Day 4 Gynaecology Flashcards

1
Q

A 31-year-old woman presents to her GP with severe dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia. She has a regular menstrual cycle.

She has no other medical or gynaecological history of note.

On examination she has a fixed, retroverted uterus.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

(5)

A

Endometriosis

The classic symptoms of endometriosis are

  • pelvic pain
  • dysmenorrhoea
  • dyspareunia
  • subfertility
  • fixed, retroverted uterus
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2
Q

The classic symptoms of endometriosis are

(5)

A

pelvic pain

dysmenorrhoea

dyspareunia

subfertility

fixed, retroverted uterus

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3
Q

A 70-year-old woman is seen in the acute medical unit with shortness of breath and abdominal distension. A chest x-ray shows a right pleural effusion. An ovarian mass is removed but it is found to be benign on histology.

What is this syndrome called?

A

The three features of Meig’s syndrome are:

a benign ovarian tumour

ascites

pleural effusion

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4
Q

What is the triad of Meig’s syndrome?

(3)

A

a benign ovarian tumour

ascites

pleural effusion

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5
Q

The 4 main types of ovarian tumours:

A

Surface derived tumours: These account for around 65% of ovarian tumours, including the greatest number of malignant tumours.

Germ cell tumours: These are more common in adolescent girls and are account for 15-20% of tumours. Similar cancer types to those seen in the testicle.

Sex cord-stromal tumours: Represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours. Often produce hormones.

Metastasis: Account for around 5% of tumours.

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6
Q

Jenny, a 55-year-old woman presents to your GP surgery with menopausal symptoms. Her last period was 14 months ago and she describes mood changes, irritability, hot flushes, night sweats and a reduced libido. These symptoms are getting on top of her and disrupting her work.

Jenny has 3 children and has had no previous surgery. Her friend has suggested oestrogen hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and Jenny would like to give it a go.

What is the major risk of prescribing oestrogen-only HRT instead of combined HRT for Jenny?

A

Unopposed oestrogen increases her risk of endometrial cancer

Unopposed oestrogen increases her risk of endometrial cancer is the correct answer. Combined oestrogen and progesterone HRT reduces the risk of endometrial cancer in patients with a uterus. Patients without a uterus should be prescribed oestrogen only HRT as combined HRT is less well tolerated.

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7
Q

A 29-year-old woman visits her GP. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant. After discussion with her partner, she has decided to have the pregnancy terminated. The GP makes the appropriate referral and the termination is conducted.

Two weeks later, she phones the GP, sounding concerned. She has performed a urine pregnancy test and it is still showing as positive.

For what maximum period following termination is this considered normal?

(4)

A

Termination of pregnancy: Urine pregnancy test often remains positive for up to 4 weeks following termination.

A positive test beyond 4 weeks indicates incomplete abortion or persistent trophoblast

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8
Q

The current law surrounding abortion

A

based on the 1967 Abortion Act

In 1990 the act was amended

reducing the upper limit to 24 weeks

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9
Q

Which methods of abortion are performed at how many weeks

less than 9 weeks:

less than 13 weeks:

more than 15 weeks:

A

less than 9 weeks: mifepristone (an anti-progestogen, often referred to as RU486) followed 48 hours later by prostaglandins to stimulate uterine contractions

less than 13 weeks: surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents

more than 15 weeks: surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (induces ‘mini-labour’)

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10
Q

A 38-year-old woman attends the gynaecology outpatient clinic. She complains of a 5-month history of pelvic pain and intermenstrual bleeding. The pain is worse around the time of her periods and during sexual intercourse. Her periods have also become heavier. The patient is not experiencing any urinary or bowel symptoms.

You arrange a transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS), which shows several masses in the uterine wall.

The patient is keen to have the masses surgically removed.

However, the waiting time for the operation is five months.

She asks if there is a medication that will help reduce the size of the masses in the meantime.

What is the most appropriate management option whilst this patient awaits surgery?

A

Triptorelin

For patients with uterine fibroids, GnRH agonists may reduce the size of the fibroid but are typically useful for short-term treatment

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11
Q

Tranexamic acid

What is it used for? (1)

What is its mechanism of action? (2)

A

What is it used for?

Tranexamic acid is used to treat menorrhagia and excessive blood loss.

What is its mechanism of action?

Tranexamic acid is a synthetic derivative of the lysine and binds to the lysine binding sites on plasminogen.

This inhibits plasmin formation and displaces plasminogen from the fibrin surface.

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12
Q

You are the surgical FY1 talking to a patient about her forthcoming vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair. Which of the following is a long-term complication of this procedure?

A

Common long term complications of vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair include enterocoele and vaginal vault prolapse.

Urinary retention may occur acutely following hysterectomy, but it is not usually a chronic complication.

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13
Q

What is Mestranol?

