Day 10 Obstetrics Flashcards
A 29-year-old woman has recently given birth to a healthy baby girl but has suffered a perineal tear as the consequence of a difficult birth.
Upon examination, the patient has their internal anal sphincter completely torn
What degree of tear has the patient suffered from? (1)
What is the most appropriate next step in management? (2)

Third-degree perineal tears require repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician

A 26-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation arrives at the emergency department after suffering from severe bouts of vomiting and diarrhoea, which have lasted for the past 10 days.
This has begun to have a significant impact on her day-to-day lifestyle.
She is unable to keep down fluids and despite being prescribed oral cyclizine, there has been no improvement.
When her weight was checked she suddenly realises she has lost a significant amount of weight.
A urine sample is taken and reveals high levels of ketones in her urine.
What is the next most appropriate step in management?
(3)
Admit for hydration
Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy: admission should be considered in cases of ketonuria and/or weight loss despite use of oral anitemetics
The correct thing to do in this case is to admit for hydration the patient for possible IV hydration. This is considered a medical emergency due to ketonuria and weight loss.
A 23-year-old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant attends your GP clinic concerned about a high reading on a blood pressure machine at home.
She is asymptomatic and has no past medical conditions.
You take her blood pressure at the clinic which is 162/114 mmHg.
There is no evidence of proteinuria on urine dipstick testing.
- *What is the most appropriate management?
(3) **
Pregnant women with blood pressure ≥ 160/110 mmHg are likely to be admitted and observed
The patient might be given labetalol along with aspirin but this would have to be initiated by the obstetric department.
A multiparous woman at 29 weeks gestation is admitted to the maternity ward with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
The placenta is found to be wholly in the lower uterine segment.
The child is also in breech presentation with a transverse lie.
All of the patient’s previous pregnancies had remained uncomplicated.
What complication of pregnancy is this likely to be?
(2)
The correct answer is placenta praevia.
- the painless vaginal bleeding is characteristic of this complication making this the correct option.
Vasa praevia is the incorrect answer as fetal bradycardia is commonly seen in association. It may also present with blood that is darker in colour rather than bright red vaginal bleeding in this case. These factors make this option less likely.
Potentially sensitising events in pregnancy:
(10)
Potentially sensitising events in pregnancy:
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Evacuation of retained products of conception and molar pregnancy
- Vaginal bleeding < 12 weeks, only if painful, heavy or persistent
- Vaginal bleeding > 12 weeks
- Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis
- Antepartum haemorrhage
- Abdominal trauma
- External cephalic version
- Intra-uterine death
- Post-delivery (if baby is RhD-positive)
A 32-year-old woman comes to surgery for her blood results.
She is 25 weeks pregnant and has had her glucose tolerance test.
The results are as follows:
Fasting glucose = 7.1 mmol/L
2-hour glucose = 8.2 mmol/L
What would be the most appropriate next step?
If at the time of diagnosis of gestational diabetes, the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l immediate insulin (plus or minus metformin) should be started
A woman at 32 weeks gestation comes into maternity assessment unit for reduced fetal movements (RFM).
She reports that she has not felt her baby move for the last 12 hours.
She has not noticed any vaginal bleeding or experienced any pain.
The midwife cannot detect a heart beat with the handheld Doppler.
What would be done next to investigate the reduced fetal movements?
If after 28/40 weeks, if a woman reports reduced fetal movements and no heart is detected with handheld Doppler then an immediate ultrasound should be offered
Contraindications to the use of epidural anesthesia:
(4)
- active maternal hemorrhage
- septicemia
- infection at or near the site of needle insertion
- clinical signs of coagulopathy
A 26-year-old woman was admitted at 34 weeks gestation with preterm labour.
On examination she has a blood pressure of 175/105 mmHg.
Urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria. She is commenced on magnesium sulphate and labetalol.
She is now complaining of reduced foetal movements.
A cardiotocogram shows late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 90 beats/minute.
What should be the next step in the management?
(3)
Emergency caesarian section
A diagnosis of pre-eclampsia can be made due to the heavy proteinuria and hypertension.
Magnesium sulphate is given to reduce the risk of development of eclampsia, and labetalol is given to control the blood pressure.
Late decelerations and foetal bradycardia on cardiotocography (CTG) is a worrying sign and would justify an emergency caesarian section.
Induction would be inappropriate with an abnormal CTG.
A 32-year-old woman presents to the obstetric department in the early stages of labour.
She is 36+4 weeks gestation and the current pregnancy has been complicated by polyhydramnios.
On examination, the foetal head can be palpated at the right side of the maternal pelvis and the buttocks can be palpated at the left side of the maternal pelvis.
The amniotic sac is intact.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
You can attempt external cephalic version for a transverse lie if the amniotic sac has not ruptured
A 33-year-old woman who is 34 weeks pregnant with twins presents to you with a 3-day history of intense pruritis which has been affecting her sleep. You can see multiple excoriations but no obvious skin rash. Other than this the pregnancy has been going well, and foetal movements are normal.
Bloods are taken:
Bilirubin = 41 µmol/L(3 - 17)
ALP = 213 u/L(30 - 100)
ALT = 189 u/L(3 - 40)
An abdominal ultrasound was normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis? (1)
What is the most likely management plan? (3)
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy increases the risk of stillbirth;
therefore induction of labour is generally offered at 37-38 weeks gestation
Also:
- ursodeoxycholic acid - again widely used but evidence base not clear
- vitamin K supplementation
You are urgently bleeped to the labour ward to see a 22-year-old woman who has recently undergone an artificial rupture of membranes.
She is at 40-weeks gestation and has so far, had an uncomplicated pregnancy.
The midwife informs you that the foetal heart rate is abnormal.
On examination, you can palpate the umbilical cord.
What is your management plan?
What drug can you administer whilst waiting to prevent complications?
- Emergency C-section
- Terbutaline - Tocolytics may be useful in umbilical cord prolapse to reduce uterine contractions
A 32-week gestation woman attends for a repeat ultrasound scan after her 20-week scan showed a low lying placenta.
The repeat ultrasound in the department shows a placenta that is partially covering the top of the cervix.
She is counselled by the obstetric consultant on her mode of delivery.
She has had 4 previous pregnancies which she delivered vaginally and has no other past medical or surgical history.
What is the appropriate offer she should be given regarding recommended mode of delivery?
Women with grade III/IV placenta praevia should be offered an
- elective caesarean section
- at 37-38 weeks

