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Day 1- Flashcards

1
Q

Ozone is important to mankind because it
A. Releases hydrogen in the atmosphere
B. Creates a protective coverage against ultraviolet rays
C. maintains the temperature of the earth
D. releases oxygen in the air

A

B. Creates a protective coverage against ultraviolet rays

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2
Q

Ozone is all of the following except
A. Bleaching agent
B. Oxidizing agent
C. less soluble in water than oxygen
D. disinfectant

A

C. less soluble in water than oxygen

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3
Q

The hardness of water is expressed as g/L of ?
A. CaO
B. MgO
C. CaCO3
D. MgCO

A

C. CaCO3

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4
Q

The international Standards on Quality Management and Quality Service is
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 18000
C. ISO 14000
D. ISO 100

A

A. ISO 9000

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5
Q

A coastal and marine water primary used for commercial and sustenance fishing
A. Class A
B. Class SA
C. Class SB
D. Class SC

A

C. Class SB

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6
Q

A surface water intended for waters having watersheds which are uninhabited and protected
A. Class AA
B. Class A
C. Class B
D. Class

A

A. Class AA

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7
Q

A coastal water for coral reef packs and reserves as designated by law and concerned authorities.
A. Class AA
B. Class SA
C. Class SB
D. Class

A

B. Class SA

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8
Q

In the Deacon process for the manufacture of chlorine, HCl and O2 react to form Cl2 and water. Sufficient air is fed to provide 25% excess O2, and the fractional conversion of HCl is 70% . On the basis of 100 moles of HCl fed, the amount of air in moles fed into process is
A. 53.12
B. 136.78
C. 200
D. 149

A

D. 149

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9
Q

From the data in problem #8, the mole fraction of Cl2 gas in the product stream is
A. 0.214
B. 0.127
C. 0.151
D. 0.172

A

C. 0.151

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10
Q

Alcoholic fermentation is caused by the interaction of
A. Sugar and acids
B. Sugar and carbon dioxide
C. sugar and yeasts
D. yeast and pectin

A

C. sugar and yeasts

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11
Q

The part of a cell that contains the chromosome is the
A. Polysomes
B. nucleolus
C. mitochondrion
D. nucleus

A

D. nucleus

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12
Q

Enzymes which catalyze the breaking or making of double bonds are called
A. Transferases
B. ligases
C. isomerases
D. lyases

A

D. lyases

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13
Q

A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it has
A. Nucleus
B. vacuoles
C. cellulose cell wall
D. definite shape

A

C. cellulose cell wall

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14
Q

Vitamin E is also known as
A. Calciferol
B. axerophthol
C. ascorbic acid
D. tocopherol

A

D. tocopherol

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15
Q

The complementary strand of m-RNA formed over the single stranded DNA of sequence 5’ – A – T – C – A – G – T – 3’ is
A. 5’ – T – G – A – C – T – A – 3’
B. 5’ – A – C – U – G – A – U – 3’
C. 5’ – A – C – T – G – A – T – 3’
D. 5’ – U – A – G – U – C – A – 3’

A

B. 5’ – A – C – U – G – A – U – 3’

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16
Q

A study was made to evaluate the constants so that the Michaelis-Menten relationship could be used to describe waste utilization by bacteria. It was that one gram of bacteria could decompose the waste at a maximum rate of 20 grams per day when the waste concentration was high. Also, it was found that this same quantity of bacteria would decompose waste at a rate of 10 gram per day when the waste concentration surrounding the bacteria is 15 mg/L. The
rate of waste decomposition by 2 grams of bacteria if the waste concentration were maintained at 5 mg/L is
A. 10 g/day
B. 20 g/day
C. 5 g/day
D.15 g/day

A

A. 10 g/day

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17
Q

Matter has .
A. No mass but occupies space
B. Mass and occupies space
C. mass but occupies no space
D. no mass and occupies no space

A

B. Mass and occupies space

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18
Q

In gases, particles vibrate .
A. About their mean position
B. About a horizontal axis
C. about a vertical axis
D. in any direction

A

A. About their mean position

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19
Q

A property not possessed by a fluid is .
A. It can flow
B. It has a definite shape
C. it has mass
D. can be perceived by our senses

A

B. It has a definite shape

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20
Q

A solid the sublimes on heating is .
A. Sodium chloride
B. copper sulphate
C. ammonium chloride
D. lead sulphate

A

C. ammonium chloride

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21
Q

Temperature is a measure of:
A. Total kinetic energy of molecules
B. Total potential energy of molecules
C. average kinetic energy of the molecules
D. average potential energy of the molecules

A

A. Total kinetic energy of molecules

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22
Q

Carbon-12 atom has:
A. 6 electrons, 6 protons,6 neutrons
B. 12 electrons, 6 protons,6 neutrons
C. 6 electrons, 12 protons,6 neutrons
D. 18 electrons, 6 protons,6 neutrons