A

Mestranol is an estrogen medication which has been used in birth control pills, menopausal hormone therapy, and the treatment of menstrual disorders.

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14
Q

Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who attended for cervical screening 1 week ago. She is well with no past medical history.

Her result is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). Cervical cytology has returned as inadequate.

What is the most appropriate next step?

A

Cervical cancer screening: if smear inadequate then repeat within 3 months

NICE guidelines for cervical screening state:

‘If the high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test result is unavailable or cytology is inadequate at any screening episode in the pathway — the sample is repeated in no less than 3 months.’

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15
Q

A 29-year-old woman who has been suffering with severe dysmenorrhoea for years is seen at the gynaecological clinic.

The consultant believes she may have adenomyosis, but wishes to confirm this diagnosis and rule out any other pathology before commencing treatment.

What is Adenomyosis?

Which is the best imaging technique for diagnosing the suspected condition?

A

The best imaging technique for diagnosing adenomyosis is MRI

Adenomyosis is the presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium.

The best imaging technique that is able to confirm this diagnosis is MRI, however ultrasound can also aide diagnosis, but it is not the most effective imaging.

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16
Q

Frankie is a 32-year-old woman who attended for cervical cancer screening 2 years ago. The result was positive for high-risk human papilloma virus (hrHPV) and cervical cytology was normal.

She had repeat testing 12 months later and again tested positive for hrHPV with normal cytology. She was booked in for repeat testing in a further 12 months.

This was carried out 2 weeks ago. The result reveal that Frankie remains hrHPV positive and cytology is normal.

What is the most appropriate next step?

A

Cervical cancer screening: if 2nd repeat smear at 24 months is still hrHPV +ve → colposcopy

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17
Q

The NICE guidelines on cervical cancer screening state:

(5)

A

The NICE guidelines on cervical cancer screening state:

  • Individuals who are positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and receive a negative cytology report as part of routine primary HPV screening should have the HPV test repeated at 12 months.*
  • If HPV testing is negative at 12 months, individuals can be safely returned to routine recall.*
  • Individuals who remain hrHPV positive, cytology negative at 12 months should have a repeat HPV test in a further 12 months.*
  • Individuals who become hrHPV negative at 24 months can be safely returned to routine recall.*
  • Individuals who remain hrHPV positive, cytology negative or inadequate at 24 months should be referred to colposcopy.*
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18
Q

A 57-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A trial of bladder retraining is unsuccessful.

It is therefore decided to use a muscarinic antagonist.

Give 3 examples of muscarinic antagonists?

A

Other examples of muscarinic antagonists used in urinary incontinence include oxybutynin, solifenacin and Tolterodine

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19
Q

What is Tolterodine?

A

muscarinic agonist used for urge incontinence

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20
Q

A 19-year-old woman presents to your surgery 14 weeks into her second pregnancy. Her pregnancy has been progressing normally so far, including a normal dating scan at 10 weeks.

She visited 24 hours ago due to excessive nausea and vomiting.

What was her first line treatment?

However, she is still unable to tolerate any oral intake, including fluids.

Her urine dip is positive for ketones.

What is the most appropriate next step?

A
  1. start on oral cyclizine 50mg TDS.
  2. Arrange admission to hospital

Failure of oral antiemetics to control symptoms, ketonuria and weight loss (>5% of pre pregnancy body weight) are all reasons to refer a woman to gynaecology for urgent assessment and intravenous fluids.

It is particularly important to keep a low threshold for referral if the woman has a concurrent condition which may be affected by prolonged nausea and vomiting (for example diabetes).

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21
Q

What action should be taken with regards to these semen analysis findings?

A

If a semen sample is abnormal, a repeat test should be arranged,

ideally 3 months later

This man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia based on World Health Organisation criteria (sperm concentration of 10 to 15 million per ml).

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22
Q

Normal semen results*

volume

pH

sperm concentration

morphology

motility

vitality

A

Normal semen results*

volume > 1.5 ml

pH > 7.2

sperm concentration > 15 million / ml

morphology > 4% normal forms

motility > 32% progressive motility

vitality > 58% live spermatozoa

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23
Q

A 24-year-old woman presents with mild, crampy suprapubic pain and light vaginal bleeding.

Her last period was 10 weeks ago.

Vaginal examination shows a small amount of blood around the cervix but is otherwise unremarkable.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Threatened miscarriage

The mild suprapubic pain at 10 weeks gestation is more characteristic of a miscarriage than an ectopic pregnancy.

In clinical practice this patient would be referred the same day for an ultrasound scan.

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24
Q

A 67-year-old woman presents with a heavy, dragging sensation in the suprapubic region. She also has frequency and urgency.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Urogenital prolapse

Women who have a urogenital prolapse typically describe a ‘bearing down’, ‘heaviness’ or ‘dragging’ sensation.

