DAY 3 (AM) Mercantile Law

Question 1

1) Letters of Credit are financial devices in commercial transactions which will ensure that the seller of the goods is sure to be paid when he parts with the goods and the buyer of the goods gets control of the goods upon payment.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The use of the Letter of Credit serves to reduce the risk of nonpayment of the purchase price in a sale transaction.

b) The Letters of Credit can only be used exclusively in a sales transaction.

c) The Letters of Credit are issued for the benefit of the seller only.

d) (a), (b) and (c) are all correct.

Answer 1

a) The use of the Letter of Credit serves to reduce the risk of nonpayment of the purchase price in a sale transaction.

Question 2

2) A Letter of Credit which is used in non-sale transaction, where it serves to reduce the risk of non-performance, is called _______.

a) irrevocable letter of credit

b) standby letter of credit

c) confirmed letter of credit

d) none of the above

Answer 2

b) standby letter of credit

Question 3

3) At the instance of CCC Corporation, AAA Bank issued an irrevocable Letter of Credit in favor of BBB Corporation. The terms of the irrevocable Letter of Credit state that the beneficiary must present certain documents including a copy of the Bill of Lading of the importation for the bank to release the funds. BBB Corporation could not find the original copy of the Bill of Lading so it instead presented to the bank a xerox copy of the Bill of Lading.

Would you advise the bank to allow the drawdown on the Letter of Credit?

a) No, because the rule of strict compliance in commercial transactions involving letters of credit, requiring documents set as conditions for the release of the fund, has to be strictly complied with or else funds will not be released.

b) Yes, because an irrevocable letter of credit means that the issuing bank undertakes to release the fund anytime when claimed by the beneficiary, regardless of the kind of document presented.

c) Yes, because the issuing bank can always justify to CCC Corporation that xerox copies are considered as faithful reproduction of the original copies.

d) Yes, because the issuing bank really has no discretion to determine whether the documents presented by the beneficiary are sufficient or not.

Answer 3

a) No, because the rule of strict compliance in commercial transactions involving letters of credit, requiring documents set as conditions for the release of the fund, has to be strictly complied with or else funds will not be released.

Question 4

4) AAA Carmakers opened an irrevocable Letter of Credit with BBB Banking Corporation with CCC Cars Corporation as beneficiary. The irrevocable Letter of Credit was opened to pay for the importation of ten (10) units of Mercedes Benz S class. Upon arrival of the cars, AAA Carmakers found out that the cars were all not in running condition and some parts were missing. As a consequence, AAA Carmakers instructed BBB Banking Corporation not to allow drawdown on the Letter of Credit.

Is this legally possible?

a) No, because under the “Independence Principle”, conditions for the drawdown on the Letters of Credit are based only on documents, like shipping documents, and not with the condition of the goods subject of the importation.

b) Yes, because the acceptance by the importer of the goods subject of importation is material for the drawdown of the Letter of Credit.

c) Yes, because under the “Independence Principle”, the seller or the beneficiary is always assured of prompt payment if there is no breach in the contract between the seller and the buyer.

d) No, because what was opened was an irrevocable letter of credit and not a confirmed letter of credit.

Answer 4

a) No, because under the “Independence Principle”, conditions for the drawdown on the Letters of Credit are based only on documents, like shipping documents, and not with the condition of the goods subject of the importation.

Question 5

5) For a fee, X deposited 1,000 sacks of corn in the warehouse owned by Y. Y is in the business of warehousing. Y issued a warehouse receipt as proof of the possession of the 1,000 sacks of corn. The warehouse receipt states as follows: “Deliver to X or bearer 1,000 sacks of corn.” X wanted to use the warehouse receipt as payment of his debt in favor of Z.

How can the ownership of the goods covered by the warehouse receipt be transferred?

a) Negotiate the warehouse receipt by just delivering the warehouse receipt to Z.

b) Assign the warehouse receipt to Z to transfer ownership of the goods.

c) Negotiate the warehouse receipt by specifically indorsing it to Z.

d) The warehouse receipt in this case is non-negotiable.

Answer 5

a) Negotiate the warehouse receipt by just delivering the warehouse receipt to Z.

Question 6

6) The warehouseman, by issuing the warehouse receipt, acknowledges that the goods are in his possession, but he can refuse to deliver the goods to the holder of the warehouse receipt covering the goods if _____.

a) the warehouse receipt covering the goods is not presented

b) the lien of the warehouseman is not satisfied

c) the said holder presents a materially altered warehouse receipt

d) all of the above

Answer 6

d) all of the above

Question 7

7) The legal remedy of the warehouseman in case of conflicting claims is to ______.

a) file an action for interpleader

b) give the goods to the first one who first presented the warehouse receipt

c) use his discretion as to who he believes has the prior right

d) keep the goods and appropriate them to himself

Answer 7

a) file an action for interpleader

Question 8

8) BBB Banking Corporation issued a Letter of Credit in the amount of P5Million, for the purchase of five (5) tons of corn by X. Upon arrival of the goods, the goods were delivered to the warehouse of X. Thereafter he was asked to sign a Trust Receipt covering the goods. When the goods were sold, X did not deliver the proceeds to BBB Banking Corporation, arguing that he will need the fund for the subsequent importation.

Is there sufficient basis to sue for criminal action?

a) Yes, because X’s failure to turn over the proceeds to the bank is a violation of the Trust Receipt Law.

b) No, because the trust receipt was signed only after the delivery of the goods. When the trust receipt was signed, the ownership of the goods was already with X.

c) Yes, because violation of Trust Receipt Law is mala prohibita, intention is irrelevant.

d) No, because X has a valid reason not to deliver the proceeds to BBB Banking Corporation.

Answer 8

a) Yes, because X’s failure to turn over the proceeds to the bank is a violation of the Trust Receipt Law.

c) Yes, because violation of Trust Receipt Law is mala prohibita, intention is irrelevant.

Question 9

9) X secured a loan from BBB Bank to pay for the importation of some dried fruits. Upon arrival of the goods consisting of dried fruits imported by X but before delivery to him, a trust receipt was executed by X to cover the transfer of the dried fruits to his possession. The dried fruits were so saleable but instead of turning over the proceeds of the sale, X used the funds to pay for the medical expenses of his mother who was sick of cancer of the bone.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) X cannot be held criminally liable because although he did not pay the bank he used the proceeds for a good reason.

b) Fraud or deceit is a necessary element to hold X criminally liable for non -payment under the Trust Receipts Law.

c) X can be held criminally liable under the Trust Receipts Law regardless of the purpose or intention for the use of the proceeds.

d) X cannot be held criminally liable because the underlying obligation is one of simple loan.

Answer 9

c) X can be held criminally liable under the Trust Receipts Law regardless of the purpose or intention for the use of the proceeds.

Question 10

10) X is the President of AAA Products Corporation. X signs all the Trust Receipts documents for certain importations of the company. In the event of failure to deliver the proceeds of the sale of the goods to the bank, which statement is most accurate?

a) The criminal liability will not attach to X as President because of separate juridical personality.

b) For violation of Trust Receipts Law, the law specifically provides for the imposition of penalty upon directors I officers of the corporation.

c) The officer will not be held criminally accountable because he is just signing the trust receipt for and in behalf of the corporation.

d) The officer of the corporation will be held liable provided it is clear that the officer concerned participated in the decision not to pay.