A

A. 6 electrons, 6 protons,6 neutrons

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23
Q

Formation of lead and bromide from lead bromide is an example of:
A. Decomposition reaction
B. Displacement reaction
C. synthesis reaction
D. neutralization reaction

A

A. Decomposition reaction

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24
Q

The main cause of rancidity in foods is:
A. Bacteria
B. Antioxidants
C. Proteins
D. Oxidation of fatty acid molecules

A

D. Oxidation of fatty acid molecules

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25
Q

Which of the following statements is not applicable to carbon compounds?
A. They have low melting and boiling points
B. They are generally soluble in organic solvents
C. They are ionic in nature
D. They form homologous series

A

C. They are ionic in nature

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26
Q

Micelles are .
A. Aggregates of amino acids
B. Drops of oil or dirt that surrounds the molecule
C. A tadpole shaped fatty acid
D. Cluster of soap molecules surrounding the dirt particle

A

D. Cluster of soap molecules surrounding the dirt particle

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27
Q

A diamond does not conduct electricity because:
A. Its structure is very compact
B. Only carbon atoms are present in its structure
C. there are no free electrons
D. it is crystalline in nature

A

B. Only carbon atoms are present in its structure

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28
Q

Which of the following is not true?
A. Alkali dissolve in water to form solutions with pH greater than 7
B. Not all alkali solution are soluble in water
C. The products of neutralization are water and salt
D. When an alkali solution is neutral, there are equal numbers of hydroxide and hydronium ions

A

B. Not all alkali solution are soluble in water

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29
Q

Which of the following is not an organic compound?
A. Vinegar
B. Quick lime
C. Petrol
D. Wood

A
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30
Q

Artificial silk is produced from-
A. Ethanoic acid
B. Propanoic acid
C. Methanoic acid
D. Butyric acid

A

A. Ethanoic acid

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31
Q

Vacuoles (in plant cells) ____________.
A. Produce energy for the cell
B. Defend the cell
C. synthesize proteins
D. provide turgidity and rigidity to plant cells

A

D. provide turgidity and rigidity to plant cells

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32
Q

The organelle not present in animal cells is ____________.
A. Plastid
B. centrosome
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria

A

A. Plastid

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33
Q

Exchange of gases in higher plants takes place through ____________.
A. Lenticels
B. roots
C. stomata
D. stem

A

C. stomata

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34
Q

Photosynthesis is ______________.
A. A catabolic reaction
B. An energy releasing reaction
C. an anabolic reaction
D. none of the above

A

B. An energy releasing reaction

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35
Q

Auxins are:
A. Vitamins
B. enzymes
C. proteins
D. hormones

A

D. hormones

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36
Q

Lack of magnesium in plants _____________.
A. Causes young leaves to wilt
B. Increases starch production
C. cause leaves to turn dark green
D. reduces chlorophyll formation

A

D. reduces chlorophyll formation

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37
Q

The part of the digestive system where no digestion takes place is ________________.
A. Mouth
B. esophagus
C. ileum
D. stomach

A

B. esophagus

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38
Q

Cramps are caused by heavy exercise resulting in the accumulation of ______________.
A. Carbon dioxide
B. lactic acid
C. ethanol
D. heat

A

B. lactic acid

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39
Q

Which of the following are the stages of respiration in the correct order?
A. Gaseous transport, breathing, tissue respiration and cellular respiration
B. Breathing, gaseous transport, tissue respiration and cellular respiration
C. Breathing, gaseous transport, cellular respiration and tissue respiration
D. Breathing, tissue respiration, cellular respiration and gaseous transport

A

B. Breathing, gaseous transport, tissue respiration and cellular respiration

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40
Q

Adrenaline increases ________________.
A. Heart rate
B. Amount of glucose in blood
C. blood pressure
D. all the above

A

D. all the above

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41
Q

All the energy that passes along a food chain comes originally from:
A. Oxygen
B. carbon dioxide
C. glucose
D. light

A

D. light

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42
Q

Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
A. Hydroelectric power
B. tidal power
C. coal
D. wave power

A

C. coal

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43
Q

Which gas is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
A. SO2
B. CFC
C. CO
D. NH3

A

B. CFC

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44
Q

In which stage of the cell division the chromosomes move from centre to pole of the spindle?
A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Pro-metaphase

A

B. Anaphase

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45
Q

How many pairs of autosomes are present in human body?
A. 23 pairs
B. 22 pairs
C. One pair
D. 24 pairs

A

B. 22 pairs

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46
Q

Which of the following is made of protein and nucleic acid only?
A. Bacterium
B. Fern
C. Virus
D. Algae

A

C. Virus

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47
Q

Where does electron transport chain takes place?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Mitochondria
D. Chloroplast

A

C. Mitochondria

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48
Q

Which of the following is not a phytohormone?
A. Abscisic acid
B. Ethanol
C. Dormin
D. Auxin

A

B. Ethanol

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49
Q

Which of the following is a disaccharide?
A. Cellulose
B. Galactose
C. Maltose
D. Fructose

