DAY 2 (AM) Civil Law Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT included in the attributes of juridical capacity?

a) Juridical capacity is inherent in every natural person, and therefore it is not acquired.

b) Juridical capacity is lost only through death.

c) Juridical capacity is the fitness to be the subject of legal relations.

d) Juridical capacity cannot exist without capacity to act.

A

d) Juridical capacity cannot exist without capacity to act.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a restriction on one’s capacity to act?

a) Minority

b) Marriage

c) Deaf-mute

d) Civil Interdiction

A

There is no correct answer among the choices given. All the choices are restrictions on one’s capacity to act. While marriage is the only one not mentioned in Article 38 and 39 of the New Civil Code of the Philippines as a restriction on capacity to act, it restricts the capacity of a married person in cases of adoption.

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3
Q
  1. This attribute or incident of a case determine whether it is a conflict-of-laws case or one covered by domestic law.

a) Cause of action

b) Foreign element

c) Jurisdiction

d) Forum non conveniens

A

b) Foreign element

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4
Q
  1. The capacity of an heir to succeed shall be governed by the:

a) national law of the decedent’s heirs.

b) law of the country where the decedent was a resident at the time of his death.

c) national law of the person who died.

d) law of the country where the properties of the decedent are located.

A

c) national law of the person who died.

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5
Q
  1. Atty. BUKO, a Filipino, executed a will while he was in Spain. The attestation clause of the said will does not contain Buko’s signature. It is valid under Spanish law. At its probate in Manila, it is being opposed on the ground that the attestation clause does not contain BUKO’s signature. Is the opposition correct?

a) Yes, because it is a fatal defect.

b) Yes, the will is not valid under Philippine law.

c) No, attestation clause is not an act of the testator.

d) No, the governing law is Spanish law.

A

c) No, attestation clause is not an act of the testator.

or

d) No, the governing law is Spanish law.

The facts do not state the Law observed by the Testator in executing his will. He could have observed Spanish Law or Philippine Law (see comment of Tolentino in Article 815, New Civil Code of the Philippines in 3 Tolentino 117, 1992). If he observed Spanish Law, the opposition is not correct because the will is valid under Spanish Law, hence, choice (d) is the correct answer. If he observed Philippine law, the opposition is still not correct because Philippine Law does not require the Testator to sign the Attestation Clause of his will, said clause not being his act. In such case, choice (c) is the correct answer.

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6
Q
  1. Ramon, a Filipino, executed a will in Manila, where he left his house and located in BP Homes Parañaque in favor of his Filipino son, Ramgen. Ramon’s other children, RJ and Ramona, both Turkish nationals, are disputing the bequest to Ramgen. They plotted to kill Ramgen. Ramon learned of the plot, so he tore his will in two pieces out of anger. Which statement is most accurate?

a) The mere act of Ramon Sr. is immaterial because the will is still readable.

b) The mere act of tearing the will amounts to revocation.

c) The tearing of the will may amount to revocation if coupled with intent of revoking it.

d) The act of tearing the will is material.

A

c) The tearing of the will may amount to revocation if coupled with intent of revoking it.

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7
Q
  1. Even if the applicable law is a foreign law, a court in the Philippines may be constrained to apply Philippine law under any of the following instances, except:

a) when the foreign law, judgment or contract is contrary to a sound and important public policy of the forum.

b) when the property subject of the case is located outside of the Philippines.

c) when the foreign law or judgment is penal in nature.

d) when the foreign law is procedural in nature.

A

b) when the property subject of the case is located outside of the Philippines.

and

c) when the foreign law or judgment is penal in nature.

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8
Q
  1. If a will is executed by a testator who was born a Filipino citizen but became naturalized Japanese citizen at the time of his death, what law will govern its testamentary provisions if the will is executed in China and the property being disposed is located in Indonesia?

a) Chinese law

b) Philippine law

c) Indonesia law

d) Japanese law

A

d) Japanese law

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9
Q
  1. A Japanese national and a Filipino national entered into a contract for services in Thailand. The services will be rendered in Singapore. In case of breach, what law will govern?

a) Thailand law

b) Philippine law

c) Singapore law

d) Japanese law

A

c) Singapore law

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10
Q
  1. Pedro (Filipino) and his wife Jane (American) executed a joint will in Canada, where such joint will is valid. In case the joint will is probated in Japan, what law will govern the formalities of the joint will?

a) American law

b) Philippine law

c) Canadian law

d) Japanese law

A

c) Canadian law

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11
Q
  1. A French national revokes his will in Japan where he is domiciled. He then changed his domicile to the Philippines where he died. The revocation of his will in Japan is valid under Japanese law but invalid under Philippine law. The affected heir is a Malaysian national residing in the Philippines. What law will apply?

a) Japanese law

b) Philippine law

c) French law

d) Malaysian law

A

a) Japanese law

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12
Q
  1. In the absence of contrary stipulation in a marriage settlement, property relations of Filipino spouses shall be governed by —

a) Philippine laws.

b) the law of the place where the spouses reside.

c) the law of the place where the properties are situated.

d) the law of the place where they were married.