Answer 10

b) For violation of Trust Receipts Law, the law specifically provides for the imposition of penalty upon directors I officers of the corporation.

Question 11

11) Who is the Entrustee in a Trust Receipt arrangement?

a) the owner of the goods

b) the one who holds the goods and receives the proceeds from the sale of the goods

c) the person to whom goods are delivered for sale and who bears the risk of the loss

d) the party who acquires security interest in the goods

Answer 11

c) the person to whom goods are delivered for sale and who bears the risk of the loss

Question 12

12) Which phrase best completes the statement?

In accordance with the Trust Receipt Law, purchasers of the goods from the Entrustee will _______.

a) get the goods only as a collateral

b) not get good title to the goods

c) only get security interest over the goods

d) get good title to the goods

Answer 12

d) get good title to the goods

Question 13

13) X acted as an accommodation party in signing as a maker of a promissory note.

Which phrase best completes the sentence?

This means that X is liable on the instrument to any holder for value _________.

a) for as long as the holder does not know that X is only an accommodation party

b) even though the holder knew all along that X is only an accommodation party

c) for as long as X did not receive any consideration for acting as accommodation party

d) provided X received consideration for acting as accommodation party

Answer 13

b) even though the holder knew all along that X is only an accommodation party

Question 14

14) X issued a promissory note which states, “I promise to pay Y or order Php100,000.00 or one (1) unit Volvo Sedan.”

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The promissory note is negotiable because the forms of payment are clearly stated.

b) The promissory note is non-negotiable because the option as to which form of payment is with the maker.

c) The promissory note is an invalid instrument because there is more than one form of payment.

d) The promissory note can be negotiated by way of delivery.

Answer 14

b) The promissory note is non-negotiable because the option as to which form of payment is with the maker.

Question 15

15) X issued a promissory note which states “I promise to pay Y or bearer the amount of HK$50,000 on or before December 30, 2013.”

Is the promissory note negotiable?

a) No, the promissory note becomes invalid because the amount is in foreign currency.

b) Yes, the promissory note is negotiable even though the amount is stated in foreign currency.

c) No, the promissory note is not negotiable because the amount is in foreign currency.

d) Yes, the promissory note is negotiable because the Hong Kong dollar is a known foreign currency in the Philippines.

Answer 15

b) Yes, the promissory note is negotiable even though the amount is stated in foreign currency.

Question 16

16) X delivered a check issued by him and payable to the order of CASH to Y in payment for certain obligations incurred by X in favor of Y. Y then delivered the check to Z in payment for certain obligations.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) Z can encash the check even though Y did not indorse the check.

b) Z cannot encash the check for lacking in proper endorsement.

c) Y is the only one liable because he was the one who delivered the check to Z.

d) The negotiation is not valid because the check is an instrument payable to order.

Answer 16

a) Z can encash the check even though Y did not indorse the check.

Question 17

17) A stale check is a check ____.

a) that cannot anymore be paid although the underlying obligation still exists

b) that cannot anymore be paid and the underlying obligation under the check is also extinguished

c) that can still be negotiated or indorsed so that whoever is the holder can

d) which has not been presented for payment within a period of thirty (30) days

Answer 17

a) that cannot anymore be paid although the underlying obligation still exists

Question 18

18) In payment for his debt in favor of X, Y gave X a Manager’s Check in the amount of Php100,000 dated May 30, 2012.

Which phrase best completes the statement?

A Manager’s Check _______.

a) is a check issued by a manager of a bank for his own account

b) is a check issued by a manager of a bank in the name of the bank against the bank itself for the account of the bank

c) is like any ordinary check that needs to be presented for payment also

d) is better than a cashier’s check in terms of use and effect

Answer 18

b) is a check issued by a manager of a bank in the name of the bank against the bank itself for the account of the bank

Question 19

19) Which phrase best completes the statement?

A check which is payable to bearer is a bearer instrument and _________.

a) negotiation can be made by delivery only

b) negotiation must be by written indorsement

c) negotiation must be by specific indorsement

d) negotiation must be by indorsement and delivery

Answer 19

a) negotiation can be made by delivery only

Question 20

20) As payment for a debt, X issued a promissory note in favor of Y but the promissory note on its face was marked non-negotiable. Then Y instead of indorsing the promissory note, assigned the same in favor of Z to whom he owed some debt also.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) Z cannot claim payment from X on the basis of the promissory note because it is marked non-negotiable.

b) Z can claim payment from X even though it is marked non-negotiable.

c) Z can claim payment from Y because under the Negotiable Instrument Law, negotiation and assignment is one and the same.

d) Z can claim payment from Y only because he was the endorser of the promissory note.

Answer 20

b) Z can claim payment from X even though it is marked non-negotiable.

Question 21

21) Negotiable instruments are used as substitutes for money, which means _________.

a) that they can be considered legal tender

b) that when negotiated, they can be used to pay indebtedness

c) that at all times the delivery of the instrument is equivalent to delivery of the cash

d) that at all times negotiation of the instruments requires proper indorsement

Answer 21

b) that when negotiated, they can be used to pay indebtedness

Question 22

22) The signature of X was forged as drawer of a check. The check was deposited in the account of Y and when deposited was accepted by AAA Bank, the drawee bank. Subsequently, AAA Bank found out that the signature of X was actually forged.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The drawee bank can recover from Y, because the check was deposited in his account.

b) The drawee bank can recover from X, because he is the drawer even though his signature was forged.

c) The drawee bank is estopped from denying the genuineness of the signature of the X, the drawer of the check.

d) The drawee bank can recover from Y because as endorser he warrants the genuineness of the signature.

Answer 22

c) The drawee bank is estopped from denying the genuineness of the signature of the X, the drawer of the check.

Question 23

23) A issued a check in the amount of Php20,000 payable to B. B endorsed the check but only to the extent of Php1 0,000.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The partial indorsement is not a valid indorsement, although will result in the assignment of that part.

b) The partial indorsement will invalidate the whole instrument.

c) The endorsee will be considered as a holder in due course.

d) The partial indorsement is valid indorsement up to the extent of the Php10,000.

Answer 23

a) The partial indorsement is not a valid indorsement, although will result in the assignment of that part.

Question 24

24) A promissory note which does not have the words “or order” or “or bearer” will render the promissory note non-negotiable, and therefore ________.

a) it will render the maker not liable

b) the note can still be assigned and the maker made liable

c) the holder can become holder in due course

d) the promissory note can just be delivered and the maker will still be liable

Answer 24

b) the note can still be assigned and the maker made liable

Question 25

25) A check is _______.

a) a bill of exchange

b) the same as a promissory note

c) is drawn by a maker

d) a non-negotiable instrument

Answer 25

a) a bill of exchange

Question 26

26) A check was issued to Tiger Woods. But what was written as payee is the word “Tiger Woods”. To validly endorse the check ________.

a) Tiger Woods must sign his real name

b) Tiger Woods must sign both his real name and assumed name

c) Tiger Woods can sign his assumed name

d) the check has become non-negotiable

Answer 26

c) Tiger Woods can sign his assumed name

Question 27

27) Y, as President of and in behalf of AAA Corporation, as a way to accommodate X, one of its stockholders, endorsed the check issued by X.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) It is an ultra vires act.

b) It is a valid indorsement.

c) The corporation will be held liable to any holder in due course.

d) It is an invalid indorsement.

Answer 27

a) It is an ultra vires act.

b) It is a valid indorsement.