A

C. Maltose

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50
Q

Which of the followings is storage-food in animal cell?
A. Glucose
B. Starch
C. Glycogen
D. Cellulose

A

C. Glycogen

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51
Q

The finger like projections found in small intestine is called __________.
A. Villi
B. Rugae
C. Alveoli
D. Ligament

A

A. Villi

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52
Q

Insulin is synthesized in ________________.
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Small intestine
D. Stomach

A

B. Pancreas

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53
Q

Which of the followings is a water-soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin-A
B. Vitamin-E
C. Vitamin-D
D. Vitamin-C

A

D. Vitamin-C

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54
Q

Which of the followings is the major energy fuel for the brain?
A. Acetate
B. lactate
C. glucose
D. glycine

A

C. glucose

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55
Q

Human genome contains base pairs.
A. 2.2 billion
B. 3.2 billion
C. 4.2 billion
D. 5.2 billion

A

B. 3.2 billion

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56
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
A. Mutation may delete a portion of DNA
B. A mutated gene may produce functional protein
C. Mutation may cause change in the base pairs of DNA
D. Mutation can never be a reversible process

A

D. Mutation can never be a reversible process

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57
Q

Matured red blood cells (RBC) do not contain _______________.
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Glycophorin C
C. Nucleus
D. Hemoglobin

A

C. Nucleus

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58
Q

Which virus is responsible for tumor?
A. T2 phage
B. Dengue virus
C. Influenza virus
D. Papilloma

A

D. Papilloma

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59
Q

The most dangerous ultraviolet ray is ______________.
A. UV-B
B. UV-C
C.UV-A
D. UV-D

A

B. UV-C

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60
Q

How many red blood cells are there in an av erage 70-kg person?
A. 26 trillion
B. 26 billion
C. 26 million
D. 26 thousand

A

A. 26 trillion

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61
Q

When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the following conditions could exist:
(I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
Which of the above choices are applicable?
A. I
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. II and IV

A

B. II and III

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62
Q

Which of the following acids is the stronger, (a) boric acid, pKa=9.0 or (b) acetic acid, pKa=4.6?
A. Boric acid
B. acetic acid
C. needs more data
D. equal strength

A

B. acetic acid

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63
Q

A sample of acetic acid (1 mol) was completely oxidized to CO2 and H2O in a constant-volume adiabatic calorimeter, at 298K. The heat released in the oxidation was 874 kJ. Calculate ∆H for the oxidation of acetic acid.
A. 810 kJ
B. 750 kJ
C. 874 kJ
D. 940 kJ

A

C. 874 kJ

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64
Q

Most of the bacteria in sewage are
A. Parasitic
B. pathogenic
C. saprophytic
D. anaerobic

A

C. saprophytic

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65
Q

The percent of total solids in most domestic sewage is
A. 0.01
B. 1.0
C. 0.1
D. 10

A

C. 0.1

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66
Q

In the troposphere ozone is produced during the daylight and consumed during the darkness. Determine the half-life of ozone if it is depleted to 10% of its initial value after 10 hours of darkness.
A. 3 hrs
B. 3.5 hrs
C. 4 hrs
D. 4.5 hrs

A

A. 3 hrs

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67
Q

Express the concentration of a 3% by weight CaSO4 solution in water in terms of ppm.
A. 20000
B. 25000
C. 30000
D. 35000

A

C. 30000

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68
Q

If the BOD = 300 mg/l for a Mgd (million gallon daily) sewage plant, determine the number of pounds of organic load present in the water per day.
A. 2600 lb/day
B. 2501 lb/day
C. 3000 lb/day
D. 5000 lb/day

A

B. 2501 lb/day

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69
Q

The concentration of a chemical degrades in water according to first-order kinetics. The degradation constant is 0.2/day. If the initial concentration is 100 mg/L, how many days are required for the concentration to reach 0.14 mg/L?
A. 24.8 days
B. 28.2 days
C. 30.7 days
D. 32.9 days

A

D. 32.9 days

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70
Q

What is the “exact” alkalinity of water (in mg/L as CaCO3) that contains 0.6580 mg/L of bicarbonate, as the ion, at a pH of 5.66?
A. 0.398
B. 0.430
C. 0.490
D. 0.524

A

B. 0.430

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71
Q

What is the pH of water that contains 120 mg/L of bicarbonate ion and 15 mg/L of carbonate ion?
A. 9.43
B. 8.76
C. 8.01
D. 7.65

A

A. 9.43

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72
Q

What volume would one mole of an ideal gas occupy at 25ºC and 101,325 kPa?
A. 24.46 L
B. 25.65 L
C. 26.70 L
D. 27.20 L

A

A. 24.46 L

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73
Q

Which molecules are polar? I. NH3, II. CO2, III. H2O, IV. CH4, V. Br2
A. I, IV
B. III
C.II, III, IV
D.III, IV, V

