Day 5 Gynaecology Flashcards
A 26-year-old woman attends the GP surgery reporting abdominal pains. She missed her last period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 7 weeks ago. She reports no vaginal discharge or per vaginal bleeding. She reports no urinary symptoms.
On examination, her abdomen is soft but there is mild suprapubic tenderness. Her heart rate is 70 beats per minute, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and she is apyrexial. You perform a pregnancy test which is positive.
According to current NICE CKS guidance, what is the next most appropriate management step?
(2)
Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit
According to current NICE CKS guidance, women who have a positive pregnancy test and either abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be immediately referred for assessment. This is to exclude an ectopic pregnancy, which could potentially be fatal.
Bleeding in the first trimester differentials
(4)
miscarriage
ectopic pregnancy
- the most ‘important’ cause as missed ectopics can be potentially life-threatening
implantation bleeding
- a diagnosis of exclusion
miscellaneous conditions
- cervical ectropion
- vaginitis
- trauma
- polyps
A 22-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, right-sided lower abdominal pain over the past few hours. She has associated nausea and vomiting. The pain has now reached the point of being unbearable. She denies any fever, vaginal bleeding, dysuria or altered bowel habits. She has no significant past medical history. She does not take any regular medications.
On examination, she appears to be in significant pain, clutching at her right lower abdomen, which is tender on palpation. Normal bowel sounds are present. There is a palpable adnexal mass on pelvic examination. She is slightly tachycardic. A pregnancy test is negative and urinalysis is normal.
What finding on ultrasound would be characteristic of the likely diagnosis?
Whirlpool sign
Ovarian torsion may be associated with a whirlpool sign on ultrasound imaging
An 18 year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset sharp, tearing pelvic pain associated with a small amount of vaginal bleeding. She also complains of shoulder tip pain. On examination she is hypotensive, tachycardic and has marked cervical excitation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
The history of tearing pain and haemodynamic compromise in a women of child bearing years should prompt a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy.
A 25 year-old lady presents to her GP complaining of a two day history of right upper quadrant pain, fever and a white vaginal discharge.
She has seen the GP twice in 12 weeks complaining of pelvic pain and dyspareunia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
(3)
The most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease.
Right upper quadrant pain occurs as part of the Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome in which peri hepatic inflammation occurs.
What is Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome?
Right upper quadrant pain, associated with pelvic inflammatory disease in which peri hepatic inflammation occurs.
A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 12 hour history of pelvic discomfort.
She is otherwise well and her last normal menstrual period was 2 weeks ago.
On examination she has a soft abdomen with some mild supra pubic discomfort.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Mittelschmerz
Mid cycle pain is very common and is due to the small amount of fluid released during ovulation.
Inflammatory markers are usually normal and the pain typically subsides over the next 24-48 hours.
What is Mittelschmerz?
(4)
Mid cycle pain is very common and is due to the small amount of fluid released during ovulation.
Just before an egg is released with ovulation, follicle growth stretches the surface of the ovary, causing pain.
Blood or fluid released from the ruptured follicle irritates the lining of the abdomen (peritoneum), leading to pain.
Inflammatory markers are usually normal and the pain typically subsides over the next 24-48 hours.
A 41-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear at her GP practice as part of the UK cervical screening programme.
Her result comes back as an ‘inadequate sample’.
What is the most appropriate action?
Cervical cancer screening: if smear inadequate then repeat within 3 months
A hirsute 28-year-old lady attends the GP practice complaining that her periods are absent.
What are the diagnostic criteria for polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?
(3)
PCOS should be diagnosed if 2/3 of the following criteria are present:
Infrequent or no ovulation (thus oligomenorrhoea is the correct answer in this scenario)
Clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism or elevated levels of total or free testosterone (no mention of ‘low levels of oestrogen’)
Polycystic ovaries on ultrasonography or increased ovarian volume
A 31-year-old woman presents for review in the outpatients’ department. She has a past medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome and has been unsuccessfully attempting to conceive for the past ten months.