[Note:
Choice a) is supported by the case of Jose v. CA, et al., G.R. No. 80599, September 15, 1989.

Choice b) is supported by Section 22 of the Negotiable Instruments Law.]

Question 28

28) In a negotiable instrument, when the sum is expressed both in numbers and in words and there is discrepancy between the words and the numbers __________.

a) the sum expressed in words will prevail over the one expressed in numbers

b) the sum expressed in numbers will prevail over the one expressed in words

c) the instrument becomes void because of the discrepancy

d) this will render the instrument invalid

Answer 28

a) the sum expressed in words will prevail over the one expressed in numbers

Question 29

29) A promissory note which is undated is presumed to be ______.

a) dated as of the date of issue

b) dated as of the date of the first indorsement

c) promissory note is invalid because there is no date

d) dated on due date

Answer 29

a) dated as of the date of issue

Question 30

30) An insurance contract is an aleatory contract, which means that ___________.

a) the insurer will pay the insured equivalent to the amount of the premium paid

b) the obligation of the insurer is to pay depending upon the happening of an uncertain future event

c) the insured pays a fixed premium for the duration of the policy period and the amount of the premiums paid to the insurer is not necessarily the same amount as what the insured will get upon the happening of an uncertain future event

d) the obligation of the insurer is to pay depending upon the happening of an event that is certain to happen

Answer 30

b) the obligation of the insurer is to pay depending upon the happening of an uncertain future event

Question 31

31) An Insurance Contract is a contract of adhesion, which means that in resolving ambiguities in the provision of the insurance contract, _______.

a) the general rule is that, the insurance contract is to be interpreted strictly in accordance with what is written in the contract

b) are to be construed liberally in favor of the insured and strictly against the insurer who drafted the insurance policy

c) are to be construed strictly against the insured and liberally in favor of the insurer

d) if there is an ambiguity in the insurance contract, this will invalidate the contract

Answer 31

b) are to be construed liberally in favor of the insured and strictly against the insurer who drafted the insurance policy

Question 32

32) X is the common law wife of Y. Y loves X so much that he took out a life insurance on his own life and made her the sole beneficiary. Y did this to ensure that X will be financially comfortable when he is gone. Upon the death of Y, _______.

a) X as sole beneficiary under the life insurance policy on the life of Y will be entitled to the proceeds of the life insurance

b) despite the designation of X as the sole beneficiary, the proceeds of the life insurance will go to the estate of Y

c) the proceeds of the life insurance will go to the compulsory heirs of Y

d) the proceeds of the life insurance will be divided equally amongst X and the compulsory heirs of Y

Answer 32

a) X as sole beneficiary under the life insurance policy on the life of Y will be entitled to the proceeds of the life insurance

Question 33

33) X, in January 30, 2009, or two (2) years before reaching the age of 65, insured his life for Php20Million. For reason unknown to his family, he took his own life two (2) days after his 65th birthday. The policy contains no excepted risk.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The insurer will be liable.

b) The insurer will not be liable.

c) The state of sanity of the insured is relevant in cases of suicide in order to hold the insurer liable.

d) The state of sanity of the insured is irrelevant in cases of suicide in order to hold the insurer liable.

Answer 33

a) The insurer will be liable.

Question 34

34) X, a minor, contracted an insurance on his own life.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The life insurance policy is void ab initio.

b) The life insurance is valid provided it is with the consent of the beneficiary.

c) The life insurance policy is valid provided the beneficiary is his estate or his parents, or spouse or child.

d) The life insurance is valid provided the disposition of the proceeds will be subject to the approval of the legal guardian of the minor.

Answer 34

c) The life insurance policy is valid provided the beneficiary is his estate or his parents, or spouse or child.

Question 35

35) The “incontestability clause” in a Life Insurance Policy means _____________.

a) that life insurance proceeds cannot be claimed two (2) years after the death of the insured

b) that two (2) years after date of issuance or reinstatement of the life insurance policy, the insurer cannot anymore prove that the policy is void ab initio or rescindable by reason of fraudulent concealment or misrepresentation of the insured

c) that the insured can still claim from the insurance policy after two (2) years even though premium is not paid

d) that the insured can only claim proceeds in a life insurance· policy two (2) years after death

Answer 35

b) that two (2) years after date of issuance or reinstatement of the life insurance policy, the insurer cannot anymore prove that the policy is void ab initio or rescindable by reason of fraudulent concealment or misrepresentation of the insured

Question 36

36) For both the Life Insurance and Property Insurance, the insurable interest is required to be ____________.

a) existing at the time of perfection of the contract and at the time of loss

b) existing at the time of perfection and at the time of loss for property insurance but only at the time of perfection for life insurance

c) existing at the time of perfection for property insurance but for life insurance both at the time of perfection and at the time of loss

d) existing at the time of perfection only

Answer 36

b) existing at the time of perfection and at the time of loss for property insurance but only at the time of perfection for life insurance

Question 37

37) A house and lot is covered by a real estate mortgage (REM) in favor of ZZZ Bank. The bank required that the house be insured. The owner of the policy failed to endorse nor assign the policy to the bank. However, the Deed of Real Estate Mortgage has an express provision which says that the insurance policy is also endorsed with the signing of the REM.

Will this be sufficient?

a) No, insurance policy must be expressly endorsed to the bank so that the bank will have a right in the proceeds of such insurance in the event of loss.

b) The express provision contained in the Deed of Real Estate Mortgage to the effect that the policy is also endorsed is sufficient.

c) Endorsement of Insurance Policy in any form is not legally allowed.

d) Endorsement of the Insurance Policy must be in a formal document to be valid.

Answer 37

a) No, insurance policy must be expressly endorsed to the bank so that the bank will have a right in the proceeds of such insurance in the event of loss.

Question 38

38) X is a passenger of a jeepney for hire being driven by Y. The jeepney collided with another passenger jeepney being driven by Z who was driving recklessly. As a result of the collision, X suffered injuries. Both passenger jeepneys are covered by Comprehensive Motor Vehicular Insurance Coverage. If X wants to claim under the “no fault indemnity clause”, his claim will lie ________.

a) against the insurer of the jeepney being driven by Z who was the one at fault

b) the claim shall lie against the insurer of the passenger jeepney driven by Y because X was his passenger

c) X has a choice against whom he wants to make his claim

d) none of the above

Answer 38

b) the claim shall lie against the insurer of the passenger jeepney driven by Y because X was his passenger

Question 39

39) X insured the building she owns with two (2) insurance companies for the same amount. In case of damage, _______.

a) X can not claim from any of the two (2) insurers because with the double insurance, the insurance coverage becomes automatically void

b) the two (2) insurers will be solidarily liable to the extent of the loss

c) the two (2) insurers will be proportionately liable

d) X can choose who he wants to claim against

Answer 39

d) X can choose who he wants to claim against

Question 40

40) When X insured his building, X indicated in the application that it is a residential building, but actually the building was being used as a warehouse for some hazardous materials.

What is the effect on the insurance policy, if any?

a) The insurance policy can be cancelled because of the change in the use.

b) The insurance policy will automatically be changed.

c) The insurance policy need not be changed.

d) The insurance policy is fixed regardless of the change in the use.

Answer 40

No correct answer.