A

B. III

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74
Q

What is the formal charge of the C attached to Na in the molecule NaC≡CH?
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. +1

A

B. -1

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75
Q

Which of the following compounds are secondary halides?
(I) Isobutyl bromide
(II) 2-iodobutane
(III) isopropyl fluoride
(IV) neopentyl chloride

A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. II, III
D. I, IV

A

C. II, III

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76
Q

What is the major product from an elimination reaction starting with 2-bromopentane?
A. 1-pentene
B. Trans-2-pentene
C. cis-2-pentene
D. a mixture of cis and trans-2-pentene

A

B. Trans-2-pentene

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77
Q

Which is the index of hydrogen deficiency for a compound having molecular formula C7H5Cl2NO?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

A

B. 5

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78
Q

Which is the index of hydrogen deficiency for a compound having molecular formula C12H13Br2NO2?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

A

B. 6

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79
Q

Which describe the isoelectric point of an amino acid?
A. The degree of ionization of the amino acid at pH 7
B. The pH at which there no net charge for the amino acid
C. The pH at which the ionized form predominates
D. The pH at which the amino acid is present as the dipolar ion

A

B. The pH at which there no net charge for the amino acid

80
Q

Tyrosine has an isoelectric point of 5.63. What charge does tyrosine have at pH 7 and which electrode does it migrate to during electrophoresis?
A. Negative, anode
B. positive, cathode
C. negative, cathode
D. positive, anode

A

A. Negative, anode

81
Q

Lysine has an isoelectric point of 9.74. What charge does tyrosine have at pH 7 and which electrode does it migrate to during electrophoresis?
A. Negative, anode
B. positive, cathode
C. negative, cathode
D. positive, anode

A

B. positive, cathode

82
Q

At which pH would the predominate form of aspartic acid in solution migrate the negative electrode during electrophoresis?
A. 1.8
B. 2.98
C. 4
D. 7

A

A. 1.8

83
Q

Arginine has an isoelectric point of 10.76. At which pH would the predominate form of arginine in solution migrate toward the positive terminal during electrophoresis?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10.76
D. 12

A

D. 12

84
Q

The secondary structure of proteins depends primarily on which property of amino acids?
A. Disulfide bonds
B. hydrogen bonds
C. polar side chains
D. amide bonds

A

B. hydrogen bonds

85
Q

The tertiary structure of proteins depends primarily on which property of amino acids?
(I) Disulfide bonds
(II) hydrogen bonds
(III) amide bonds
(IV) polar side chains

A. III, IV
B. I, IV
C. II, III
D. I, II

A

D. I, II

86
Q

How do DNA and RNA differ?
(I) The position of attachment of phosphate groups
(II) The position of attachment of base group
(III) The sugar structure at C-2’
(IV) Structure of bases

A. I, II
B. II, III
C. III, IV
D. II, IV

A

C. III, IV

87
Q

Which are the correct pairings of bases in the structure of DNA?
(I) A-C, (II) G-T, (III) A-G, (IV) G-C, )V) A-T, (VI) C-T
A. I, II
B. III, V
C. III, IV
D. IV, V

A

D. IV, V

88
Q

Where does protein synthesis occur?
A. Chromatin
B. ribosome
C. codon
D. histones

A

B. ribosome

89
Q

Which are types of RNA?
(I) ribosomal, (II) histonal, (III) helix, (IV) transfer
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. I, IV

A

D. I, IV

90
Q

How many moles of ethanol and CO2 are produced in the glycolysis and fermentation of sucrose?
A. 2 moles ethanol, 2 moles CO2
B. 4 moles ethanol, 4 moles CO2
C. 2 moles ethanol, 4 moles CO2
D. 4 moles ethanol, 4 moles CO2

A

D. 4 moles ethanol, 4 moles CO2

91
Q

Which of the following is not a derivative of benzene?
A. Naphthalene
B. phenanthrene
C. anthracene
D. bromomethane

A

D. bromomethane

92
Q

Steroids which plays an important role in biological reaction is a/an
A. Enzyme
B. catalyst
C. hormone
D. prote

A

C. hormone

93
Q

Butyric acid is found mainly on
A. Rancid butter
B. citrus fruits
C. animal fats
D. cellulose

A

B. citrus fruits

94
Q

Which of the following compounds would have the highest boiling point?
A. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3
B. CH3NH2
C. CH3OH
D. CH2F2

A

A. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3

95
Q

What is the total number of sigma bonds found in the following compound?
CH3− CH ═ C ═ CH – C ≡ C – H
A. 8
B. 10
C. 11
D. 15

A

C. 11

96
Q

What is the total number of pi bonds found in the following? H-C≡C-CH2-NO2
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

C. 3

97
Q

How many dichlorinated isomers can be formed by the halogenation of CH3CH2CH2CH3 with Cl2 in the presence of light?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

A

B. 3

98
Q

The major reason that phenol is a better Brønsted acid than cyclohexanol is…
A. It is a better proton donor.
B. The cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which destabilizes the anion formed in the reaction.
C. Phenol is able to stabilize the anion formed in the reaction by resonance.
D. The phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion formed in the reaction.