A 25-year-old woman at 25 weeks gestation presents with constant lower abdominal pain and a small amount of vaginal bleeding.
On examination blood pressure is 90 / 60 mmHg
What is the most likey diagnosis?
Placental abruption
A 31-year-old woman presents with painless vaginal bleeding at 15 weeks gestation.
She has not yet had any antenatal care despite suffering from severe vomiting.
On examination the uterus is large for dates.
What is the most likey diagnosis?
Hydatidiform mole
A 19-year-old woman presents with a two day history of central lower abdominal pain and one day history of vaginal bleeding.
Her last period was 8 weeks ago.
On examination her cervix is tender to touch
Ectopic pregnancy
A 26-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive with a blood pressure of 155/110 mmHg during labour for her first baby at 39 weeks.
Urinalysis shows +++ protein.
Which of these is the most appropriate way to manage her hypertension?
Administer intravenous labetalol
with target blood pressure < 135/85 mmHg
When is aspirin taken in pregnancy? (2)
Which groups are at risk? (4)
Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin 75mg od from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby.
High risk groups include:
- hypertensive disease during previous pregnancies
- chronic kidney disease
- autoimmune disorders such as SLE or antiphospholipid syndrome
- type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus
Nancy is a 25-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant with her first child.
She has not felt the baby kick for 3 hours.
Her pregnancy has been unremarkable, however, her baby is slightly small for gestational age.
She presents to the obstetric emergency walk-in unit at her local hospital.
What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
If a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements then handheld Doppler should be used to confirm fetal heartbeat as a first step
Then ultrasound
After how many weeks is same-day delivery an option?
After 34 weeks, same day delivery is an option.
What is the cure for eclampsia?
What is the purpose of magnesium sulfate?
Delivery is the only cure for pre-eclampsia.
IV magnesium sulphate is used for eclampsia (seizure) prophylaxis.
What effect would an epidural anesthetic have on the patient’s blood pressure?
epidural anesthesia should reduce blood pressure.
A 36-year-old multiparous woman is in advanced labour at 37 weeks gestation.
An ultrasound confirms a breech presentation.
She is fully dilated and has been pushing for an one and a half hours, however the buttocks are still not visible.
How should this situation be managed?
Due to the foetal presentation and station, vaginal delivery is likely to be difficult.
Breech extraction is not recommended for singleton pregnancies and requires considerable skill.
Therefore Caesarean section should be advised.
Which direction should the fetus be facing during delivery?

Occiput anterior to the mother


