[It is recommended that examinees be given full credit for whatever answer they gave as the question is unclear. What is clear is that there was misrepresentation on the part of X when he indicated in his application that the building is residential when it was actually being used as a warehouse. The problem does not indicate that the change in the use of the house was carried out by X and that it was done without the permission of the insurer. ]

Question 41

41) X owned a house and lot. X insured the house. The house got burned. Then he sold the partially burnt house and the lot to Y.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) X is not anymore entitled to the proceeds of the insurance policy because he already sold the partially burnt house and lot.

b) X is still entitled to the proceeds of the insurance policy because what is material is that at the time of the loss, X is the owner of the house and lot.

c) No one is entitled to the proceeds because ownership over the house and lot was already transferred.

d) Y will be the one entitled to the proceeds because he now owns the partially burnt house and lot.

Answer 41

b) X is still entitled to the proceeds of the insurance policy because what is material is that at the time of the loss, X is the owner of the house and lot.

Question 42

42) X, while driving his Toyota Altis, tried to cross the railway tract of Philippine (xxx line 2 unread text xxx) approached Blumentritt Avenida Ext., applied its horn as a warning to all the vehicles that might be crossing the railway tract, but there was really nobody manning the crossing. X was listening to his lpod touch, hence, he did not hear the sound of the horn of the train and so his car was hit by the train. As a result of the accident, X suffered some injuries and his car was totally destroyed as a result of the impact.

Is PNR liable?

a) PNR is not liable because X should have known that he was crossing a place designated as crossing for train, and therefore should have been more careful.

b) PNR is liable because Railroad companies owe to the public a duty of exercising a reasonable degree of care to avoid injury to person and property at railroad crossings which means a flagman or a watchman should have been posted to warn the public at all times.

c) PNR is not liable because it blew its horn when it was about to cross the railway along Blumentritt Avenida Ext.

d) PNR is not liable because X was negligent, for listening to his lpod touch while driving.

Answer 42

a) PNR is not liable because X should have known that he was crossing a place designated as crossing for train, and therefore should have been more careful.

Question 43

43) The AAA Bus Company picks up passengers along EDSA. X, the conductor, while on board the bus, drew his gun and randomly shot the passengers inside. As a result, Y, a passenger, was shot and died instantly.

Is AAA Bus Company liable?

a) The bus company is not liable for as long as the bus company can show that when they hired X, they did the right selection process.

b) The bus company cannot be held liable because what X did is not part of his responsibility.

c) The bus company is liable because common carriers are liable for the negligence or willful act of its employees even though they acted beyond the scope of their responsibility.

d) The bus company is not liable because there is no way that the bus company can anticipate the act of X.

Answer 43

c) The bus company is liable because common carriers are liable for the negligence or willful act of its employees even though they acted beyond the scope of their responsibility.

Question 44

44) X is a trader of school supplies in Calapan, Oriental Mindoro. To bring the school supplies to Calapan, it has to be transported by a vessel. Because there were so many passengers, the two (2) boxes of school supplies were loaded but the shipping company was not able to issue the Bill of Lading. So, on board, the Ship Captain issued instead a “shipping receipt” to X indicating the two (2) boxes of school supplies being part of the cargo of the vessel.

Which phrase, therefore, is the most accurate?

a) The owner of the vessel is not liable because no bill of lading was issued to X hence, no contract of carriage was perfected.

b) It is possible to have a contract of carriage of cargo even without a bill of lading, and the “shipping receipt” would be sufficient.

c) The only acceptable document of title is a Bill of Lading.

d) None of the above.

Answer 44

b) It is possible to have a contract of carriage of cargo even without a bill of lading, and the “shipping receipt” would be sufficient.

Question 45

45) X took Philippine Airlines Flight PR 102 to Los Angeles, USA. She had two (2) luggage checked-in and was issued two (2) baggage checks. When X reached Los Angeles one (1) of the two (2) checked in luggage could not be found.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) PAL is liable for the loss of the checked- in luggage under the provisions of the Warsaw Convention on Air Transport.

b) PAL is liable for the loss only if the baggage check expressly states that the airline shall be liable in case of loss.

c) PAL cannot be held liable because that is the risk that a passenger takes when she checks- in her baggage.

d) PAL can only be held liable if it can be proven that PAL was negligent.

Answer 45

a) PAL is liable for the loss of the checked- in luggage under the provisions of the Warsaw Convention on Air Transport.

Question 46

46) X owns a passenger jeepney covered by Certificate of Public Convenience. He allowed Y to use its Certificate of Convenience for a consideration. Y therefore was operating the passenger jeepney under the same Certificate of Public Convenience (Kabit System) under the name of X. The passenger jeepney met an accident.

Who will be liable?

a) Y, the one actually operating the jeepney, will be liable to the injured party.

b) X will be the one liable to the injured party despite the fact that it is Y who is actually operating the jeepney, because while the Kabit System is tolerated, the public should not be inconvenienced by the arrangement.

c) X will not be held liable if he can prove that he is not the owner anymore.

d) Public Policy dictates that the real owner, even not the registered one, will be held liable.

Answer 46

b) X will be the one liable to the injured party despite the fact that it is Y who is actually operating the jeepney, because while the Kabit System is tolerated, the public should not be inconvenienced by the arrangement.

Question 47

47) X owns a fleet of taxicabs. He operates it through what is known as boundary system. Y drives one of such taxicabs and pays X a fixed amount of Php 1,000 daily under the boundary system. This means that anything above Php 1,000 would be the earnings of Y. Y, driving recklessly, hit an old lady crossing the street.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) X as the owner is exempt from liability because he was not the one driving.

b) X as the owner is exempt from liability because precisely the arrangement is one under the “boundary system”.

c) X will not be exempt from liability because he remains to be the registered owner and the boundary system will not allow the circumvention of the law to avoid liability.

d) Y is the only one liable because he drove recklessly.

Answer 47

c) X will not be exempt from liability because he remains to be the registered owner and the boundary system will not allow the circumvention of the law to avoid liability.

Question 48

48) The Articles of Incorporation of AAA Corporation was approved by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). After the receipt of the Certificate of Approval from the SEC, AAA Corporation decided to immediately start the operation of its business despite the fact that it has no approved By-Laws.

What is the legal status of the AAA Corporation?

a) a de jure corporation

b) a de facto corporation

c) a corporation by estoppel

d) an unregistered corporation

Answer 48

a) a de jure corporation

Question 49

49) X, the President of ZZZ Corporation, was authorized by the Board of Directors of ZZZ Corporation to obtain a loan from YYY Bank and to sign documents in behalf of the corporation. X personally negotiated for the loan and got tile loan at very low interest rates. Upon maturity of the loan, ZZZ Corporation was unable to pay.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) Because X was personally acting in behalf of the Corporation, he can be held personally liable.

b) X, as President, cannot be personally held liable for the obligation of the corporation even though he signed all the loan documents, because the loan was authorized by the Board.

c) YYY Bank can choose as to who it wants to hold liable for the loan.

d) If ZZZ Corporation cannot pay, X can be held subsidiarity liable.

Answer 49

b) X, as President, cannot be personally held liable for the obligation of the corporation even though he signed all the loan documents, because the loan was authorized by the Board.