A

C. Phenol is able to stabilize the anion formed in the reaction by resonance.

99
Q

Which of these is not released from burning fossil fuels?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Sulphur dioxide
C. Copper oxide
D. Nitrogen oxides

A

C. Copper oxide

100
Q

The Earth does not directly provide which of man’s basic needs?
A. Water
B. Air
C. Food
D. Shelter

A

D. Shelter

101
Q

Dissolved pollutant gasses can form:
A. Ozone
B. Acid rain
C. Alkalii snow
D. Neutral hai

A

B. Acid rain

102
Q

Which of these reactions in the atmosphere leads to acid rain?
A. Magnesium + oxygen → magnesium dioxide
B. Carbon dioxide + hydrogen → hydrogen carbonate
C. Sulphur + oxygen → sulphur dioxide
D. Sulphur dioxide + water → sulphuric acid

A

D. Sulphur dioxide + water → sulphuric acid

103
Q

Acid rain does not cause:
A. Lakes with a very low pH
B. Damage to trees
C. Erosion of limestone and marble
D. Global warming

A

D. Global warming

104
Q

Sulphur dioxide levels can be reduced by using:
A. Catalytic converters
B. Static electricity to attract it in factory chimneys
C. Low sulphur fuels
D. More efficient car engines

A

C. Low sulphur fuels

105
Q

Which of these atmospheric pollutants is not released by car exhausts?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Magnesium oxide
D. Lead oxide

A

A. Carbon monoxide

106
Q

Unleaded paint and petrol were introduced because:
A. European Parliament told us to
B. Lead was proven to affect the brain and cause mental impairment
C. It was cheaper to produce than leaded products
D. Unleaded petrol made cars go faster

A

B. Lead was proven to affect the brain and cause mental impairment

107
Q

Which of these is not caused/aggravated by atmospheric pollution?
A. Asthma
B. Nice sunsets
C. Hayfever
D. Global Warming

A

C. Hayfever

108
Q

The greenhouse effect is where:
A. Heat energy is trapped by the atmosphere
B. Solar panels are attached to the roof of houses
C. Too many buildings are built from glass
D. You take gardening too seriously

A

A. Heat energy is trapped by the atmosphere

109
Q

The greenhouse effect is thought to be the cause of:
A. Huge tomatoes
B. Skin cancer
C. An increase in asthma sufferers
D. An increase in global temperature

A

D. An increase in global temperature

110
Q

Global warming will not result in:
A. Melting of the ice caps
B. Increasing the size of the hole of the ozone layer
C. Increasing sea levels
D. Unpredictable climate patterns

A

B. Increasing the size of the hole of the ozone layer

111
Q

Which of these was an attempt by the world governments to specifically address the problem of global warming?
A. A CITES Treaty
B. The Kyoto Agreement
C. The Geneva convention
D. Agenda 21

A

B. The Kyoto Agreement

112
Q

Carbon dioxide and oxygen levels are maintained by:
A. Perspiration
B. Respiration
C. Photosynthesis
D. Photosynthesis and respiration

A

D. Photosynthesis and respiration

113
Q

The balance of carbon dioxide and oxygen has been upset by:
A. Excessive burning of fossil fuels
B. Burning fossil fuels and deforestation
C. Large scale deforestation
D. Increasing human population

A

B. Burning fossil fuels and deforestation

114
Q

Deforestation is responsible for:
A. Desertification
B. Eutrophication
C. Diversification
D. Salinisation

A

A. Desertification

115
Q

Carbon dioxide in the oceans can be used by:
A. Fish
B. Phytoplankton
C. Zooplankton
D. Deep sea drivers

A

B. Phytoplankton

116
Q

The ozone layer found high in the stratosphere:
A. Protects against the suns harmful UV rays
B. Can react with atmospheric pollutants to form smog
C. Is toxic to plants
D. Is capable of disintegrating fabric and rubber

A

A. Protects against the suns harmful UV rays

117
Q

Holes in the ozone layer are thought to have been caused by:
A. Space exploration
B. CFC’s
C. Methane
D. Carbon dioxide

A

B. CFC’s

118
Q

All proteins contain the
A. Same 20 amino acids
B. 300 Amino acids occurring in nature
C. Different amino acids
D. Only a few amino acids

A

A. Same 20 amino acids

119
Q

The optically inactive amino acid is
A. Glycine
B. Serine
C. Threonine
D. Valine

A

A. Glycine

120
Q

At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:
A. Dipolar ions
B. Nonpolar molecules
C. Positive and monovalent
D. Hydrophobic

A

A. Dipolar ions

121
Q

The true statement about solutions of amino acids at physiological pH is
A. All amino acids contains both positive and negative charges
B. All amino acids contain positively charged side chains
C. Some amino acids contain only positive charge
D. All amino acids contain negatively charged side chains