A

a) Philippine laws.

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13
Q
  1. The will of a Filipino executed in a foreign country —

a) cannot be probated in the Philippines.

b) may be probated in the Philippines provided that properties in the estate are located in the Philippines.

c) cannot be probated before the death of the testator.

d) may be probated in the Philippines provided it was executed in accordance with the laws of the place where the will was executed.

A

d) may be probated in the Philippines provided it was executed in accordance with the laws of the place where the will was executed.

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14
Q
  1. Pedro (Filipino) and Bill (American) entered into a contract in Australia, whereby it was agreed that Pedro will build a commercial building for Bill in the Philippines, and in payment for the construction, Bill will transfer and convey his cattle ranch located in Japan in favor of Pedro. In case Pedro performs his obligation, but Bill fails or refuses to pay, what law will govern?

a) American law

b) Philippine law

c) Australian law

d) Japanese law

A

d) Japanese law

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15
Q

In 1989, Charice (Filipina) and Justine (American) were married in the Philippines. In 1990, they separated and Justine went to Las Vegas where he obtained a divorce in the same year. He then married another Filipina, Lea, in Canada on January 1, 1992. They had two (2) sons, James and John (who were both born in 1992). In 1993, after failing to hear from Justine, Charice married Bugoy (a Filipino), by whom she had a daughter, Regine. In 2009, Regine married James (son of Justine with Lea) in California, where such marriage is valid.

  1. What is the current status of the marriage of Charice and Justine under Philippine laws?

a) Valid

b) Void

c) Voidable

d) Dissolved

A

d) Dissolved

While Article 26 of the Family Code does not categorically provide that the first marriage is dissolved by the divorce obtained by the foreign spouse abroad, but provides that such divorce merely gives the Filipino spouse the capacity to contract a second marriage, it is believed that the dissolution of the first marriage is the necessary consequence of the foreign divorce.

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16
Q

In 1989, Charice (Filipina) and Justine (American), were married in the Philippines. In 1990, they separated and Justine went to Las Vegas where he obtained a divorce in the same year. He then married another Filipina, Lea, in Canada on January 1, 1992. They had two (2) sons, James and John (who were both born in 1992). In 1993, after failing to hear from Justine, Charice married Bugoy (a Filipino), by whom she had a daughter, Regine. In 2009, Regine married James (son of Justine with Lea) in California, where such marriage is valid.

  1. What is the status of the marriage between Charice and Bugoy under Philippine laws?

a) Valid

b) Void

c) Voidable

d) Unenforceable

A

a) Valid

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17
Q

In 1989, Charice (Filipina) and Justine (American), were married in the Philippines. In 1990, they separated and Justine went to Las Vegas where he obtained a divorce in the same year. He then married another Filipina, Lea, in Canada on January 1, 1992. They had two (2) sons, James and John (who were both born in 1992). In 1993, after failing to hear from Justine, Charice married Bugoy (a Filipino), by whom she had a daughter, Regine. In 2009, Regine married James (son of Justine with Lea) in California, where such marriage is valid.

  1. What is the status of the marriage between Justine and Lea under Philippine laws?

a) Valid

b) Void

c) Voidable

d) Unenforceable

A

a) Valid

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18
Q

In 1989, Charice (Filipina) and Justine (American), were married in the Philippines. In 1990, they separated and Justine went to Las Vegas where he obtained a divorce in the same year. He then married another Filipina, Lea, in Canada on January 1, 1992. They had two (2) sons, James and John (who were both born in 1992). In 1993, after failing to hear from Justine, Charice married Bugoy (a Filipino), by whom she had a daughter, Regine. In 2009, Regine married James (son of Justine with Lea) in California, where such marriage is valid.