Question 50

50) X owns 99% of the capital stock of SSS Corporation. X also owns 99% of TTT Corporation. SSS Corporation obtained a loan from VW Bank. On due date, SSS Corporation defaulted. TTT Corporation is financially healthy.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) X being a controlling owner of SSS Corporation can automatically be held personally liable for the loan of SSS Corporation.

b) TTT Corporation, owned 99% by X, can automatically be held liable.

c) SSS Corporation and TTT Corporation, although both are owned by X, are two (2) distinct corporations with separate juridical personalities hence, the TTT Corporation cannot automatically be held liable for the loan of SSS Corporation.

d) The principle of piercing the veil of corporate fiction can be applied in this case.

Answer 50

c) SSS Corporation and TTT Corporation, although both are owned by X, are two (2) distinct corporations with separate juridical personalities hence, the TTT Corporation cannot automatically be held liable for the loan of SSS Corporation.

Question 51

51) A corporation generally can issue both par value stock and no par value stock. These are all fixed in the Articles of Incorporation of the corporation.

Which of the following corporations may not be allowed to issue no par value shares?

a) Insurance companies

b) Banks

c) Trust companies

d) All of the above

Answer 51

b) Banks

Question 52

52) Father X, an American priest who came from New York, registered the Diocese of Bacolod of the Roman Catholic Church which was incorporated as a corporation sole. There were years when the head of the Diocese was a Filipino, but there were more years when the heads were foreigners. Today, the head is an American again. Y donated a piece of land located in Bacolod City for use as a school.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The Register of Deeds of Bacolod City can refuse to register and transfer the title because the present head of the corporation sole is not a Filipino.

b) The nationality of a corporation sole depends upon the nationality of the head at any given time.

c) A corporation sole, regardless of the nationality of the head, can acquire real property either by sale or donation.

d) A corporation sole is not legally allowed to own real property.

Answer 52

c) A corporation sole, regardless of the nationality of the head, can acquire real property either by sale or donation.

Question 53

53) The number of the Board of Trustees of a non-stock, non-profit educational institution should be _________.

a) five (5) only

b) any number for as long as it is not less than five (5) and no more than eleven (11)

c) any number in multiples of five (5), for as long as it is not less than five (5) and no more than fifteen (15)

d) not less than five (5) nor more than ten (1 0) in multiples of five (5)

Answer 53

c) any number in multiples of five (5), for as long as it is not less than five (5) and no more than fifteen (15)

Question 54

54) X subscribed 10,000 shares in the capital stocks of AAA Corporation. He paid 50% of the 10,000 shares. X asked the Corporate Secretary to issue him the corresponding stock certificate representing the 50% of what he already paid. The Corporate Secretary of the corporation refused.

Was the Corporate Secretary correct?

a) The Corporate Secretary is correct because the Corporation Code provides that no certificate of stock shall be issued to a subscriber until the shares as subscribed have been fully paid.

b) The Corporate Secretary cannot refuse because a Stock Certificate can be issued corresponding to the percentage of shares which were paid.

c) The Corporate Secretary cannot refuse because a Certificate of Stock can be issued provided it is indicated in the Certificate the actual percentage of what has been paid.

d) The Corporate Secretary cannot refuse because it is his legal duty to issue a stock certificate corresponding to the number of shares actually subscribed regardless of the actual payment.

Answer 54

a) The Corporate Secretary is correct because the Corporation Code provides that no certificate of stock shall be issued to a subscriber until the shares as subscribed have been fully paid.

Question 55

55) XXX Corporation and YYY Corporation have agreed to be merged into one corporation. To facilitate the merger, both corporations agreed that the merger be made effective on May 31,2012. The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) approved the Articles of Merger on June 30, 2012.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The effective date of the merger is May 31, 2012, the date stipulated by the parties as the effective date.

b) The effective date of the merger is always the date of the approval of the Articles of Merger by the SEC.

c) The effective date of the merger would be the date approved by the Board of Directors and the stockholders.

d) The stockholders and the Board of Directors can set the effective date of the merger anytime after the approval of the SEC.

Answer 55

b) The effective date of the merger is always the date of the approval of the Articles of Merger by the SEC.

Question 56

56) AAA Corporation is a wholly owned subsidiary of BBB Corporation. To support the business of AAA Corporation, BBB Corporation agreed to give its corporate guarantee to the loan of AAA Corporation.

What is required so that the corporate guarantee will be valid?

a) It only requires the approval of the Board of Directors of BBB Corporation.

b) The Articles of Incorporation must provide such power and be approved by the Board of Directors.

c) Providing corporate guarantee to another corporation is a necessary exercise of power of a corporation.

d) It would require both the approval of the Board of Directors and the stockholders on record.

Answer 56

a) It only requires the approval of the Board of Directors of BBB Corporation.

Question 57

57) The capital stock of ABC Corporation is divided into common shares and preferred shares. Preferred shares are preferred as to dividends and common shares are those shares which have the regular and ordinary attributes of a share of a corporation.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) This kind of classification may not be allowed or else it will violate the Doctrine of Equality of shares.

b) Classifications of shares may be allowed for as long as it is clearly stated as such in the Articles of Incorporation of the Corporation.

c) Classifications of shares is mainly for business purpose to attract investors.

d) Classifications of shares may be allowed with the approval of the stockholders and the Board of Directors.

Answer 57

b) Classifications of shares may be allowed for as long as it is clearly stated as such in the Articles of Incorporation of the Corporation.

Question 58

58) ABC Corporation declared stock dividends to its stockholders. The stock dividends were approved by the Board of Directors of ABC Corporation. In the subsequent year however, the Board again approved the redemption of all stock dividends and to pay the shareholdings in cash.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The redemption of the stock dividends can be validly approved by the Board without any conditions.

b) The redemption of stock dividends may only be allowed if there are sufficient earnings and should not be violative of the trust fund doctrine.

c) The redemption of the shares may be taken from the existing property and other assets of the corporation.

d) None of the above.

Answer 58

No correct answer.

[It is recommended that examinees be given full credit for whatever answer they gave as the question is vague. It does not state that stockholders representing at least two-thirds of the outstanding capital stock approved the declaration of stock dividends.]

Question 59

59) X sold all his shares in AAA Hotel Corporation to Y. X owns 99% of AAA Hotel Corporation. As the new owner, Y wanted a reorganization of the hotel which is to include primarily the separation of all existing employees and the hiring of new employees.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) With the change in ownership, in effect there is a new juridical entity and therefore all employees are considered separated.

b) Despite the change in shareholder, there is actually no change in the juridical entity and therefore existing employees can not automatically be considered separated.

c) Y, as the new shareholder, has the right to retain only those employees who in his judgment are qualified.

d) For as long as the existing employees are given their separation pay, they can be terminated.

Answer 59

b) Despite the change in shareholder, there is actually no change in the juridical entity and therefore existing employees can not automatically be considered separated.

Question 60

60) South China Airlines is a foreign airline company. South China Airlines tickets are sold in the Philippines though Philippine Airlines as their general agent. South China Airlines is not registered to do business as such with the Philippine Securities and Exchange Commission.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) Although unlicensed to do business in the Philippines, South China Airlines can sue before the Philippine Courts and can also be sued.

b) South China Airlines can sue but cannot be sued.

c) South China Airlines cannot sue and cannot be sued also.

d) South China Airlines can be sued in Philippine Courts but cannot sue.

Answer 60

d) South China Airlines can be sued in Philippine Courts but cannot sue.

Question 61

61) So that ABC Corporation could venture into more projects, it needed to raise funds by issuing new shares to increase its capitalization. X, Y, Z, J and G are the five existing shareholders of the company. They hold 20% each.