A

A. All amino acids contains both positive and negative charges

122
Q

pH (isoelectric pH) of alanine is
A. 6.02
B. 6.6
C. 6.8
D. 7.2

A

A. 6.02

123
Q

Sulphur containing amino acid is
A. Methionine
B. Leucine
C. Valine
D. Asparagine

A

A. Methionine

124
Q

An example of sulphur containing amino acid is
A. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic
B. 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid
C. 2-Amino-3-methylbutanoic acid
D. Amino acetic acid

A

A. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic

125
Q

All the following are sulphur containing amino acids found in proteins except
A. Cysteine
B. Cystine
C. Methionine
D. Threonine

A

D. Threonine

126
Q

An aromatic amino acid is
A. Lysine
B. Tyrosine
C. Taurine
D. Arginine

A

B. Tyrosine

127
Q

The functions of plasma albumin are
A. Osmosis
B. Transport
C. Immunity
D. both A and B

A

A. Osmosis

128
Q

Amino acid with side chain containing basic groups is
A. 2-Amino-5-guanidovaleric acid
B. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid
C. 2-Pyrrolidine carboxylic acid
D. 2-Amino propanoic acid

A

B. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid

129
Q

An example of α-amino acid not present in proteins but essential in mammalian metabolism is
A. 3-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid
B. 2-Amino-4-mercaptobutanoic acid
C. 2-Amino-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
D. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid

A

B. 2-Amino-4-mercaptobutanoic acid

130
Q

An essential amino acid in man is
A. Aspartate
B. Tyrosine
C. Methionine
D. Serine

A

C. Methionine

131
Q

Non-essential amino acids
A. Are not components of tissue proteins
B. May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids
C. Have no role in the metabolism
D. May be synthesized in the body in diseased states

A

B. May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids

132
Q

Which one of the following is semiessential amino acid for humans?
A. Valine
B. Arginine
C. Lysine
D. Tyrosine

A

B. Arginine

133
Q

An example of polar amino acid is
A. Alanine
B. Leucine
C. Arginine
D. Valine

A

C. Arginine

134
Q

The amino acid with a nonpolar side chain is
A. Serine
B. Valine
C. Asparagine
D. Threonine

A

B. Valine

135
Q

A ketogenic amino acid is
A. Valine
B. Cysteine
C. Leucine
D. Threonine

A

C. Leucine

136
Q

An amino acid that does not form an α-helix is
A. Valine
B. Proline
C. Tyrosine
D. Tryptophan

A

B. Proline

137
Q

An amino acid not found in proteins is
A. 3-Alanine
B. Proline
C. Lysine
D. Histidine

A

A. 3-Alanine

138
Q

In mammalian tissues serine can be a biosynthetic precursor of
A. Methionine
B. Glycine
C. Tryptophan
D. Phenylalanine

A

B. Glycine

139
Q

Which of the following alkanes is gas at room temperature?
A. Octane
B. propane
C. eicosane
D. undecan

A

B. propane

140
Q

The protein present in hair is
A. Keratin
B. Elastin
C. Myosin
D. Tropocollagen

A
141
Q

The amino acid from which synthesis of the protein of hair keratin takes place is
A. Alanine
B. Methionine
C. Proline
D. Hydroxyproline

A

B. Methionine

142
Q

In one molecule of albumin the number of amino acids is
A. 510
B. 590
C. 610
D. 650

A

C. 610

143
Q

Plasma proteins which contain more than 4% hexosamine are
A. Microglobulins
B. Glycoproteins
C. Mucoproteins
D. Orosomucoids

A

C. Mucoproteins

144
Q

After releasing O2 at the tissues, hemoglobin transports
A. CO2 and protons to the lungs
B. CO2 and protons to the tissue
C. O2 to the lungs
D. Nutrients

A

A. CO2 and protons to the lungs

145
Q

Which of the following groups is the most acidic?
A. ROH
B. NH3
C. HOH
D. RCOOH

A

D. RCOOH

146
Q

This structure is known as a(n)
CH3−C−O−C−CH3
║ ║
O O
A. Carboxylic acid
B. Acid chloride
C. carboxylic acid anhydride
D. ester

A

C. carboxylic acid anhydride

147
Q

A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it has
A. Nucleus
B. vacuoles
C. cellulose cell wall
D. definite shape

A

C. cellulose cell wall

148
Q

The most malleable metal is
A. Platinum
B. silver
C. iron
D. gold

A

D. gold

149
Q

The black image on an exposed and developed photographic film is composed of
A. Ag
B. AgBr
C. Ag2O
D. Ag(S2O3)2 3-

A

A. Ag

150
Q

On heatin glucose with Fehlling’s solution we get a precipitate whose color is
A. Yellow
B. red
C. black
D. white

A

B. red

151
Q

Which is the sweetest of all the sugar?
A. Fructose
B. glucose
C. lactose
D. sucrose