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25
Q

A 29-year-old woman presents with suprapubic pain, irregular periods, dysuria and pain during intercourse.

There is cervical excitation on examination.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

Cervical excitation is found in both pelvic inflammatory disease and ectopic pregnancy.

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26
Q

A 53-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner for a routine smear test, the results of which show she is HPV positive.

A subsequent cytology swab is taken which shows normal cells.

1. How long should the patient take to be recalled?

The results of her next swab are negative.

2. What is the most appropriate next stage in the management of this patient?

A
  1. The patient is recalled 12 months later for a second HPV swab, the results of which are negative.
  2. Cervical cancer screening: if 2nd repeat smear at 24 months is now hrHPV -ve → return to routine recall

As this patient is now HPV negative, they may return to routine recall. As this patient is over the age of 50, routine recall requires a smear test be taken every 5 years.

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27
Q

How is CIN treated?

(3)

A

Large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ) is the most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.

LLETZ may sometimes be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic.

Alternative techniques include cryotherapy.

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28
Q

What is CIN?

What is the treatment pathway?

A

A classification for cervical cancer changes

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29
Q

A 31-year-old woman is invited for routine cervical smear.

She is subsequently telephoned by the practice, informing her that the laboratory reported the sample as ‘inadequate’, and is invited back for a repeat smear.

Once again, she is telephoned to inform her that this sample was also reported as ‘inadequate’ by the laboratory.

What should the next step be?

A

Cervical cancer screening: if two consecutive inadequate samples then → colposcopy

The correct answer is to refer for colposcopy - this should be done if two consecutive samples are ‘inadequate’.

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30
Q

Which cancer does CA-125 implicate?

Which gene mutation confers the highest risk for the pathology indicated by high levels of CA-125?

A

This patient’s presentation along with an elevated level of the tumour marker CA-125 is most consistent with a diagnosis of ovarian cancer and breast cancer.

BRCA1 is a tumour suppressor gene which confers a higher risk of ovarian cancer and breast cancer in individuals who have inherited a mutated copy.

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31
Q

Which cancer does Rb implicate?

A

Rb for retinoblastoma

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32
Q

Which cancer does WT1 mark indicate?

A

WT1 for Wilm’s tumour

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33
Q

Which tumour marker does c-Myc test for?

A

c-Myc for Burkitt lymphoma

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34
Q

Clinical features of ovarian cancer:

(6)

A

Clinical features are notoriously vague

abdominal distension and bloating

abdominal and pelvic pain

urinary symptoms e.g. Urgency

early satiety

diarrhoea

no pain

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35
Q

A 32-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the emergency department with a 6-hour history of diarrhoea, mild abdominal discomfort, and a positive home pregnancy test.

Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago and she takes no regular contraception. She has a past medical history of pelvic inflammatory disease.

Transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 40mm foetal sac at the ampulla of the fallopian tube with no visible heartbeat, and serum B-HCG is 1200IU/L.

Given this information, what is the definitive indication for surgical management in this patient?

(2)

A

All ectopic pregnancies >35 mm

in size

or with a serum B-hCG >5,000IU/L

should be managed surgically

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36
Q

A 67-year-old woman attends your GP surgery complaining of three episodes of postmenopausal bleeding in the past month, which she describes as spotting.

She went through the menopause 10 years ago and has had no bleeding until this episode. She took hormone replacement therapy for five years. You perform an abdominal exam, which is unremarkable and a vaginal examination, which is normal apart from some vaginal dryness.

What is the investigation you are going to perform first?

A
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37
Q

Expectant vs Medical vs Surgical Mangement

of ectopic pregnancy

(7)

A
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38
Q

A 67-year-old woman attends your GP surgery complaining of three episodes of postmenopausal bleeding in the past month, which she describes as spotting.

She went through the menopause 10 years ago and has had no bleeding until this episode.

She took hormone replacement therapy for five years.

You perform an abdominal exam, which is unremarkable and a vaginal examination, which is normal apart from some vaginal dryness.

What is the investigation you are going to perform first?

Which diagnosis is implicated?

A

Trans-vaginal ultrasound scan

Endometrial cancer

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39
Q

The risk factors for endometrial cancer:

(7)

A
  • obesity
  • many ovulations*: early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity
  • unopposed oestrogen. The addition of a progestogen to oestrogen reduces this risk (e.g. In HRT). The BNF states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously
  • diabetes mellitus
  • tamoxifen
  • polycystic ovarian syndrome
  • hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
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40
Q

Risk factor for ovarian cancer

(2)

A

family history: mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene

many ovulations*: early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity

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41
Q

Causes of postmenopausal bleeding

(7)

A

The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy: The thinning, drying, and inflammation of the walls of the vagina due to a reduction in oestrogen following the menopause can result in vaginal bleeding