Upon examination she is hirsute.
Height and weight measurements are taken, confirming a body mass index (BMI) of 24kg/m².
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Infertility in PCOS - clomifene is typically used first-line
A 29-year-old female was recently asked by her GP practice to attend for a repeat smear test.
Her initial test results 12 months ago showed that the sample was positive for high risk HPV (hrHPV), but cytologically normal.
The patient felt very anxious about having to be called back and asked the practice nurse what will happen next.
Assuming that the results return as hrHPV negative, which pathway will the patient be advised to follow?
Return in 3 years (normal recal)
Cervical cancer screening: if 1st repeat smear at 12 months is now hrHPV -ve → return to routine recall
The most common ovarian cancer
The correct answer is: Serous carcinoma
An ultrasound done on a 23-year-old female for recurrent urinary tract infections incidentally shows a 3 cm ‘simple cyst’ on the left ovary.
She is asymptomatic
The correct answer is: Follicular cyst
A 25-year-old female has her first cervical screen, the result is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), cytology is normal.
12 months later she has a repeat test, again the result is positive for hrHPV, cytology is normal.
What action should be taken?
This patient should have a repeat test in 12 months.
Patients whose result is positive for hrHPV will have their samples examined cytologically. If the cytology is normal the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is still normal they should have a further repeat test 12 months later, as per this patient.
A 52-year-old female has a cervical screen, results are negative for hrHPV.
Previous results have shown normal cytology.
Routine recall - repeat in 5 years
Patients whose test results are negative for hrHPV will not have their samples examined cytologically. They can return to routine recall.
Routine recall is every 3 years for patients aged 25-49 years and every 5 years for patients aged 50-64 years.
A 35-year-old female has a cervical screen, the result is positive for hrHPV with borderline changes in squamous cells.
What action should be taken?
Refer to colposcopy
This patient has abnormal cytology, therefore she should be referred for colposcopy.
A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sharp, right lower abdominal pain, which has been intermittently present for several days.
It does not radiate anywhere. It is not associated with any gastrointestinal upset.
Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. She is sexually active although admits to not using contraception all the time.
Her past medical history includes multiple chlamydial infections. On examination, the abdomen is tender.
An internal examination is also performed; adnexal tenderness is demonstrated. A urine pregnancy test is positive.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the investigation of choice?
(2)
The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound
Transabdominal ultrasound is not ideal, as this is less sensitive than a transvaginal scan.
A 21-year-old female is found to have an ectopic pregnancy and is taken to theatre for surgical management.
When laparoscopy is performed, where is the ectopic pregnancy most likely to be found?
Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is in the ampulla of fallopian tube
A 62-year-old female presents as she feels she is becoming incontinent.
She describes no dysuria or frequency, but commonly leaks urine when she coughs or laughs.
What is the most appropriate initial management?
Pelvic floor muscle training
Urinary incontinence - first-line treatment:
- urge incontinence: bladder retraining
- stress incontinence: pelvic floor muscle training
Features of cervical ectropion
(4)
Describes an increased area of columnar epithelium
May result in post-coital bleeding
May result in excessive vaginal discharge
Is more common during pregnancy
A 30-year-old woman comes for review.
She reports always having had heavy periods but over the past six months they have become worse.
There is no history of dysmenorrhoea, intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding.
She has had two children and says she does not want anymore.
Gynaecology examination is normal and her cervical smear is up-to-date. What is the treatment of choice?
Menorrhagia - intrauterine system (Mirena) is first-line
Which medication is used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding?
Norethisterone 5 mg tds can be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.
You are working in obstetrics & gynaecology. Your patient, a 26-year-old female, has presented to the early pregnancy assessment clinic with a 48-hour history of light vaginal spotting and vague lower abdominal pain.
Approximately 6 weeks previously, she took a home pregnancy test, which she found to be positive. Her last menstrual period was approximately 8 weeks ago.
Transvaginal ultrasound is performed, which fails to detect an intrauterine pregnancy.