A

A. Fructose

152
Q

Calculate the hardness of water with the following analysis:
Na+ = 20 mg/L; Ca2+ = 15 mg/L; Mg2+ = 10 mg/L; Sr2+ = 2 mg/L
Cl- = 40 mg/L; SO4 2- = 16 mg/L; NO3 2- = 1 mg/L, Alkanility = 50 mg/L
A. 80.8 mg/L as CaCO3
B. 93.2 mg/L as CaCO3
C. 120.5 mg/L as CaCO3
D. 108.7 mg/L as CaCO3

A

A. 80.8 mg/L as CaCO3

153
Q

Which of the following is a unit of radiation exposure?
A. Grays
B. roentgen
C. curie
D. rads

A

B. roentgen

154
Q

A device commonly used to create, measure, and photograph emission spectra.
A. Tachometer
B. spectrometer
C. manometer
D. hydrometer

A

B. spectrometer

155
Q

It is an elementary particle that has no charge, has zero (or near zero) rest mass, and travels at the speed of light.
A. Positron
B. beta particle
C. neutrino
D. neutron

A

C. neutrino

156
Q

The radioactive isotope used to locate brain tumors is
A. 1D2
B. 16S31
C. 53I131
D. 92U232

A

C. 53I131

157
Q

The black precipitate formed hypo is added with silver nitrate solution is
A. Ag2S
B. Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]
C. S
D. Na2S

A

A. Ag2S

158
Q

The boiling temperature of ethylbenzene is 136ºC. Use Trouton’s rule to eliminate the enthalpy of vaporization of ethylbenzene at this temperature.
A. 35 kJ/mol
B. 12 kJ/mol
C. -14 kJ/mol
D. -24 kJ/mo

A

A. 35 kJ/mol

159
Q

The vapour pressure p of liquid sulfur trioxide, SO3, may be calculated for different temperatures T using the expression
Log ( p / kPa ) = A – B / T
Where, for the temperature range 24 to 48ºC, A = 9.147 and B = 1771 K. What is the vapour pressureof sulfur trioxide at 32ºC?
A. 0.82 MPa
B. 1.12 MPa
C. 1.87 MPa
D. 2.20 MPa

A

D. 2.20 MPa

160
Q

The vapour pressure of toluene is 6.811 kPa at 310 K and 24.15 kPa at 340 K. Assuming that the variation of the vapour pressure p with temperature T may be described by the expression
Log ( p / kPa ) = A – B / T
What are the values of A and B?
A. A = 7.059, B = 1930 K
B. A = 7.059, B = 2100 K
C. A = 5.307, B = 1930 K
D. A = 5.307, B = 2100 K

A

A. A = 7.059, B = 1930 K

161
Q

The vapour pressure of bromobenzene, C6H5Br, above an ideal-dilute aqueous solution of molality 0.092 mol kg-1 is 23.6 kPa. Calculate the Henry’s law constant of bromobenzene.
A. 256 kPa-kg/mol
B. 2.17 kPa-kg/mol
C. 120 kPa-kg/mol
D. 1.5 kPa-kg/mo

A

A. 256 kPa-kg/mol

162
Q

The equilibrium constant for the reaction PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ↔ PCl5(g) is K = 3.29 x 106 at 298 K. Calculate the value of Kc, the equilibrium constant expressed in terms of concentrations.
A. 3.44 E 2
B. 8.15 E 4
C. 8.15 E 6
D. 3.44 E 4

A

C. 8.15 E 6

163
Q

Calculate the pH of an aqueous solution of hydrocyanic acid of concentration 0.088 mol dm-3. The acidity constant of hydrocyanic acid is 4.9×10-10
A. 10.2
B. 8.82
C. 5.18
D. 3.48

A

C. 5.18

164
Q

In a titration, 2.7 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide, NaOH, solution is added to 25.0 cm3 of 0.125 mol dm-3 benzoic acid, C6H5COOH, solution. Calculate the pH of the resultin solution given that the pKa of benzoic acid is 4.19.
A. 3.13
B. 4.12
C. 7.45
D. 9.12

A

A. 3.13

165
Q

Calculate the ionic strength of a solution of iron (III)carbonate, Fe2(CO3)3 of concentration 0.020 mol dm-3
A. 0.25
B. 0.30
C. 0.40
D. 0.50

A

B. 0.30

166
Q

A liquid that has percolated through solid waste and has extracted dissolved or suspended materials from it
A. Permeate
B. leachate
C. filtrate
D. seepage

A

A. Permeate

167
Q

Corundum is
A. Aluminum oxide
B. iron oxide
C. magnesium oxide
D. calcium oxide

A

A. Aluminum oxide

168
Q

Calcite is
A. Potassium carbonate
B. calcium carbonate
C. sodium hydroxide
D. calcium hydroxide

A

B. calcium carbonate

169
Q

Which of wastewater treatment is most adversely affected by low temperature?
A. Primary
B. secondary
C. advanced
D.disinfection