How will the additional shares be divided among the existing shareholders?

a) The existing shareholders can subscribe to the new shares equivalent to their existing shareholdings because the Corporation Code provides that each of the existing stockholders will have preemptive rights to the extent of their existing shareholdings.

b) The existing shareholders’ preemptive rights are equivalent to the percentage that they want.

c) Each of the existing shareholder can exercise their right of first refusal against each other.

d) Preemptive rights and right of first refusal are one and the same.

Answer 61

a) The existing shareholders can subscribe to the new shares equivalent to their existing shareholdings because the Corporation Code provides that each of the existing stockholders will have preemptive rights to the extent of their existing shareholdings.

Question 62

62) If ABC Corporation will increase its authorized capital stock, the Corporation Code requires __________.

a) the approval of the majority of the Board of Directors only

b) the approval of the majority of the stockholders and the Board of Directors

c) the approval of 2/3 of the shareholders of the outstanding capital stock as well as the approval of the Securities and Exchange Commission

d) the approval of the majority of the Board of Directors and approval of the shareholders holding 2/3 share of the outstanding capital stock

Answer 62

No correct answer.

[It is recommended that examinees be given full credit for whatever answer they gave as the question is vague. It does not state that the increase of the authorized stock capital stock also requires the approval of the SEC.]

Question 63

63) X is a minority stockholder of CCC Corporation. Y is a member of the Board of Directors of CCC Corporation and at the same time he is the President. X believes that Y is mismanaging CCC Corporation hence, as a stockholder and in behalf of the other stockholders, he wanted to sue Y.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) X can institute a derivative suit in behalf of himself as a stockholder.

b) A derivative suit must be instituted in behalf of the corporation.

c) Derivative suit is an exclusive remedy that X can institute.

d) Derivative suit is not the remedy in this situation.

Answer 63

b) A derivative suit must be instituted in behalf of the corporation.

Question 64

64) The term GGG Corporation in accordance with its Articles of Incorporation ended last January 30, 2012. The term was not extended.

What will happen to the corporation?

a) The corporation is dissolved ipso facto.

b) There is a need to pass a board resolution to formally dissolve the corporation.

c) The Board of Directors must pass a resolution for the corporation to formally go into liquidation.

d) The stockholders must pass a resolution to dissolve the corporation.

Answer 64

a) The corporation is dissolved ipso facto.

Question 65

65) The term of one (1) year of the Board of Directors of AAA Corporation expired last February 15, 2012. No new election of the Board of Directors was called, hence, the existing members of Board continue as Directors in hold over capacity.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) This is allowed provided there is a valid and justifiable reason for not calling for an election of the new members of the Board.

b) This is not allowed because the term of the directors must only be for one (1) year.

c) The positions of the members of the Board of Directors will be automatically declared vacant.

d) Acting as members of the Board of Directors in a hold over capacity must be ratified by the stockholders.

Answer 65

a) This is allowed provided there is a valid and justifiable reason for not calling for an election of the new members of the Board.

Question 66

66) AAA Corporation is a foreign corporation that wants to operate a representative office here in the Philippines. As required by the Corporation Code, there is a need to appoint a Resident Agent as a condition precedent to the issuance of a license to transact business in the Philippines. After two (2) years, AAA Corporation removed its Resident Agent and did not appoint anyone anymore.

Which statement is the most accurate?

a) This can be a ground for revocation or suspension of its license to do business.

b) There is no more effect in the license because anyway at the time of registration, a resident agent was appointed.

c) This can be a ground for suspension only.

d) This will result in automatic revocation of its license to do business in the Philippines.

Answer 66

a) This can be a ground for revocation or suspension of its license to do business.

Question 67

67) The By-laws of ABC Corporation is silent as to when a stockholder can be qualified to attend the meeting of the stockholders. The Corporate Secretary sent out the notice of the stockholders meeting two (2) days before the meeting and at that time X was not yet a stockholder. On the day of the meeting, however, X became a shareholder which was duly recorded in the stock and transfer book.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) X is a stockholder of ABC Corporation as of the time of meeting of the stockholders for the purpose of electing the members of the board.

b) X is not qualified to elect members of the board because at the time the notice of the meeting was sent, she was not yet a stockholder.

c) Qualifications as to who are considered as stockholders on record for purposes of being able to elect members of the board are to be determined by the By-laws alone.

d) None of the above.

Answer 67

a) X is a stockholder of ABC Corporation as of the time of meeting of the stockholders for the purpose of electing the members of the board.

Question 68

68) X, who is the Executive Vice President of ABC Corporation, a listed company, can be held liable or guilty of insider trading if, he _______.

a) bought shares of ABC Corporation when it was planning to acquire another company to improve its asset base, the news of which increased the price of the shares in the Stock Exchange

b) bought shares of XYC Corporation, a sister company of ABC Corporation when he learned that XYC Corporation was about to also list its share in the Philippine Stock Exchange

c) bought shares of ZZZ Corporation when he learned that ABC Corporation would acquire ZZZ Corporation

d) all of the above

Answer 68

d) all of the above

Question 69

69) The purpose of the “Tender Offer” Rule is to ________.

a) ensure an even playing field for all shareholders of a company in terms of opportunity to sell their shareholdings

b) ensure that minority shareholders in a publicly listed company are protected in the sense that they will equally have the same opportunity as the majority shareholders in terms of selling their shares

c) ensure that the shareholders who would also want to sell their shareholdings will have the opportunity for a better price

d) all of the above

Answer 69

d) all of the above

Question 70

70) Section 38 of The Securities Regulation Code defines an independent director as a person who must not have a relation with the corporation which would interfere with his exercise of independent judgment in carrying out the responsibilities of a director. To ensure independence therefore, he must be _______.

a) nominated and elected by the entire shareholders

b) nominated and elected by the minority shareholders

c) nominated and elected by the majority shareholders

d) appointed by the Board

Answer 70

c) nominated and elected by the majority shareholders

Question 71

71) “Securities” issued to the public are required by law to be registered with _________.

a) the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas

b) the Philippine Stock Exchange

c) the Securities and Exchange Commission

d) the Securities and Exchange Commission and the Philippine Stock Exchange

Answer 71

c) the Securities and Exchange Commission

Question 72

72) The government agency granted with the power of supervision and examination over banks and non-bank financial institutions performing quasi-banking functions, to ensure that the conduct of its business is on a sound financial basis that will provide continued solvency and liquidity is ________.

a) The Philippine Deposit Insurance Corporation

b) The Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas

c) The Anti-Money Laundering Council

d) The Securities and Exchange Commission

Answer 72

b) The Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas

Question 73

73) X maintains a savings deposit in the amount of Php·1 Million with ABC Bank Corporation. X also has obtained a loan from ABC Bank Corporation in the amount of Php1 Million. In case of default, ________.

a) ABC Bank can set-off the loan from the savings account being maintained by X with ABC Bank

b) set-off is not possible because legal compensation is not allowed in banking transaction

c) deposit accounts are usually earmarked for specific purpose hence offsetting is not legally possible

d) off -setting is not possible because the obligation of X is a “simple loan”

Answer 73

a) ABC Bank can set-off the loan from the savings account being maintained by X with ABC Bank

Question 74

74) XYZ Corporation is engaged in lending funds to small vendors in various public markets. To fund the lending, XYZ Corporation raised funds through borrowings from friends and investors.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) XYZ Corporation is a bank.

b) XYZ Corporation is a quasi-bank.

c) XYZ Corporation is an Investment Company.

d) XYZ is none of the above.