HRT (hormone replacement therapy) is also a common cause of postmenopausal bleeding: Periods or spotting can continue in some women taking HRT for many months with no pathological cause, or endometrial hyperplasia due to long-term oestrogen therapy may occur, which can also cause bleeding

Endometrial hyperplasia, an abnormal thickening of the endometrium and a precursor for endometrial carcinoma: Risk factors include obesity, unopposed oestrogen use, tamoxifen use, polycystic ovary syndrome and diabetes

Endometrial cancer: Although 10% of patients with postmenopausal bleeding have endometrial cancer, up to 90% of patients with endometrial cancer present with postmenopausal bleeding, meaning it must be ruled out urgently

Cervical cancer: It is important to obtain a full record of prior cervical screening programme attendance

Ovarian cancer: Can present with postmenopausal bleeding, especially oestrogen-secreting (theca cell) tumours

Vaginal cancer: Uncommon but can present with postmenopausal bleeding

42
Q

A 34-year-old pregnant female at 12 weeks gestation presents with a two-week history of severe nausea and vomiting.

On examination, the pulse is 110 beats/min and blood pressure 110/80 mmHg.

It is also noted that the patient is experiencing diplopia and ataxia.

Urinalysis demonstrates an increased specific gravity and 3+ ketones.

A diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum is made.

The patient responds suitably to fluid resuscitation with 0.9% saline.

What other treatment should this patient receive?

What is the patient experiencing?

A

Intravenous vitamins B and C (Pabrinex)

Hyperemesis gravidarum is a serious complication of pregnancy. It can result in life-threatening dehydration and metabolic derangements.

In addition, if severe or prolonged it can also result in vitamin and mineral deficiencies.

In this case, the patient has presented with diplopia and ataxia suggestive of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

Therefore, supplementation of thiamine (Vitamin B1) with a vitamin B and C complex (e.g. Pabrinex) is indicated.

43
Q

Management of hyperemesis gravidarum

(3)

A

antihistamines should be used first-line

  • oral cyclizine or oral promethazine is recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS)
  • oral prochlorperazine is an alternative

ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used second-line

  • metoclopramide may cause extrapyramidal side effects. It should therefore not be used for more than 5 days
  • ondansetron during the first trimester is associated with a small increased risk of the baby having a cleft lip/palate. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) advise that if ondanestron is used then these risks should be discussed with the pregnant woman

admission may be needed for IV hydration

44
Q

Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum

(5)

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Mallory-Weiss tear

central pontine myelinolysis

acute tubular necrosis

fetal: small for gestational age, pre-term birth

45
Q

When does hyperemesis gravidarum tend to end?

A

it is very rare cases beyond 20 weeks

46
Q

A 25-year-old female presents to general practice with a positive urine pregnancy test.

She had a termination of pregnancy three weeks ago, which was managed medically.

At the time of termination, she was at eight weeks gestation.

Which medications were used? (2)

Since the procedure, she has had no continuing symptoms of pregnancy and minimal vaginal bleeding.

What action should you advise?

(2)

A
  1. with mifepristone and misoprostol
  2. Reassure and repeat urine pregnancy test at 4 weeks post termination
    * A positive test beyond 4 weeks indicates incomplete abortion or persistent trophoblast
    * Following termination of pregnancy, HCG decreases by about 50% every two days. It is therefore normal for HCG to remain positive for a number of weeks.*
47
Q

Samantha is a 41-year-old woman who comes to see you with heavy menstrual bleeding that has been worsening over the last 12 months. Along with this, she has severe period pain which begins a few days before each cycle. Her periods are regular and she has a 29-day cycle.

Samantha has not been sexually active over the past year and takes no regular medication.

She has 2 teenage children who were both born by vaginal delivery with no complications.

Abdominal examination is unremarkable and a speculum examination reveals a normal-looking cervix.

You request a full blood count.

1. What is the likely diagnosis?

2. What is the most appropriate next step?

A

1. Menorrhagia is menstrual bleeding that lasts more than 7 days.

2. Menorrhagia - do an ultrasound if abnormal exam findings, pelvic pain, intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding

48
Q

What is the NICE guideline for menorrhagia investigation?

A

NICE guidelines on menorrhagia state:

‘Offer a transvaginal ultrasound

(in preference to a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI [magnetic resonance imaging])

to women with menorrhagia who have significant dysmenorrhoea (period pain)

or a bulky, tender uterus on examination that suggests adenomyosis.’

49
Q

A 31-year-old undergoing routine cervical screening has received her report and wanted to discuss this with you.

Her previous smear was 3 years ago and reported as: cytology normal, HPV negative.

Her most recent report states: cytology normal, HPV positive.

What is the most appropriate action?

A

Cervical cancer screening: if sample is hrHPV +ve + cytologically normal → repeat smear at 12 months

Repeat smear in 1 year

50
Q

A well 35-year-old female attends the GP practice with her partner as she is struggling to become pregnant.