  1. What is the status of the marriage between Regine and James under Philippine laws?

a) Valid

b) Void

c) Voidable

d) Unenforceable

A

a) Valid

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19
Q
  1. Ricky and Princess were sweethearts. Princess became pregnant. Knowing that Ricky is preparing for the examinations, Marforth, a lawyer and cousin of Princess, threatened Ricky with the filing of a complaint for immorality in the Supreme Court, thus preventing him from taking examinations unless he marries Princess. As a consequence of the threat, Ricky married Princess. Can the marriage be annulled on the ground of intimidation under Article 45 of the Family Code?

a) Yes, because without the threat, Ricky would not have married Princess.

b) Yes, because the threat to enforce the claim of Princess vitiates the consent of Ricky in contracting the marriage.

c) No, because the threat made by Marforth is just and legal.

d) No, because Marforth is not a party to the contract of marriage between Princess and Ricky.

A

c) No, because the threat made by Marforth is just and legal.

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20
Q
  1. Audrey, single, bought a parcel of land in Malolos City from Franco for P 1 Million. A contract was executed between them which already vested upon Audrey full ownership of the property, although payable in monthly installments for a period of four (4) years. One (1) year after the execution of the contract, Audrey got married to Arnel. They executed a marriage settlement whereby they agreed that their properties shall be governed by the regime of conjugal partnership of gains. Thereafter, subsequent installments were paid from the conjugal partnership funds. Is the land conjugal or paraphernal?

a) The land is conjugal because the installments were paid from the conjugal partnership funds.

b) The land is paraphernal because ownership thereof was acquired before the marriage.

c) The land is both conjugal and paraphernal since funds of installments were paid from both the personal funds of Audrey and the conjugal partnership funds.

d) The land is paraphernal because it was Audrey who purchased the same.

A

b) The land is paraphernal because ownership thereof was acquired before the marriage.

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21
Q
  1. Ernesto donated a mobile phone worth Php 32,000.00 to Hubert orally and delivered the unit to Hubert who accepted. Which statement is most accurate?

a) The donation is void and Ernesto may get mobile phone back.

b) The donation is void but Ernesto cannot get the mobile phone back.

c) The donation is voidable and may be annulled.

d) The donation is valid.

A

a) The donation is void and Ernesto may get mobile phone back.

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22
Q
  1. Agay, a Filipino citizen, and Topacio, an Australian citizen, got married in the consular office of the Philippines in Australia. According to the laws of Australia, a marriage solemnized by a consular official is valid, provided that such marriage is celebrated in accordance with the laws of such consular official. Under Philippine law, what is the status of the marriage of Agay and Topacio?

a) Void, because the consular official only has authority to solemnize marriages between Filipinos.

b) Valid, because according to the laws of Australia, such consular official has authority to celebrate the marriage.

c) Voidable, because there is an irregularity in the authority of the consular official to solemnize marriages.

d) Valid, because such marriage is recognized as valid in the place where it was celebrated.

A

a) Void, because the consular official only has authority to solemnize marriages between Filipinos.

The issue in the problem is whether or not the fact that one of the parties to the marriage was an alien constituted absence of authority or mere irregularity of authority. The problem gives only the choice, letter (a), in case it is interpreted as absence of authority. The problem does not give a choice in case it is interpreted as an irregularity thereby making all the other answers wrong.

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23
Q
  1. Separation of property between spouses during the marriage may take place only:

a) by agreement of the spouses.

b) if one of the spouses has given ground for legal separation.

c) upon order of the court.

d) if one spouse has abandoned the other.

A

c) upon order of the court.

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24
Q
  1. The husband may impugn the legitimacy of his child but not on the ground that:

a) the wife is suspected of infidelity.

b) the husband had a serious illness that prevented him from engaging in sexual intercourse.

c) they were living apart.

d) he is physically incapable of sexual intercourse.

A

a) the wife is suspected of infidelity.

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25
Q
  1. A marriage is void if:

a) solemnized with a marriage license issued without complying with the required 10-day posting.

b) solemnized by a minister whom the parties believe to have the authority.

c) between parties both 23 years of age but without parental advice.

d) none of the above.

A

d) none of the above.

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26
Q
  1. In legal separation, which is not correct?

a) The aggrieved spouse may file the action within five (5) years from the time of the occurrence of the cause.

b) No trial shall be held without the 6-month cooling off period being observed.

c) The spouses will be entitled to live separately upon the start of the trial.

d) The prosecuting attorney has to conduct his own investigation.

A

d) The prosecuting attorney has to conduct his own investigation.