Answer 74

b) XYZ Corporation is a quasi-bank.

Question 75

75) XXX Bank Corporation and ZZZ Corporation were merged into XX ZZ Bank Corporation. So as not to create any unnecessary conflict, all the former directors of both banks wanted to be appointed /elected as members of the Board of Directors of the merged bank. Each bank used to have eleven (11) members of the board. The maximum number of directors of the merged bank is ________.

a) 15

b) 22

c) 21

d) 11

Answer 75

c) 21

Question 76

76) All senior officers of ABC Bank are entitled to obtain a housing loan. X is an Executive Vice President for Operations of ABC Bank. She obtained a housing loan with the ABC Bank.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The housing loan of X requires a guarantor from somebody who is not connected with the bank.

b) The housing loan of X requires the approval of the Board of Directors of the bank.

c) The housing loan of X, being a benefit for employees, does not require (a) but will require (b).

d) The housing loan of X, being a benefit for employees, will not require (a) and (b).

Answer 76

d) The housing loan of X, being a benefit for employees, will not require (a) and (b).

Question 77

77) ABC Holdings Company, a Hong Kong company, owns 10% of XYZ Bank. Because of the peace and order situation in the Philippines, ABC Holding Company wanted to sell its shareholdings in XYZ Bank. Unfortunately, nobody is interested to buy a 1 0% shareholdings in a bank. The board of directors of XYZ Bank thought that it would be a good idea to buy back the shares owned by ABC Holding Company.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) Buying back the shares by XYZ Bank is absolutely not allowed.

b) Buying back the shares may be allowed provided it is with the approval of the Monetary Board and disposed of within six (6) months.

c) Buying back the shares may be allowed provided such shares ‘will be disposed of within ten (10) years.

d) Buying back the shares may be done anytime provided the Board of Directors will approve the same.

Answer 77

b) Buying back the shares may be allowed provided it is with the approval of the Monetary Board and disposed of within six (6) months.

Question 78

78) X is being charged for violation of Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices because he is suspected of having accumulated unexplained wealth. X maintains deposit accounts with ABC Bank. The Ombudsman filed criminal cases against X before the Sandiganbayan.

Can the Court issue subpoenas against ABC Bank to produce all documents pertaining to all the deposit accounts of X?

a) Yes, because there is already a pending case and provided the subpoena must be specific as to which account.

b) Yes, it is enough that the specific bank is identified.

c) No, because the issuance of the subpoena has no real legal basis.

d) Even without a subpoena, information about the deposit accounts of X can be submitted to the Sandiganbayan because it will be used in a pending case.

Answer 78

a) Yes, because there is already a pending case and provided the subpoena must be specific as to which account.

Question 79

79) X, a private individual, maintains a dollar deposit with ABC Bank. X is suspected to be the leader of a Kidnap for Ransom Gang and he is suspected of depositing all ransom money in said deposit account which are all in US Dollars. The police want to open said account to know if there are really deposits in big amounts.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The same rules under Secrecy of Bank Deposit Act will apply.

b) An approval from the Monetary Board is necessary to open the account.

c) Because the deposit is in US Dollars, it is covered by the Foreign Currency Deposit Act which allows disclosure only upon the written pesmission of the depositor.

d) Approval from the Court is necessary to order disclosure of the account.

Answer 79

a) The same rules under Secrecy of Bank Deposit Act will apply.

Question 80

80) X is a depositor of AAA Bank. She has three (3) deposit accounts all under her name. One, in checking account, one in saving account and another one in time deposit account. Each account has a balance of Php250,000. AAA Bank became insolvent. Philippine Deposit Insurance Corporation closed the Bank. X therefore is unable to withdraw from all of the accounts. She then filed her claims with the Philippine Deposit Insurance Corporation.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) X can claim a total of Php500,000 for all the three (3) accounts.

b) X can only claim from one (1) account of Php250,000.

c) X can claim a total of Php750,000 from all the three (3) accounts.

d) X cannot claim anything from any of the deposit accounts.

Answer 80

a) X can claim a total of Php500,000 for all the three (3) accounts.

Question 81

81) The Bank Secrecy Law (RA 1405) prohibits disclosing any information about deposit records of an individual without court order except ___________.

a) in an examination to determine gross estate of a decedent

b) in an investigation for violation of Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices

c) in an investigation by the Ombudsman

d) in an impeachment proceeding

Answer 81

a) in an examination to determine gross estate of a decedent

Question 82

82) X works as a research computer engineer with the Institute of Computer Technology, a government agency. When not busy with his work, but during office hours, he developed a software program for law firms that will allow efficient monitoring of the cases, which software program is not at all related to his work.

Assuming the program is patentable, who has the right over the patent?

a) X

b) Institute of Computer Technology

c) Neither X nor the Institute of Computer Technology can claim patent right over the invention

d) X and the employer of X will jointly have the rights over the patent

Answer 82

a) X

Question 83

83) The “test of dominancy” in the Law on Trademarks, is a way to determine whether there exists an infringement of a trademark by ____________.

a) determining if the use of the mark has been dominant in the market

b) focusing on the similarity of the prevalent features of the competing marks which might create confusion

c) looking at the mark whether they are similar in size, form or color

d) looking at the mark whether there is one specific feature that is dominant

Answer 83

b) focusing on the similarity of the prevalent features of the competing marks which might create confusion

Question 84

84) X’s painting of Madonna and Child was used by her mother to print some personalized gift wrapper. As part of her mother’s efforts to raise funds for Bantay Bata, the mother of X sold the wrapper to friends. Y, an entrepreneur, liked the painting in the wrapper and made many copies and sold the same through National Bookstore.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) Y can use the painting for his use because this is not a copyrightable material.

b) X can sue Y for infringement because artistic works are protected from moment of creation.

c) Works of art need to be copyrighted also to get protection under the law.

d) Y can use the drawing even though not copyrighted because it is already a public property having been published already.

Answer 84

b) X can sue Y for infringement because artistic works are protected from moment of creation.

Question 85

85) Compulsory Licensing of Inventions which are duly patented may be dispensed with or will be allowed exploitation even without agreement of the patent owner under certain circumstances, like national emergency, for reason of public interest, like national security, etc. The person who can grant such authority is ______________.

a) the Director General of the Intellectual Property Office

b) the Director of Legal Affairs of the Intellectual Property Office

c) the owner of the Patent right

d) any agent of the owner of the Patent right

Answer 85

b) the Director of Legal Affairs of the Intellectual Property Office

Question 86

86) The Fair Use Doctrine allows others to utilize copyrighted works under certain conditions. The factors to consider whether use is fair or not would be the purpose and character of the use, nature of the copyrighted work, amount and substantiality of the portions used, and what else?

a) effect of the use upon the creator of the work

b) effect of the use upon the potential market of the work

c) effect of the use upon the public in general

d) effect of the use upon the class in which the creator belongs

Answer 86

b) effect of the use upon the potential market of the work

Question 87

87) Which phrase best completes the statement?

A chattel mortgage can be constituted to secure ______.

a) obligations both past and future

b) obligations existing at the time the mortgage is constituted

c) future obligations only

d) past obligations only

Answer 87

b) obligations existing at the time the mortgage is constituted

Question 88

88) Which phrase best completes the statement?