They have been trying for a year with regular sexual intercourse.

What is the most appropriate first line investigation?

A

Day 21 progesterone test

According to NICE guidance

‘a woman of reproductive age who has not conceived after 1 year of unprotected vaginal sexual intercourse, in the absence of any known cause of infertility, should be offered further clinical assessment and investigation along with her partner.’

The history, together with the examination findings are consistent with a cervical ectropion. Ectropions are more common when taking the pill, in pregnancy and during puberty. Endometrial cancer is unlikely in somebody so young, and the presence of a cervical ectropion on examination makes this simple diagnosis most likely. Chlamydia infection can cause cervicitis but her sexual history points away from this diagnosis, and the pill is still the most likely causative factor. STI screens should be performed annually, however.

51
Q

A 26-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of post-coital bleeding.

This has happened on three occasions, but there is no pain, no discharge and no inter-menstrual bleeding.

She is taking the combined contraceptive pill and only has sex with a regular partner.

She has never been pregnant. She is worried as her grandmother has had endometrial cancer.

On examination, there is a small area of redness around the cervical os.

What is most likely to be responsible for her presentation?

A

Cervical ectropion is more common in those on the COCP due to higher oestrogen levels

This may result in the following features

  • vaginal discharge
  • post-coital bleeding

Ablative treatment (for example ‘cold coagulation’) is only used for troublesome symptoms

52
Q

A 44-year-old woman undergoes a hysterectomy for severe dysmenorrhoea.

She had completed her family and pharmacological management had failed.

A few months later she suffers from a vaginal vault prolapse and is referred to the gynaecologists.

Which surgical treatment is most suitable?

A

Sacrocolpopexy

The treatment for vaginal vault prolapse is sacrocolpoplexy

Pelvic organ prolapse is a condition that is caused by a weakening of the normal support of the pelvic floor, and is similar to a hernia in the vagina.

53
Q

What is an anterior colporrhaphy?

What is a cystocele?

A

Anterior colporrhaphy is when the vaginal wall is repaired following a cystocele.

A cystocele is when the wall between the bladder and the vagina weakens.

This can cause the bladder to drop or sag into the vagina.

54
Q

What is a vaginoplasty?

A

Vaginoplasty is a procedure to construct or repair a vagina.

It treats various medical issues, including vaginal injury due to childbirth and pelvic floor disease complications.

55
Q

Risk factors for vaginal prolapse

(4)

A

Risk factors

increasing age

multiparity, vaginal deliveries

obesity

spina bifida

56
Q

Sally is a 34-year-old woman who comes to see you with a 6 month history of chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea which is starting to affect her daily life particularly at work. On further questioning, she also describes painful bowel movements which start just before her period and continue throughout it.

1. Which diagnosis do you suspect?

2. What is the gold-standard investigation that can confirm this diagnosis for Sally?

A
  1. You should suspect endometriosis
  2. Laparoscopy is the gold-standard investigation for patients with suspected endometriosis
    * NICE guidelines state:

Diagnosis of endometriosis can only be made definitively by laparoscopic visualization of the pelvis.*

57
Q

A 26-year-old woman comes to see her GP after complaining of weight gain, hair loss, constipation and feelings of being cold all the time.

She is also amenorrhoeic and struggled to breastfeed after birth.

She has no significant past medical history but during her daughter’s birth she suffered from a large amount of blood loss and subsequent hypovolaemic shock which required a 6 weeks hospital stay.

Which condition is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A

Sheehan’s syndrome (otherwise known as postpartum hypopituitarism)

  • reduction in the function of the pituitary gland following ischaemic necrosis due to hypovolaemic shock following birth.
  • The symptoms can be varied due to the damage in the pituitary and can sometimes take years to develop.

Signs include:

  • amenorrhoea
  • problems with milk production
  • hypothyroidism
  • pituitary dysfunction.
58
Q

Signs of Sheenan’s syndrome

(4)

A

Signs include:

  • amenorrhoea
  • problems with milk production
  • hypothyroidism
  • pituitary dysfunction.
59
Q

A 17 year old girl presents with a history of amenorrhoea, having never started her period.

On further questioning she has developed secondary sexual characteristics, such as growth of breast tissue and pubic hair.

She also complains of pelvic pain and some bloating.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

In a teenager with primary amenorrhoea, but who experiences regular painful cycles, an imperforate hymen is a leading differential diagnosis

An imperforate hymen would block passage of menses, causing amenorrhoea without affecting development of secondary characteristics such as pubic hair and breast development.

This can cause a build up of menstrual blood in the vagina (haematocolpos), causing pelvic pain and bloating through a pressure effect.