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27
Q
  1. A husband, by chance, discovered hidden treasure on the paraphernal property of his wife. Who owns the discovered treasure?

a) The half pertaining to the husband (finder) belongs to the conjugal partnership.

b) The half pertaining to the wife (as owner) belongs to the conjugal partnership.

c) One half shall belong to the husband as finder and the other half shall belong to the wife as owner of the property.

d) a and b

A

d) a and b

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following marriages is void for reasons of public policy?

a) Between brothers and sisters, whether of the full or half blood

b) Between step-parents and step children

c) Between parents-in-law and children-in-law

d) b and c

A

d) b and c

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29
Q
  1. The following constitute the different circumstances or cases of fraud which will serve as ground for the annulment of a marriage, except?

a) Non-disclosure of the previous conviction by final judgment of the other party of a crime involving moral turpitude

b) Concealment of a sexually-transmissible disease, regardless of its nature, existing at the time of the marriage

c) Concealment of drug addiction, habitual alcoholism, homosexuality or lesbianism existing at the time of marriage

d) Concealment by the wife or the husband of the fact of sexual relations prior to the marriage

A

d) Concealment by the wife or the husband of the fact of sexual relations prior to the marriage

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a requisite for a valid donation propter nuptias?

a) The donation must be made before the celebration of the marriage.

b) The donation shall be automatically revoked in case of non-celebration of the marriage.

c) The donation must be made in consideration of the marriage.

d) The donation must be made in favor of one or both of the future spouses.

A

b) The donation shall be automatically revoked in case of non-celebration of the marriage.

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31
Q
  1. Who are illegitimate children?

a) Children conceived or born outside a valid marriage

b) Children born under a valid marriage, which was later declared void because of the psychological incapacity of either or both of the spouses

c) Children conceived and born outside a valid marriage

d) Children born under a valid marriage, but the parents later obtained a legal separation

A

c) Children conceived and born outside a valid marriage

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32
Q
  1. An illegitimate child may use the surname of his father when his filiation is established in any of the following instances, except:

a) filiation has been recognized by the father through the record of birth appearing in the civil register.

b) admission of filiation by the father in a public document.

c) private handwritten instrument is made by the father acknowledging his filiation.

d) affidavit by the mother stating the name of his true father.

A

d) affidavit by the mother stating the name of his true father.

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33
Q
  1. Under RA 8043, an adopter is required to be at least ____ years old and ____ years older than the child to be adopted at the time of the application unless the adopter is the parent by nature of the child.

a) 30 and 15

b) 27 and 16

c) 50 and 10

d) 18 and 15

A

b) 27 and 16

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34
Q
  1. Under RA 8043, a child qualified to be adopted is any person below _____ years old.

a) 18

b) 21

c) 15

d) 16

A

c) 15

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following DOES NOT result in permanent termination of parental authority?

a) Death of the parents

b) Death of the child

c) Emancipation of the child

d) Conviction of the parents of a crime which carries with it the penalty of civil interdiction

A

d) Conviction of the parents of a crime which carries with it the penalty of civil interdiction

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36
Q
  1. The court, in an action filed for the purpose, may suspend parental authority if the parent or the person exercising parental authority commits any of the following acts, except:

a) treats the child with excessive harshness or cruelty.

b) gives the child corrupting orders, counsel or example.

c) compels the child to take up a course in college against his/her will.

d) subjects the child or allows him to be subjected to acts of lasciviousness.

A

c) compels the child to take up a course in college against his/her will.

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is wrong?

a) The possessor in bad faith shall reimburse the fruits received and those which the legitimate possessor could have received.

b) The possessor in bad faith has right of reimbursement for necessary expenses and those for the production, gathering, and preservation of the fruits.

c) The possessor in bad faith is not entitled to a refund of ornamental expenses.

d) The possessor in bad faith is entitled to a refund of useful expenses.

A

d) The possessor in bad faith is entitled to a refund of useful expenses.

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38
Q
  1. Which phrase most accurately completes the statement – The expenses incurred in improvements for the luxury or mere pleasure shall not be refunded to the possessor in bad faith:

a) but he may remove the objects for which such expenses have been incurred, provided that the thing suffers no injury thereby, and that the lawful possessor does not prefer to retain them.

b) and he may not remove the objects for which such expenses have been incurred.

c) and he may not remove the objects for which such expenses have been incurred, unless he pays the value they may have at the time he entered into possession.

d) but he may remove the objects for which such expenses have been incurred.

A

a) but he may remove the objects for which such expenses have been incurred, provided that the thing suffers no injury thereby, and that the lawful possessor does not prefer to retain them.

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39
Q
  1. The following are the limitations on the right of ownership imposed by the owner himself, except:

a) will/succession.

b) mortgage.

c) pledge.

d) lease.