A

B. secondary

170
Q

Which of the following is not true?
A. Solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
B. Solubility of gases in water increases with increasing pressure
C. Solubility of gases in water is important for fish population
D. Solubility of both oxygen and nitrogen gas increases with pressure

A

A. Solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature

171
Q

In the activated sludge process for treating wastewater, the most important step is
A. Chemical precipitation
B. biological decomposition
C. chlorination
D. reverse osmosis

A

B. biological decomposition

172
Q

Activated charcoal is used in water treatment primarily for
A. Pathogen removal
B. Organic materials removed
C. inorganic salt removal
D. filtering sediments

A

B. Organic materials removed

173
Q

To remove nitrates and phosphates from water requires
A. Aeration
B. Secondary treatments
C. advanced treatments
D. an activated sludge process

A

C. advanced treatments

174
Q

Pentane and isopentane are what type of isomers?
A. Aldehydes
B. chiral
C. structural
D. enantiomers

A

C. structural

175
Q

Which of the following is false concerning protein?
A. They are present in most living cells
B. They are major structural components in animal tissues
C. they are made up of amino acids
D. the act as biological catalyst

A

A. They are present in most living cells

176
Q

What is the hybridization of the oxygen atom in the aldehyde?
A. sp
B. sp3
C. d2sp3
D. sp2

A

D. sp2

177
Q

What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?
H H
│ │
H3C—C — C —C==CH2
│ │ │
CH3 H CH3
A. 2, 5-dimethypentane
B. 2, 4-methylbutene
C. 2, 4-dimethyl-1-pentene
D. 2, 4-ethylbutene

A

C. 2, 4-dimethyl-1-pentene

178
Q

Plants that carry out photosynthesis do so to
A. Drive essential biochemical reactions having positive delta G values
B. Reduce CO2 in the atmosphere
C. Produce chlorophyll needed to stabilize cell walls
D. Increase O2 in the atmosphere

A

A. Drive essential biochemical reactions having positive delta G values

179
Q

The sequence of amino acids in a protein is the
A. Primary structure
B. secondary structure
C. tertiary structure
D. quaternary structure

A

A. Primary structure

180
Q

Which of the following are monosaccharides? (I) glucose (II) fructose (III) lactose (IV) sucrose
A. III and IV
B. I and II
C. I
D. II

A

B. I and II

181
Q

Equimolar amounts of hydrogen and oxygen as at the same temperature are released into a larger container. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of the hydrogen molecules to that of the molecules of oxygen would be
A. 256:1
B. 16.1
C. 1:16
D. 4:1

A

D. 4:1

182
Q

At what temperature will the velocity of CO2 molecules equal the velocity of oxygen molecules at 0ºC?
A. 102ºC
B. 632ºC
C. 132ºC
D. 125ºC

A

A. 102ºC

183
Q

It is the heating of an ore to bring about its decomposition ant the elimination of a volatile product.
A. Smelting
B. roasting
C. calcinations
D. refining

A

C. calcinations

184
Q

It is the thermal treatment that causes chemical reactions between the ore and the furnace atmosphere.
A. Smelting
B. roasting
C. refining
D. calcinations

A

B. roasting

185
Q

It is a melting process in which the materials formed in the course of chemical reactions separate into two or ore layers.
A. Smelting
B. roasting
C. calcinations
D. refining

A

A. Smelting

186
Q

The treatment of a crude, relatively impure metal from a metallurgical process to improve its purity and to define its composition better.
A. Smelting
B. roasting
C. calcinations
D. refining

A

D. refining

187
Q

It is a form of carbon which is soft, black, slippery solid that has a metallic luster and conducts electricity.
A. graphite
B. diamond
C. buckiminsterfullerence
D. carbon black

A

A. graphite

188
Q

It is formed which hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in a very limited supply of oxygen.
A. carbon black
B. charcoal
C. coke
D. coal

A
189
Q

What is the hybridization of the oxygen atom in an aldehyde?
A. sp
B. sp3
C. d2sp3
D. sp2

A

D. sp2

190
Q

It is produced by the destructive distillation of wood
A. methanol
B. ethanol
C. isopropyl alcohol
D. butanol

A

A. methanol

191
Q

Also known as grain alcohol or beverage alcohol.
A. methanol
B. ethanol
C. isopropyl alcohol
D. butanol

A

B. ethanol

192
Q

Which of the following is an acid found in milk?
A. lactic acid
B. tartaric acid
C. malic acid
D. citric acid

A

A. lactic acid

193
Q

How many isomers are there corresponding to the formula C4H10O?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

A

D. 7

194
Q

How many structural isomers are possible for C2H4Cl2?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

A. 2

195
Q

Compounds added to the glass to give it the white opaque appearance so characteristics of vitreous enamels.
A. fluxes
B. opacifiers
C. electrolytes
D. whiteners

A

B. opacifiers

Day 1 (10 decks)

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