60
Q

Presentation of imperforate hymen

(2)

A

An imperforate hymen would block passage of menses, causing:

  1. amenorrhoea without affecting development of secondary characteristics such as pubic hair and breast development.
  2. this can cause a build up of menstrual blood in the vagina (haematocolpos), causing pelvic pain and bloating through a pressure effect.
61
Q

A 22-year-old lady, nulligravida presents with chronic pelvic and sacral pain with menstruation.

Temperature = 37.2 degrees.

On examination her posterior vaginal fornix is tender and there is uterine motion tenderness.

Pelvic ultrasound is normal.

What is your suspected diagnosis?

What is the next diagnostic test?

A

Laparoscopy is the gold-standard investigation for patients with suspected endometriosis

62
Q

A 52-year-old female presents to primary care complaining of a three-week history of reduced libido and vasomotor symptoms.

She has suffered with vaginal dryness for the past 12 months and currently uses topical oestrogen to control this symptom.

After discussion with the general practitioner, the decision is made to stop her topical oestrogen and commence an oral preparation of oestrogen-progestogen hormone replacement therapy (HRT).

What is the patient at increased risk of due to the addition of progestogen?

A

HRT: adding a progestogen increases the risk of breast cancer

Endometrial cancer is incorrect as this is caused by unopposed oestrogen, so would be a risk associated with oestrogen only HRT.

Cervical cancer is incorrect, this is most commonly associated with HPV serotypes 16, 18 and 33 and the combined oral contraceptive pill.

63
Q

What are Vasomotor symptoms?

A

Vasomotor symptoms (VMS), commonly called hot flashes or flushes (HFs) and night sweats, are the menopausal symptoms for which women seek treatment during menopause most often.

64
Q

What is the most important side effect of paroxitine?

A

Hyponatraemia is a side-effect of paroxetine, which is an SSRI used for vasomotor symptoms.

65
Q

Which α2 agonist is used to treat Vasomotor symptoms?

What is the main side effect?

A

clonidine is an α2 agonist, also used in the treatment of vasomotor symptoms.

Postural hypotension as this is a side-effect of clonidine

66
Q

What is the most appropriate management?

A

Repeat smear again in 12 months

Cervical cancer screening: if 1st repeat smear at 12 months is still hrHPV +ve → repeat smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months)

67
Q

RCOG guidelines for cervical screening for high risk HPV (hrHPV)

(3)

A

If hrHPV negative, the patient is returned to routine recall.

  • 25 to 49 - Every 3 years
  • 50 to 64 - Every 5 years

If positive, the sample is examined for cytology

If cytology normal, but HPV positive:

  • the patient is requested to return for screening in 12 months
  • if, in 12 months time, hrHPV is now negative, the patient is returned to routine recall.
68
Q

A 56-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer.

She has had a positive CA125 blood test, ultrasound scan and CT abdomen and pelvis. She is found to have stage 2 ovarian cancer.

What is the primary treatment?

A

Ovarian cancers which are stage 2-4, are treated primarily by surgical excision of the tumour.

This may be accompanied by chemotherapy. NICE CG122

69
Q

Which conditions are associated with hypermemesis gravidarum?

(5)

A

multiple pregnancies

trophoblastic disease

hyperthyroidism

nulliparity

obesity

70
Q

Gestational trophoblastic disease

(2)

A

Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of rare diseases in which abnormal trophoblast cells grow inside the uterus after conception.

In gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD), a tumor develops inside the uterus from tissue that forms after conception (the joining of sperm and egg).

71
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum triad

A

The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) recommend that the following triad is present before diagnosis hyperemesis gravidarum:

  • 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss
  • dehydration
  • electrolyte imbalance

Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

72
Q

Scoring system for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Validated scoring systems such as the

Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score

can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

73
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents with an offensive ‘fishy’, thin, grey vaginal discharge. Testing the discharge shows the pH to be > 4.5.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the most appropriate treatment?

A

Oral metronidazole

bacterial vaginosis

Amsel’s criteria requires 3 of the following 4 points should be present:

  • thin, white homogenous discharge
  • clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells
  • vaginal pH > 4.5
  • positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)
74
Q

A 27-year-old woman complains of an offensive ‘musty’, frothy, green vaginal discharge. On examination you an erythematous cervix with pinpoint areas of exudation.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the most appropriate treatment?

A

The ‘strawberry cervix’ is actually quite rare outside of examinations - some studies suggest only 2% of patients with Trichomonas vaginalis have this finding.

Oral metronidazole

75
Q

Amsel’s criteria for BV

(4)

A

thin, white homogenous discharge

clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells

vaginal pH > 4.5

positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)

76
Q

A 22-year-old woman presents with a thin, purulent, and mildly odorous vaginal discharge.

She also complains of dysuria, intermenstrual bleeding and dyspareunia.

A swab shows a Gram-negative diplococcus.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the treatment?

A

IM ceftriaxone

For gonorrhoea, there was a change in the 2019 British Society for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidelines.