Serum βHCG - 3,662 IU per ml
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Ectopic Pregnancy
In the case of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 points toward a diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy
Tabitha is a 78-year-old woman who presents with urinary incontinence. Her incontinence has been ongoing for the past 2 years with no relief. Her symptoms usually occur on laughing and coughing. She has not experienced any episodes of nocturia. She also has not experienced a strong need to pass urine prior to her incontinence.
She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake but these failed to improve her symptoms.
Her urinalysis today shows no leukocytes or nitrites. A pelvic examination does not show any evidence of uterine prolapse. On consultation, she declines any surgical intervention.
What is the next most appropriate intervention for her incontinence?
(2)
Duloxetine is correct
Duloxetine may be used in patients with stress incontinence who don’t respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and decline surgical intervention
Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are often used as 1st-line treatment for urge incontinence and are all antimuscarinic agents. Should these therapies fail, mirabegron, an β3 agonist, can be used as a 2nd-line therapy.
A 25-year-old accountant attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has not yet had any pregnancies, she has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease treated 4 years ago, and she currently has an intrauterine system in situ. There is no other significant past medical or social history. As it is her first smear, she asks you what it is we are testing for.
How would you counsel her?
Cervical smear samples are tested for hrHPV as the first step
A 58-year-old woman presents to her GP due to heavy bleeding from the vagina. Her last menstrual period was when she was 50 and she has had no vaginal bleeding since.
- She has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
- She takes a tiotropium/olodaterol inhaler and lansoprazole.
- She took the combined oral contraceptive pill for 25 years but did not use hormone replacement therapy.
- She has never been pregnant.
- She has a 40 pack-year smoking history.
What is the possible diagnosis?
What would be her most significant risk factor?
Endometrial cancer
nulliparity
Which three factors are prtective against endometrial cancer?
Smoking is a protective factor for endometrial cancer. It is however a risk factor for cervical, vulval, breast and many other cancers.
The use of the combined oral contraceptive pill is protective against endometrial cancer. It does, however, increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer.
During pregnancy, the balance of hormones shifts towards progesterone, which is a protective factor.
The risk factors for endometrial cancer are as follows*:
(6)
- obesity
- nulliparity/early menarche/late menopause (oestrogen exposure)
- unopposed oestrogen. The addition of a progestogen to oestrogen reduces this risk (e.g. In HRT). The BNF states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously
- diabetes mellitus
- tamoxifen
- polycystic ovarian syndrome
- hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
A 76-year-old woman presents with post-menopausal bleeding for the past 4 months. She is diagnosed with well-differentiated adenocarcinoma (stage II) on endometrial biopsy. There is no evidence of metastatic disease.
Which is the most appropriate treatment?
(3)
Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is the treatment of choice for stage I and II endometrial carcinoma.
Provera is a progesterone used as a hormonal treatment for endometrial carcinoma - it acts by slowing the growth of malignant cells in the endometrium.
Wertheim’s radical hysterectomy includes removal of lymph nodes and is used to treat stage IIB endometrial carcinoma.
A mother attends the GP with her 14-year-old daughter. She is concerned as her daughter has not yet started her periods although suffers cyclical pain. On examination the daughter looks well.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Imperforate hymen
Causes of primary amenorrhoea:
(7)
- Constitutional delay i.e. a late bloomer, has secondary sexual characteristics
- Anatomical i.e. mullerian agenesis (patient develops secondary sexual characteristics and has variable absence of female sexual organs)
- Imperforate hymen (characterised by cyclical pain and the classic bluish bulging membrane on physical examination)
- Transverse vaginal septae (characterised by cyclical pain and retrograde menstruation)
- Turner syndrome (XO chromosome)
- Testicular feminisation syndrome (XY genotype, no internal female organs)
- Kallmann syndrome (failure to secrete GNRH)
Causes of secondary amenorrhoea:
(8)
- Pregnancy
- Patient is using contraception
- Menopause
- Lactational amenorrhoea
- Hypothalamic amenorrhoea (suppression of GnRH due to stress, excessive exercise, eating disorder)
- Endocrinological (hyperthyroidism, polycystic ovary disease, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperprolactinaemia, hypopituitarism)
- Premature ovarian failure (autoimmune, chemotherapy, radiation therapy)
- Asherman’s syndrome (iatrogenic intrauterine adhesions/cervical stenosis)
Investigations for amenorrhoea
(5)
Pregnancy test
FSH/LH (if FSH is >20 in a woman <40 may suggest premature ovarian failure, if both are low it suggests a hypothalamic cause)
Thyroid function tests
Prolactin
Pelvic USS
Causes of puberty with short stature (3)
Causes of puberty with normal stature (4)
Delayed puberty with short stature
- Turner’s syndrome
- Prader-Willi syndrome
- Noonan’s syndrome
Delayed puberty with normal stature
- polycystic ovarian syndrome
- androgen insensitivity
- Kallman’s syndrome
- Klinefelter’s syndrome
An 80 year-old woman presents to her GP with a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion on her left labium majus.