A

a) will/succession.

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40
Q
  1. A plenary action for the recovery of the possession of real estate, upon mere allegation and proof of a better right thereto, and without allegation of proof of title. This action can only be brought after the expiration of one (1) year. What action is being referred to?

a) Accion publiciana

b) Accion reinvindicatoria

c) Accion interdictal

d) Quieting of Title

A

a) Accion publiciana

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41
Q
  1. Action to recover real property based on ownership. Here, the object is the recovery of the dominion over the property as owner. What action is being referred to?

a) Accion publiciana

b) Accion reinvindicatoria

c) Accion interdictal

d) Quieting of Title

A

b) Accion reinvindicatoria

The correct Latin word is “reivindicatoria”.

42
Q
  1. A summary action to recover physical or material possession only and must be brought within one (1) year from the time the cause of action arises. What action is being referred to?

a) Accion publiciana

b) Accion reinvindicatoria

c) Accion interdictal

d) Quieting of Title

A

c) Accion interdictal

43
Q
  1. The following things are property of public dominion, except:

a) ports and bridges constructed by the State.

b) vehicles and weapons of the Armed Forces of the Philippines.

c) rivers.

d) lands reclaimed by the state from the sea.

A
44
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is wrong?

a) Patrimonial property of the state, when no longer intended for public use or for public service, shall become property of public dominion.

b) All property of the State, which is not of public dominion, is patrimonial property.

c) The property of provinces, cities and municipalities is divided into property for public use and patrimonial property.

d) Property is either of public dominion or of private ownership.

A
45
Q
  1. The following cannot ask for the reduction of inofficious donation, except:

a) creditors of the deceased.

b) devisees or legatees.

c) compulsory heirs of the donor.

d) the surviving spouse of the donee.

A
46
Q
  1. Donation is perfected from the moment —

a) the donee accepts the donation.

b) the donor executes the deed of donation.

c) the donor knows of the donee’s acceptance even if the latter has not received the copy of the deed of donation.

d) the donee confirms that the donor has learned the former’s acceptance.

A
47
Q
  1. The following are the elements of an obligation, except:

a) juridical/legal tie.

b) active subject.

c) passive subject.

d) consideration.

A
48
Q
  1. It is a conduct that may consist of giving, doing, or not doing something.

a) Obligation

b) Juridical necessity

c) Prestation

d) Contract

A
49
Q
  1. It is a juridical relation arising from lawful, voluntary and unilateral acts based on the principle that no one should unjustly enrich himself at the expense of another.

a) Quasi-contract

b) Quasi-delict

c) Cotract

d) Delict

A
50
Q
  1. The following are the elements of quasi-delict, except:

a) act or omission.

b) fault/negligence.

c) damage/injury.

d) pre-existing contract.

A
51
Q
  1. A debtor is liable for damages in case of delay if he is guilty of any of the following, except:

a) default (mora).

b) mistake.

c) negligence (culpa).

d) breach through contravention of the tenor thereof.

A
52
Q
  1. This term refers to a delay on the part of both the debtor and creditor in reciprocal obligations.

a) Mora accipiendi

b) Mora solvendi

c) Compensation morae

d) Solution indebiti

A
53
Q
  1. The following are the requisites of mora solvendi, except:

a) obligation pertains to the debtor and is determinate, due, demandable, and liquidated.

b) obligation was performed on its maturity date.

c) there is judicial or extrajudicial demand by the creditor.

d) failure of the debtor to comply with such demand.

A
54
Q
  1. It is an international evasion of the faithful performance of the obligation.

a) Negligence

b) Fraud

c) Delay

d) Mistake

A
55
Q
  1. The following are the requisites of fortuitous event, except:

a) cause is independent of the will of the debtor.

b) the event is unforeseeable/unavoidable.

c) occurrence renders it absolutely impossible for the debtor to fulfill his obligation in a normal manner; impossibility must be absolute not partial, otherwise not force majeure.

d) debtor contributed to the aggravation of the injury to the creditor.

A
56
Q
  1. A debtor may still be held liable for loss or damages even if it was caused by a fortuitous event in any of the following instances, except:

a) the debtor is guilty of dolo, malice or bad faith, has promised the same thing to two or more persons who do not have the same interest.

b) the debtor contributed to the loss.

c) the thing to be delivered is generic.

d) the creditor is guilty of fraud, negligence or delay or if he contravened the tenor of the obligation.