If sensitivities are known (and the organism is sensitive to ciprofloxacin) then a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg should be given

77
Q

What are the key features of each?

Candida (3)

Trichomonas vaginalis (3)

Bacterial vaginosis (1)

A

Candida

  • ‘Cottage cheese’ discharge
  • Vulvitis
  • Itch

Trichomonas vaginalis

  • Offensive, yellow/green, frothy discharge
  • Vulvovaginitis
  • Strawberry cervix

Bacterial vaginosis

  • Offensive, thin, white/grey, ‘fishy’ discharge
78
Q

A 27-year-old woman has been referred to Early Pregnancy Unit, with pregnancy of unknown gestation and with some per vaginal bleeding.

She denies pain and is haemodynamically stable. This is her first pregnancy.

Ultrasound demonstrates a tubal pregnancy, with a visible foetal heartbeat and an unruptured adnexal mass of 40mm. beta-hCG is 5,200 IU/L.

What management would be first-line for this patient?

A

All ectopic pregnancies >35 mm in size or with a serum B-hCG >5,000IU/L should be managed surgically

Surgical - laparoscopic salpingectomy. Surgical management is indicated if an ectopic pregnancy is confirmed on ultrasound with an adnexal mass of 35mm or larger. In this case, the adnexal mass is 40mm. The beta-hCG is also >5,000 IU/L here. In most cases, surgery is done via laparoscopy.

79
Q

A 24-year-old woman with a past history of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) attends your clinic.

She is receiving optimum medical therapy for her condition and is still finding it difficult to conceive.

Herself and her husband have now been trying to conceive for 2 years.

Given her history, you believe that she may be a suitable candidate for in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) therapy.

What are women with PCOS at particular risk of when undergoing IVF?

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a particular risk for women with PCOS who undergo IVF.

80
Q

What are the stages of OHSS?

A

Mild

  • Abdominal pain
  • Abdominal bloating

Moderate

  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Ultrasound evidence of ascites

Severe

  • Oliguria
  • Haematocrit > 45%
  • Hypoproteinaemia

Critical

  • Thromboembolism
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome
  • Anuria
  • Tense ascites
81
Q

What is the physiological cause OHSS?

(2)

A

The presence of multiple luteinized cysts within the ovaries results in high levels of not only oestrogens and progesterone but also vasoactive substances such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF).

This results in increased membrane permeability and loss of fluid from the intravascular compartment

82
Q

A 34-year-old woman from Zimbabwe presents with continuous dribbling incontinence after having her 2nd child.

Apart from prolonged labour the woman denies any complications related to her pregnancies. She is normally fit and well.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the best management?

A

Vesicovaginal fistulae should be suspected in patients with continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labour and from a country with poor obstetric services.

A dye stains the urine and hence identifies the presence of a fistula.

Urinary dye studies

83
Q

A 53-year-old lady complains of involuntary passage of urine when she coughs or sneezes. She is multiparous G2, P2 with a forceps delivery of her second child.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the best management?

A

stress urinary incontinence

Pelvic floor exercises 3 months

The first line management of stress urinary incontinence, in this case arising for pelvic floor trauma is pelvic floor exercises. These will help a proportion of patients. Non responders should have urodynamics performed to confirm the diagnosis.

84
Q

A 56-year-old lady reports incontinence mainly when walking the dog. A bladder diary is inconclusive.

What is the most appropriate investigation?

A

Urodynamic studies are indicated when there is diagnostic uncertainty or plans for surgery.

85
Q

A 30-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in intense pain. She has a past medical history of endometriosis, and it is one week since her last period. On ultrasound scan there is free fluid in the pelvis.

What is the cause of her acute abdomen?

A

If an endometrioma ruptures, it will cause sudden intense pain

Ectopic pregnancy is an extremely important differential to bear in mind, however as she had her period one week ago, it is not very likely, but it would of course need to be ruled out.

86
Q

A 57-year-old woman presents to your GP practice for the 4th time in the last two months.

She complains of bloating, mild abdominal pain and a loss of appetite.

You have previously referred her for colonoscopy which showed no malignancy.

Despite this, she remains very anxious about cancer as her mother, grandmother and sister have all had breast cancer.

Which marker would be most appropriate?

A

CA 125

Suspect ovarian cancer in any older female with new onset of nonspecific abdominal pain or bloating. Her strong family history of breast cancer indicates possible BRCA genes involved in breast and ovarian cancer.

87
Q

A 22-year-old pregnant lady of Sudanese origin attends the GP anxious about her impending vaginal delivery.

She is currently 30 weeks pregnant and has type 3 female genital mutilation.

She advises that she would prefer for her vagina to be reinfibulated (to be sewn back up to infibulated status) post-delivery as this is what she is used to.

What would be the recommended management?