A chattel mortgage can cover _________.

a) only property described in the deed without exception

b) can also cover substituted property

c) properties described in the deed except in case of stock in trade being a substitute

d) after acquired property

Answer 88

c) properties described in the deed except in case of stock in trade being a substitute

Question 89

89) Which phrase best completes the statement?

The Deed of Chattel mortgage, if not registered with the Register of Deeds where debtor resides _________.

a) is not valid, hence not binding between the mortgagor and the mortgagee

b) is binding between the mortgagor and the mortgagee but will not affect third party

c) to be valid between the mortgagor and the mortgagee, it must be coupled with the delivery of the subject matter of the chattel mortgage

d) is as if a non-existent chattel mortgage.

Answer 89

b) is binding between the mortgagor and the mortgagee but will not affect third party

Question 90

90) Which phrase best completes the statement?

To bind third parties, a chattel mortgage of shares of stock must be registered _________.

a) with the Register of Deeds where the debtor resides

b) with the Register of Deeds where the principal office of the corporation is

c) in the Stock and Transfer Book of the corporation with the Corporate Secretary

d) with the Register of Deeds where the debtor resides and the principal office of the corporation

Answer 90

d) with the Register of Deeds where the debtor resides and the principal office of the corporation

Question 91

91) Which phrase best completes the statement?

The affidavit of good faith in a Deed of Chattel Mortgage is _________.

a) an oath where the parties swear that the mortgage is made for the purpose of securing the obligations specified and that the obligation is just and valid

b) an affidavit, the absence of which will vitiate the mortgage between the parties

c) necessary only if the chattel being mortgaged are growing crops

d) a certification from the mortgagor that he is the mortgagor of the chattel

Answer 91

a) an oath where the parties swear that the mortgage is made for the purpose of securing the obligations specified and that the obligation is just and valid

Question 92

92) X defaulted in his loan with Y. Y instituted extra-judicial foreclosure of the property subject of a real estate mortgage that secured the loan. X has one year within which to redeem the property. After the foreclosure, X filed an action questioning the validity of the extra- judicial foreclosure sale.

Which statement is most accurate?

a) The one (1) year period within which to redeem will be interrupted by the filing of an action questioning the validity of the foreclosure.

b) The one (1) year period will not be interrupted by the filing of the action.

c) The one (1) year period will be extended for another year because of the filing of an action questioning the validity of the foreclosure sale.

d) If the action which questions the validity of the foreclosure prospers, the period will be interrupted.

Answer 92

b) The one (1) year period will not be interrupted by the filing of the action.

Question 93

93) What is the effect if the proceeds in an extra-judicial foreclosure sale is not sufficient to pay for the obligation?

a) The mortgagee can claim for deficiency judgment from the debtor.

b) The mortgagee can claim for deficiency judgment from the mortgagor even though it is a third party mortgage.

c) The mortgagee has no more recourse or claim against the debtor.

d) The mortgagee cannot claim for deficiency judgment from the debtor because its an extrajudicial foreclosure.

Answer 93

a) The mortgagee can claim for deficiency judgment from the debtor.

Question 94

94) X mortgaged her residential house and lot in favor of ABC Bank. X defaulted in her loan and so the bank foreclosed the real estate mortgage on the residential house. Y then bought the residential house and lot before the expiration of the redemption period.

Can Y now take possession of the property?

a) No, because it is still covered by the redemption period and the purchaser is not yet entitled as a matter of right to take possession of the property.

b) Yes, the purchaser is now entitled to the possession of the house.

c) No, because there is a need to talk to X to leave the house.

d) No, because Y was not the one who foreclosed the mortgage on the property.

Answer 94

a) No, because it is still covered by the redemption period and the purchaser is not yet entitled as a matter of right to take possession of the property.

Question 95

95) Which phrase best completes the statement?

When a debt is secured by a real estate mortgage, upon default of the debtor ________.

a) the only remedy of the creditor is to foreclose the real estate mortgage

b) another remedy is filing an action for collection and then foreclose if collection is not enough

c) the creditor can foreclose the mortgage and demand collection for any deficiency

d) none of the above

Answer 95

c) the creditor can foreclose the mortgage and demand collection for any deficiency

Question 96

96) XYZ Corporation bought ten (10) units of Honda Civic from CCC Corporation. ABC Bank granted a loan to XYC Corporation which executed a financing agreement which provided for the principal amount, the installment payments, the interest rates and the due dates. On due dates of the installment payments, XYZ Corporation was asked to pay for some handling charges and other fees which were not mentioned in the Financing Agreement.

Can XYC Corporation refuse to pay the same?

a) No, because handling charges and other fees are usual in certain banking transactions.

b) Yes, because ABC Bank is required to provide XYZ Corporation not only the amount of the monthly installments but also the details of the finance charges as required by the Truth in Lending Act.

c) No, because the Finance Agreement is a valid document to establish the existence of the obligation.

d) Yes, because legally, finance charges are never allowed in any banking transaction.

Answer 96

b) Yes, because ABC Bank is required to provide XYZ Corporation not only the amount of the monthly installments but also the details of the finance charges as required by the Truth in Lending Act.

Question 97

97) Which of the following is an exception to the secrecy of bank deposits which are in Philippine Pesos, but NOT an exception to the secrecy of foreign currency deposits?

a) Upon Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas (SSP) inquiry into or examination of deposits or investments with any bank, when the inquiry or examination is made in the course of the SSP’s periodic special examination of said bank to ensure compliance with the Anti-Money Laundering Act (AMLA).

b) Upon Philippine Deposit Insurance Corporation (PDIC) and SSP inquiry into and examination of deposit accounts in case there is a finding of unsafe or unsound banking practice.

c) Upon inquiry in cases of impeachment.

d) Upon inquiry by the Commissioner of Internal Revenue in the event a taxpayer files an application to compromise his tax liabilities on the ground of financial incapacity.

Answer 97

c) Upon inquiry in cases of impeachment.

Question 98

98) The Anti-Money Laundering Law is a law that seeks to prevent money laundering activities by providing for more transparency in the Philippine Financial System, hence the following institutions are covered by the law, except ________.

a) bank and any financial institutions

b) pawnshops

c) casino operators

d) all of the above

Answer 98

c) casino operators

Question 99

99) For purposes of determining violation of the provisions of Anti-Money Laundering Law, a transaction is considered as a “Suspicious Transaction” with “Covered Institutions” regardless of the amount involved, where which the following circumstances exist/s?

a) The amount involved is not commensurate with the client’s business or financial capacity.

b) There is no underlying legal or trade obligation, purpose or economic justification.

c) Client is not properly identified.

d) All of the above.

Answer 99

d) All of the above.

Question 100

100) The main feature of the Foreign Investment Act of 1991 is to introduce the concept of “Negative Lists”.

Under the said law, what is a “Negative List”?

a) It is a list of business activities or enterprises in the Philippines that foreigners are disqualified to engage in.

b) It is a list of business activities or enterprises in the Philippines that foreigners are qualified to engage in.

c) It is a list of business activities or enterprises that are open to foreign investments provided it is with the approval of the Board of Investment.

d) It is a list of business activities or enterprises that are open to foreign investments provided it is with the approval of the Securities and Exchange Commission.

Answer 100

a) It is a list of business activities or enterprises in the Philippines that foreigners are disqualified to engage in.