commonly due to volume overload.

19
Q

Non-immunological acute adverse effects of transfusion

A

Bacterial complications of transfusion
Haemoglobinaemia or haemoglobinuria

Hypothermia - usually due to rapid infusion of cold blood to infants or to adults receiving massive transfusions.

Hypocalcaemia and hyperkalaemia occur only rarely after rapidly given massive transfusions, especially to newborn infants.

Air embolism is rare.

20
Q

Delayed Adverse Effects of Transfusion

A

Delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR)

Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD): GVHD occurs in immuno-compromised patients due to viable lymphocytes in transfused blood

Immunosuppressive or immunomodulatory effects

Iron overload: A problem in chronically transfused patients e.g. thalassaemia and aplastic anaemia.

Infectious complications of blood transfusion:

HIV Infection, Hepatitis B and other infective agents.
Prion Proteins: here is no evidence yet that CJD or variant CJD can be transmitted by the transfusion of blood or blood products. However there are concerns over vCJD.

21
Q

causes of Acquired Haemolytic Anaemia

A

Immune - Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA)

Drug induced immune

Isoimmune - Haemolytic transfusion reactions

Red cell fragmentation syndrome e.g. Heart valves,

Hypersplenism from any cause

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) (rare)Acquired membrane defect.

Secondary
• Renal disease (burr cells)
• Liver disease (acanthocytes, target cells)

Miscellaneous
• Drugs: dapsone, phenacetin
• Infections: clostridia, bartonella
• Toxins: snake bites, burns

22
Q

aplastic anaemia

A

Aplastic anemia (AA) is a disease in which the bone marrow, and the blood stem cells that reside there, are damaged.[1] This causes a deficiency of all three blood cell types (pancytopenia): red blood cells (anemia), white blood cells (leukopenia), and platelets (thrombocytopenia).[2][3] Aplastic refers to inability of the stem cells to generate the mature blood cells.

23
Q

Management and Investigation of a Suspected Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction

A

In the acute situation, you should stop the transfusion immediately and put up some normal saline to maintain access, intravascular volume, and urinary output. General resuscitation measures apply and the patient’s condition should be monitored closely, including pulse, BP, temperature and urinary output.

Contact the Duty Haematologist and arrange to send the unit of blood back to the Transfusion Laboratory, together with blood for the following tests:

Haematology – FBC
Coagulation Screen
Repeat ABO and Rhesus blood group
Coombs’ (antiglobulin) test, direct and indirect
Clinical Chemistry - Urea & Electrolytes, Creatinine, Liver function tests

An important differential of an acutely ill patient is bacterial sepsis. Send a sample of blood to Microbiology.

In delayed transfusion reactions, patients will typically present with tiredness, symptoms of anaemia and mild jaundice. The above blood tests are also relevant, especially the Coombs’ test. Additional tests will usually be required to identify the antibody.

24
Q

what is the universal donor

A

type O, has no antigens

25
Q

what is the universal acceptor

A

type AB, has no ABO antibodies

26
Q

what is HDN = haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
  • if RhD neg mother has anti-D - and in next pregnancy, fetus is RhD pos - mother’s IgG anti-D antibodies can cross placenta - causes haemolysis of fetal red cells - if severe: hydrops fetalis; death
27
Q

what is the Direct antiglobulin test

A

• To detect the cause of haemolytic anaemia, to investigate a transfusion reaction, and to diagnose haemolytic disease of the newborn.
• Also known as Coombs test or DAT.
• Looks for antibodies already stuck on the cells of the
patient in vivo.

add anti-globulins to patients blood sample and if the RBC has Ig attached then they will agglutinate

28
Q

what is the Indirect antiglobulin test

A
  • To detect antibodies directed against red blood cell antigens, in preparation for a blood transfusion, or during pregnancy and at delivery.
  • Looks for antibodies against foreign red cell antigens in the patient’s serum.

add patient serum to test RBCs, if the serum has antibodies in it that bind to the RBC then when you add the anti-globulin this will cause the RBC to agglutinate as the pt serum Ig will have bound to them .

29
Q

hoe does urgency affect how you get hold of blood for transfusion

A

There are choices you can make depending on how long you can wait. You should wait as long as is safe but no longer:
• Flying squad Orr: in certain sites within the hospital
• Group specific i.e. no antibody screen or cross match
• Cross match
This should be done with discussion with the haematologist on call (the doctor) as well as blood bank (the biomedical scientist).

30
Q

what does SHOT stand for?

A

serious hazards of transfusion. the United Kingdom’s independent, professionally-led haemovigilance scheme.
If you need to report a transfusion reaction or adverse event

31
Q

haemophilia

A

Haemophilia is a group of hereditary genetic disorders that impair the body’s ability to control blood clotting or coagulation, which is used to stop bleeding when a blood vessel is broken. Haemophilia A (clotting factor VIII deficiency) is the most common form of the disorder, present in about 1 in 5,000–10,000 male births.[2] Haemophilia B (factor IX deficiency) occurs in around 1 in about 20,000–34,000 male births.

Like most recessive sex-linked, X chromosome disorders, haemophilia is more likely to occur in males than females

32
Q

what are helmet cells.

A

There are numerous fragmented RBC’s seen here. Some of the irregular shapes appear as “helmet” cells. Such fragmented RBC’s are known as “schistocytes” and they are indicative of a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) or other cause for intravascular hemolysis.

33
Q

Red Cell Triggers for transfusion

A

RBC transfusion not indicated when Hb>100g/L
Hb < 70g/L- strong indication for transfusion
RBC Transfusion less clear when Hb between 70-100 g/L
Cardiopulmonary reserve needs to be assessed.
Symptomatic patients should be transfused. (fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, new or worsening angina)
Haemoglobinopathy – normally individualised.
Critical Care 70g/L (may be 90g/L if cardiac
Transfusion dependent e.g. MDS – whatever best suits quality of life.

34
Q

major haemorrhage protocol

A

if immediate blood required - transfuse emergency uncross matched group O blood: stored in all theatre blood fridges , on labour ward, A and E and remote issue fridges.

1 - nominate a person to lease with the blood bank and the transfusion SpR: call 2222 and state “major haemorrhage”, give PTs exact location, give liaison’s name and phone number. switch will get blood bank and transfusion SpR to call liaison, and get courier to go to PT location to collect blood samples.

2 - talking to blood bank: give PT hospital number, full name, DOB and location. clinical situation. whether you have used emergency O blood. ask for a major haemorrhage pack (=6 red cells and 4 FFP). can request additional products at any time. blood bank will estimate arrival time.

3 - at haemorrhage site: urgent blood samples: group and save, FBC, coagulation screen, fibrinogen. utilise SpR for advice. ensure all PT details are correct on all samples.

35
Q

MAJOR HAEMORRHAGEDEFINITIONS

A

Replacement of entire blood vol in 24 hrs
Total transfusion >8- 10 packed RBC units in 24 hours
Replacement > 50% blood vol in 3 hrs
Blood loss at 150 ml or > min
Transfusion of 4 or more RBCs in I hr with ongoing haemorrhage
Patient predicted to need 8 or > RBCs within 2 hours.
Avoidable deaths of patients with major haemorrhage are well recognised.

36
Q

baskett’s classification of hypovolaemic shock

A

class 1-4