A

Advise her that reinfibulation is illegal and cannot be done under any circumstances

88
Q
A
89
Q

Classification of FGM

A
90
Q

A 28-year-old female presents to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain. A pregnancy test and ultrasound confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring 32mm and associated with a foetal heartbeat. The patient has no past medical history of note.

Her observations show:

  • Respiratory rate of 15 breaths/min
  • Pulse of 93 beats/min
  • Temperature of 36.7ºC
  • Blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg
  • Oxygen saturations of 96% on room air

What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

A

Presence of a foetal heartbeat on ultrasound in the context of an ectopic pregnancy is an indication for surgical management

91
Q

What is the most common type of ovarian pathology associated with Meigssyndrome?

(3)

A

Fibroma

Meigs’ syndrome is a benign ovarian tumour (usually a fibroma) associated with ascites and pleural effusion

92
Q

What is the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 25 years?

A

Dermoid cyst (teratoma)

93
Q

What is the most common cause of ovarian enlargement in women of a reproductive age

A

Follicular cyst

94
Q

A 33-year-old female attends your gynaecology clinic.

This is a follow up appointment following diagnosis of a symptomatic 6mm intramural fibroid.

This problem has been troubling her for a number of months and as such she is being considered for surgery.

As she has not yet completed her family, it has been decided that the most appropriate surgical approach would be an open myomectomy.

Which of the following is a common complication following this operation?

A

Adhesions are the most common complication of this operation. Bladder injury and uterine perforation are complications but they are less common. Cyst formation and surgical menopause are not complications.

95
Q

Treatment to shrink/remove fibroids

(5)

A

Medical

  • GnRH agonists may reduce the size of the fibroid but are typically useful for short-term treatment

Surgical

  • myomectomy: this may be performed abdominally, laparoscopically or hysteroscopically
  • hysteroscopic endometrial ablation
  • hysterectomy

Uterine artery embolization

96
Q

What is the diagnosis? (1)

What is the most appropriate management? (2)

A

Miscarriage

Manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic​

Methotrexate is used in the medical management of ectopic pregnancy.

97
Q

A 17-year-old comes to your clinic, concerned that she has not yet started her periods although most of her friends have.

She is 150 cm tall and 45 kg in weight.

She reports the development of pubic hair since the age of 14 and has normal breast development.

On speculum examination, you are unable to visualise the cervix and the patient finds the examination too uncomfortable to tolerate further.

Serum hormone screening reveals no gross abnormality.

What management would you suggest?

A

Refer to a gynaecologist

It is important to consider causes of amenorrhoea, which can be broken down as follows:

  • Primary amenorrhoea: a woman has never had a period
  • A woman who has previously had periods now hasn’t for (often quoted as lack of menses for least 6 months in women with previously normal periods, or for 12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea)
98
Q

A 35-year-old woman who has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle complains of mood changes in the week before her period.

She describes increasing anxiety and irritability.

Her symptoms are severe and have an impact on her life, making it difficult to maintain her work or social life.

She has a past medical history of migraine with aura.

Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to help reduce her pre-menstrual symptoms?

(3)

A

SSRIs, either continuously or during the luteal phase, may help premenstrual syndrome

NICE guidance suggests that women with severe premenstrual symptoms should be managed using SSRIs. They can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase (for example days 15–28 of the menstrual cycle, depending on its length).

The combined oral contraceptive pill is the wrong option because this patient has a history of migraine with aura which contra-indicates the prescription of the combined contraceptive pill.

99
Q

Management of PMS

(3)

A

Management depends on the severity of symptoms

MILD symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice

  • apart from the usual advice on sleep, exercise, smoking and alcohol, specific advice includes regular, frequent (2–3 hourly), small, balanced meals rich in complex carbohydrates

MODERATE symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

  • examples include Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg)

SEVERE symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

  • this may be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase (for example days 15–28 of the menstrual cycle, depending on its length)
100
Q

A 42-year-old Nigerian woman presents with a 3 month history of menorrhagia and pelvic pain.

On examination there is a palpable, firm, non-tender abdominal mass arising from the pelvis.

Pelvic ultrasound confirms the presence of a large uterine fibroid. A decision is taken to perform a hysterectomy.

Which medication would be most appropriate in preparation for her surgery?
(5)

A

Important points:

GnRH agonists reduce the size of the uterus prior to surgery. The risk of post-operative blood loss is directly related to the size of the uterus.

Progesterone receptor inhibitors have no effect on overall uterine size so are not useful in preparation for surgery, but they can be used to reduce the severity of fibroid-related bleeding.

COCP should not be taken 4-6 weeks prior to major surgery due to increased risk of venous thromboembolism.

Antiplatelet drugs such as Ibuprofen should be avoided before surgery.

Antifibrinolytics such as tranexamic acid can be useful in reducing the severity of uterine bleeding but this wouldn’t help preparation for surgery.