A
57
Q
  1. Buko, Fermin and Toti bound themselves solidarily to pay Ayee the amount of P 5,000.00. Suppose Buko paid the obligation, what is his right as against his co-debtors?

a) Buko cas ask for reimbursement from Fermin and Toti.

b) Buko can sue Fermin and Toti for damages.

c) Buko can sue for rescission.

d) Buko can claim a refund from Ayee.

A
58
Q
  1. Buko, Fermin and Toti bound themselves solidarily to pay Ayee the sum of P 10,000.00. When the obligation became due and demandable, Ayee sued Buko for the payment of the P 10,000.00. Buko moved to dismiss on the ground that there was failure to implead Fermin and Toti who are indispensable parties. Will the motion to dismiss prosper? Why?

a) Yes, because Fermin and Toti should have been impleaded as their obligation is solidary.

b) No, because the creditor may proceed against any one of the solidary debtors or some or all of them simultaneously.

c) No, because a motion to dismiss is a prohibited pleading.

d) Yes, because Fermin and Toti should also pay their share of the obligation.

A
59
Q
  1. Buko, Fermin and Toti are solidarily debtors of Ayee. Twelve (12) years after the obligation became due and demandable, Buko paid Ayee and later on asked for reimbursement of Fermin’s and Toti’s shares. Is Buko correct? Why?

a) No, because the obligation has already prescribed.

b) Yes, because the obligation is solidary.

c) No, because in solidary obligation any one of the solidary debtors can pay the entire debt.

d) Yes, because Fermin and Toti will be unduly enriched at the expense of Buko.

A
60
Q
  1. Buko, Fermin and Toti are solidary debtors under a loan obligation of P 300,000.00 which has fallen due. The creditor has, however, condoned Fermin’s entire share in the debt. Since Toti has become insolvent, the creditor makes a demand on Buko to pay the debt. How much, if any, may Buko be compelled to pay?

a) P 200.000.00

b) P 300,000.00

c) P 100,000.00

d) P 150,000.00

A
61
Q
  1. Dina bought a car from Jai and delivered a check in payment of the same. Has Dina paid the obligation? Why?

a) No, not yet. The delivery of promissory notes payable to order, or bills of exchange or other mercantile documents shall produce the effect of payment only when they have been cashed, or when through the fault of the creditor they have been impaired.

b) Yes, because a check is a valid legal tender of payment.

c) It depends. If the check is a manager’s check or cashier’s check it will produce the effect of payment. If it’s an ordinary check, no payment.

d) Yes, because a check is as good as cash.

A
62
Q
  1. The following are the requisites of legal compensation, except:

a) that each of the obligors is bound principally and that he be the same time a principal creditor of the other.

b) that both debts consist in a sum of money, or if the things due are consumable, they be the same kind, and also of the same quality if the latter has been stated.

c) that the two (2) debts are not yet due.

d) that they be liquidated and demandable.

A
63
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) All contracts are perfected by mere consent.

b) All contracts are perfected by delivery of the object.

c) All contracts are required to be in writing.

d) All contracts are required to have a valid consideration.

A
64
Q
  1. It is a principle which holds that parties are bound not only by what has been expressly provided for in the contract but also to the natural consequences that flow out of such agreement.

a) Obligatory force of contracts

b) Mutuality of contracts

c) Autonomy of contracts

d) Relativity of contracts

A
65
Q
  1. It is a principle which holds that contracts must be binding to both parties and its validity and effectivity can never be left to the will of one of the parties.

a) Obligatory force of contracts

b) Mutuality of contracts

c) Autonomy of contracts

d) Relativity of contracts

A
66
Q
  1. It refers to the rule that a contract is binding not only between parties but extends to the heirs, successors in interest, and assignees of the parties, provided that the contract involved transmissible rights by their nature, or by stipulation or by law.

a) Obligatory force of contracts

b) Mutuality of contracts

c) Autonomy of contracts

d) Relativity of contracts

A
67
Q
  1. It is rule which holds that the freedom of the parties to contract includes the freedom to stipulate, provided the stipulations are not contrary to law, morals, good customs, public order or public policy.

a) Obligatory force of contracts

b) Mutuality of contracts

c) Autonomy of contracts

d) Relativity of contracts

A
68
Q
  1. The following are the ways by which innominate contracts are regulated, except:

a) by the stipulation of the parties.

b) by the general principles of quasi-contracts and delicts

c) by the rules governing the most analogous nominate contracts.

d) by the customs of the place.

A
69
Q
  1. An offer becomes ineffective on any of the following grounds, except:

a) death, civil interdiction, insanity/insolvency of either party before acceptance is conveyed.

b) acceptance of the offer by the offeree.

c) qualified/conditional acceptance of the offer, which becomes counter-offer.

d) subject matter becomes illegal/impossible before acceptance is communicated.