Her history includes a two year history of vulval itching and soreness, which has failed to respond to topical steroid treatment.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Vulval carcinomas are commonly ulcerated and can present on the labium majora.
What is the difference between vulval carcinoma and vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?
(2)
The difference between VIN and carcinoma isn’t ulceration, but rather invasion through the basement membrane.
A 36-year-old woman who used to inject heroin has recently been diagnosed HIV positive.
She is offered a cervical smear during one of her first visits to the HIV clinic.
How should she be followed-up as part of the cervical screening program?
Annual cervical cytology
Women who are HIV positive are at an increased risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer due to a decreased immune response and decreased clearance of the human papilloma virus. (1) HIV positive women who have low-grade lesions (CIN1) do not clear these lesions and these can progress to high-grade CIN or cervical cancer. Even those women who are effectively treated with antiretrovirals have a high risk of abnormal cytology and an increased risk of false-negative cytology. (1)
A couple presents to their GP asking for advice about fertility. They have been having unprotected sexual intercourse 3 times a week for 1 year.
The GP suggests semen analysis and measuring serum progesterone levels.
When is the most appropriate time to measure serum progesterone levels?
To confirm ovulation: Take the serum progesterone level 7 days prior to the expected next period
A level >30nmol/l indicates ovulation so other causes of infertility should be considered.
A level below 30nmol/l does not exclude the possibility of ovulation but repeat testing will be required followed by referral to a specialist if it is consistently low.
What must serum progesterone levels indicate ovulation?
A level >30nmol/l indicates ovulation so other causes of infertility should be considered.
A level below 30nmol/l does not exclude the possibility of ovulation but repeat testing will be required followed by referral to a specialist if it is consistently low.
A 56-year-old lady reports incontinence mainly when walking the dog.
A bladder diary is inconclusive.
What is the most appropriate investigation?
Urodynamic studies are indicated when there is diagnostic uncertainty or plans for surgery.
Which tumour, if ruptured, may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei?
The correct answer is: Mucinous cystadenoma
Pseudomyxoma peritonei (PMP) is a very rare type of cancer. It usually begins in your appendix as a small growth, called a polyp. This is different to polyps that cause bowel cancer and is called a Low Grade Appendiceal Mucinous Neoplasm (LAMN).
The most common type of epithelial cell tumour
The correct answer is: Serous cystadenoma
Serous cystadenoma is a benign neoplasm composed of glycogen-rich epithelial cells that form innumerable small thin-walled cysts containing serous fluid
A 69-year-old female arrives in your clinic one morning complaining of recent urgency to pass urine and increased frequency, often followed by leakage of urine.
A urinary dipstick is negative, a vaginal examination is unremarkable and you do not suspect malignancy.
What is the likely diagnosis?
With this in mind, what is the best initial option to manage this patient’s condition?
1. The likely diagnosis is urgency urinary incontinence
2. bladder retraining
Urinary incontinence - first-line treatment:
- urge incontinence: bladder retraining
- stress incontinence: pelvic floor muscle training