A
70
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Offers in interrelated contracts are perfected upon consent.

b) Offers in interrelated contracts require a single acceptance.

c) Business advertisements are definite offers that require specific acceptance.

d) Advertisements for Bidders are only invitations to make proposals and the advertiser is not bound to accept the highest/lowest bidder, unless it appears otherwise.

A
71
Q
  1. The following are solemn contracts (Contracts which must appear in writing), except:

a) donations of real estate or of movables if the value exceeds P 5,000.00.

b) stipulation to pay interest in loans.

c) sale of land through an agent (authority must be in writing).

d) construction contract of a building.

A
72
Q
  1. The following are rescissible contracts, except:

a) entered into by guardian whenever ward suffers damage more than ¼ of value of property.

b) agreed upon in representation of absentees, if absentee suffers lesion by more than ¼ of value of property.

c) contracts where fraud is committed on creditor (accion pauliana).

d) contracts entered into by minors.

A
73
Q
  1. The following are the requisites before a contract entered into in fraud of creditors may be rescinded, except:

a) there must be credited existing prior to the celebration of the contract.

b) there must be fraud, or at least, the intent to commit fraud to the prejudice of the creditor seeking rescission.

c) the creditor cannot in any legal manner collect his credit (subsidiary character of rescission)

d) the object of the contract must be legally in the possession of a 3rd person in good faith.

A
74
Q
  1. The following are the characteristics of a voidable contract, except:

a) effective until set aside.

b) may be assailed/attacked only in an action for that purpose.

c) can be confirmed or ratified.

d) can be assailed only by either party.

A
75
Q
  1. The following are void contracts, except:

a) pactum commissorium.

b) pactum de non alienando.

c) pactum leonina.

d) pacto de retro.

A
76
Q
  1. The borrower in a contract of loan or mutuum must pay interest to the lender:

a) if there is an agreement in writing to the effect.

b) as a matter of course.

c) if the amount borrowed is very large.

d) if the lender so demands at the maturity date.

A
77
Q
  1. The liability of the school, its administrators and teachers, or the individual, entity or institution engaged in child care over the minor child or damage caused by the acts or omissions of the unemancipated minor while under their supervision, instruction or custody shall be:

a) joint and subsidiary.

b) principal and solidary.

c) principal and joint.

d) subsidiary and solidary.

A
78
Q
  1. The creditor has the right to the fruits of the thing from the time:

a) the thing is delivered.

b) the obligation to deliver the things arises.

c) the contract is perfected.

d) the fruits are delivered.

A
79
Q
  1. If one of the parties to the contract is without juridical capacity, the contract is:

a) voidable.

b) rescissible.

c) void.

d) unenforceable.

A
80
Q
  1. When both parties to the contract are minors, the contract is:

a) voidable.

b) rescissible.

c) void.

d) unenforceable.

A
81
Q
  1. When the consent of one of the parties was vitiated, the contract is:

a) voidable.

b) rescissible.

c) void.

d) unenforceable.

A
82
Q
  1. An obligation which is based on equity and natural law is known as:

a) pure.

b) quasi-contract.

c) civil.

d) natural.

A
83
Q
  1. Consent was given by one in representation of another but without authority. The contract is:

a) voidable.

b) rescissible.

c) void.

d) unenforceable.

A
84
Q
  1. Michael Fermin, without the authority of Pascual Lacas, owner of a car, sold the same car in the name of Mr. Lacas to Atty. Buko. The contract between Atty. Buko and Mr. Lacas is —

a) void because of the absence of consent from the owner, Mr. Lacas.

b) valid because all of the essential requisites of a contract are present.

c) unenforceable because Michael Fermin had no authority but he sold the car in the name of Mr. Lacas, the owner.

d) rescissible because the contract caused lesion to Atty. Buko.

A
85
Q
  1. Which of the following contracts is void?

a) An oral sale of a parcel of land.

b) A sale of land by an agent in a public instrument where his authority from the principal is oral.

c) A donation of a wrist watch worth P 4,500.00.

d) A relatively simulated contract.

A
86
Q
  1. Which of the following expresses a correct principle of law? Choose the best answer.

a) Failure to disclose facts, when there is a duty to reveal them, does not constitute fraud.

b) Violence or intimidation does not render a contract annullable if employed not by a contracting party but by a third person.

c) A threat to enforce one’s claim through competent authority, if the claim is legal or just, does not vitiate consent.

d) Absolute simulation of a contract always results in a void contract.

A
87
Q
  1. Aligada orally offered to sell his two-hectare rice land to Balane for P 10Million. The offer was orally accepted. By agreement, the land was to be delivered (through execution of a notarized Deed of Sale) and the price was to be paid exactly one-month from their oral agreement. Which statement is most accurate?

a) If Aligada refuses to deliver the land on the agreed date despite payment by Balane, the latter may not successfully sue Aligada because the contract is oral.

b) If Aligada refused to deliver the land, Balane may successfully sue for fulfillment of the obligation even if he has not tendered payment of the purchase price.

c) The contract between the parties is rescissible.

d) The contract between the parties is subject to ratification by the parties.

A
88
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is wrong?

a) Creditors are protected in cases of contracts intended to defraud them.

b) Contracts take effect only between the parties, their assign and heirs, except in case where the rights and obligations arising from the contract are not transmissible by their nature, or by stipulation or by provision of law.

c) If a contract should contain some stipulation in favor of a third person, he may demand its fulfillment provided he communicated his acceptance to the obligor before its revocation.

d) In contracts creating real rights, third persons who come into possession of the object of the contract are not bound thereby.

A
89
Q
  1. Which phrase most accurately completes the statement – Any third person who induces another to violate his contract:

a) shall be liable for damages only if he is a party to the same contract.

b) shall be liable for damages to the other contracting party.

c) shall not be liable for damages to the other contracting party.

d) shall not be liable for damages if the parties are in pari delicto.

A
90
Q
  1. The requisites of succession are as follows, except:

a) death of decedent.

b) transmissible estate.

c) existence and capacity of successor, designated by decedent or law.

d) payment of taxes.

A
91
Q
  1. The characteristics of succession are as follows, except:

a) it is a legal contract.

b) only property, rights and obligations to the extent of the value of the inheritance are transmitted.

c) the transmission takes place only at the time of death.

d) the transmission takes place either by will or by operation of law.

A
92
Q
  1. The following rights are extinguished by death, except:

a) legal support.

b) parental authority.

c) right to inherit.

d) agency.

A
93
Q
  1. The attestation clause contains the following, except:

a) the number of pages used.

b) that the testator signed or caused another to sign the will and every page thereof in the presence of the instrumental witnesses.

c) notary public.

d) the instrumental witnesses witnessed and signed the will and all the pages thereof in the presence of the testator and one another.

A
94
Q
  1. The following are the formalities required in the execution of holographic will, except:

a) entirely written.

b) dated.

c) signed by testator himself.

d) notarized by a notary public.

A
95
Q
  1. The following are the grounds for disallowance of wills, except:

a) the formalities required by law have not been complied with.

b) the testator was insane or mentally incapable of making will.

c) the will was executed through force or under duress, or influence of fear or threats.

d) the will contains an attestation clause.

A
96
Q
  1. It is the omission in the testator’s will of one, some or all of the compulsory heirs in direct line, whether living at the time of execution of the will or born after the death of the testator. What principle is being referred to?

a) Reserva troncal

b) Preterition

c) Fideicommissary

d) Disposicion captatoria

A
97
Q
  1. Any disposition made upon the condition that the heir shall make some provision in his will in favor of the testator or of any other person shall be void. Here, both the condition and the disposition are void. What principle is being referred to?

a) Reserva troncal

b) Preterition

c) Fideicommissary

d) Disposicion captatoria

A
98
Q
  1. Which phrase most accurately completes the statement – If at the time the contract of sale is perfected, the thing which is the object of the contract has been entirely lost:

a) the buyer bears the risk of loss.

b) the contract shall be without any effect.

c) the seller bears the risk of loss.

d) the buyer may withdraw from the contract.

A
99
Q
  1. A contract granting a privilege to a person, for which he has paid a consideration, which gives him the right to buy certain merchandise or specified property, from another person, at anytime within the agreed period, at a fixed price. What contract is being referred to?

a) Option Contract

b) Contract to Sell

c) Contract of Sale

d) Lease

A
100
Q
  1. Which of the following contracts of sale is void?

a) Sale of EGM’s car by KRP, EGM’s agent, whose authority is not reduced into writing.

b) Sale of EGM’s piece of land by KRP, EGM’s agent, whose authority is not reduced into writing.

c) Sale of EGM’s car by KRP, a person stranger to EGM, without EGM’s consent or authority.

d) Sale of EGM’s piece of land by KRP, a person stranger to EGM, without EGM’s consent or authority.

A