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Day 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main purpose of the Solid Waste Management Act (RA 9003)?
A. To regulate the disposal of hazardous waste
B. To regulate the disposal of all types of waste
C. To regulate the production of waste
D. To regulate the trasnport of waste

A

B. To regulate the disposal of all types of waste

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2
Q

What is the priciple of segregation at source in solid waste management?
A. The seperation of different types of waste at the source of generation
B. The mixing of different types of waste at the source of generation
C. The disposal of waste at the source of generation
D. The transport of waste to a central types of waste at the source of generation

A

A. The seperation of different types of waste at the source of generation

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3
Q

What is the responsibility of the Local Government Unit (LGU) in solid waste management under RA 9003?
A. To provide a central disposal facility for waste
B. To enforce the segregation of waste at the source
C. To provide waste collection serviced
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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4
Q

What is the main difference between exothermic and endothermic reactions?
A. Exothermic reactions release energy, while endothermic reactions absorb energy.
B. Endothermic reactions release energy, while exothermic reactions absorb energy.
C. Exothermic reactions absorb energy, while endothermic reactions release energy.
D. There is no difference between exothermic and endothermic reactions.

A

A. Exothermic reactions release energy, while endothermic reactions absorb energy.

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5
Q

What os the meaning of the term “equilibrium” in physical chemistry?
A. A state in which the rate of chemical reaction is equal to the rate of its reverse action.
B. A state in which all chemical reactions have stopped.
C. A state in which all chemical reactions are proceeding at maximum rate.
D. A state in which the properties of a system remain constant over time.

A

A. A state in which the rate of chemical reaction is equal to the rate of its reverse action.

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6
Q

What is a first-order linear differential equation?
A. A differential equation that involves only the first derivatinve and is nonlinear.
B. A differential equation that involves only the first derivative ans is linear.
C. A differentail equation that involves higher-order derivatives and is linear.
D. A differential equation that involves higher-orfer derivatives and is nonlinear.

A

B. A differential equation that involves only the first derivative ans is linear.

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7
Q

What is the formula for calculating the kinetic energy of an object?
A. KE = mv^2
B. KE = mgh
C. KE = mc^2
D. KE = 0.5mv^2

A

D. KE = 0.5mv^2

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a renewabel source of energy?
A. Solar energy
B. Hydro energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. Wind energy

A

C. Nuclear energy

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9
Q

What is the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy?
A. Repsitation
B. Transpiration
C. Fermentation
D. Photosynthesis

A

D. Photosynthesis

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10
Q

What is the type of heat transfer occurs as a result of the emission and absorption of electromagnetic waves?
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation

A

B. Radiation

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11
Q

What is the type of control strategy involves measuring the deviation of a process variable from a set point and using this information to adjust the process accordingly?
A. Open loop control
B. Feedback control
C. Feedforward control
D. Cascade control

A

B. Feedback control

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12
Q

What type of control strategy involves using a predicted disturbance in the process to make a corrective adjustment in advance?
A. Open loop control
B. Feedback control
C. Feedforward control
D. Cascade control

A

C. Feedforward control

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13
Q

What type of cintrol strategy involves using the output of one control loop as the set point for another control in a hierarchiral arrangement?
A. Open loop control
B. Feedback control
C. Feedforward control
D. Cascade control

A

D. Cascade control

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14
Q

Which type of chemical bond forms when electrons are shared between two atoms?
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Metallic bond

A

B. Covalent bond

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15
Q

What type of chemical bond forms between a metal and a non-metal atom?
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Metallic bond

A

A. Ionic bond

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16
Q

What type of mass transfer as occurs as a result of random molecular motion?
A. Convection
B. Diffusion
C. Afvection
D. Solute transport

A

B. Diffusion

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16
Q

What type of chemical bond forms between two or more non-metal atoms with a partially positive hydrogen atom?
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Metallic bond

A

C. Hydrogen bond

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17
Q

What is the main objective of process design in a chemical plant?
A. To optimize the production efficiency
B. To minimize the environmental impact
C. To ensure safety of workers
D. To minimize production costs

A

D. To minimize production costs

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18
Q

What type of statistical analysis is used to identify relationship between multiple independent variables and a single dependent variable?
A. chi-squared test
B. t-test
C. ANOVA
D. regression analysis

A

D. regression analysis

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19
Q

What type of statistical analysis is used to compare the means of three or more groups?
A. chi-squared test
B. t-test
C. ANOVA
D. regression analysis

A

C. ANOVA

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20
Q

What method is used to determine the present value of an investment, based on its future cah flows and a discount rate?
A. Present worth analysis
B. Future worth analysis
C. Annual worth analysis
D. Benefit-cost analysis

A

A. Present worth analysis

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21
Q

What type of annuity pays equal at intervals, has a fixed term, and starts payments immediately?
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Perpetuity
D. Growing annuity

A

B. Annuity due

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22
Q

What is the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity?
A. FV = PV(1+r)^n
B. PV = FV/(+r)^n
C. PV = FV(1+r)^-n
D. PV = FV/((1+r)^n-1)

A

D. PV = FV/((1+r)^n-1)

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23
Q

A company is considering the purchase of a new piece of equipment for $100,000. the equipment is expected to provide benefit for 5 years, with an expected cash flow of $30,000 per year. What is the internal rate of return (IRR) for the investmen?
A. 8%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 15%

A

C. 12%

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24
Q

A company is considering the purchase of a new piece of equipment for $100,000. The equipment is expected to provide benefits for 5 years. with an expected cash flow of $30,000 per year. What is the payback period for the equipment?
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years

A

B. 4 years

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25
Q

A marketing research firm is conductionf a survey to determine consumer preferences for a neq product. They have collected data on the age, income, and product preference of 1000 consumers. What tupe of statistical analysis should use to determine if there is relationship between age, income, and product preference?
A. Regression analysis
B. Correlation analysis
C. Chi-squared test
D. T-test

A

B. Correlation analysis

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26
Q

A data analyst is reviewing sales date for a company and wants to determine if there is significant difference in sales between different regions. What type of statistical analysis should the analyst use?
A. One-sample test
B. Two-sample test
C. ANOVA
D. Regression analysis

A

C. ANOVA

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27
Q

A chemical engineer is designing a process to produce a chemical product. The process involves a raction between two reactant at a high remeprature and pressure. The engineer needs to determine the best reactor design for the process. Which type of reactor would be the most suitable for this process?
A. Batch reactor
B. Continuous flow reactor
C. Plug flow reactor
D. Mixed flow reactor

A

C. Plug flow reactor

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28
Q

A chemical engineer is designing distillation colum to separate a mixture of two liquids with different boiling points. What type of distillation column should the engineer use to maximize the separation of the two liquids?
A. Simple distillation column
B. Rectifying distillation column
C. Stripping distillation column
D. Azeotropic distillation column

A

B. Rectifying distillation column

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29
Q

A chemical engineer is designing a process to remove impurities from a liquid stream. Which unit operation would be the most appropriate for this process?
A. Evaporation
B. Filtration
C. Absorption
D. Extraction

A

C. Absorption

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30
Q

What is the main difference bwtween a crystalline and amorphous solid?
A. Crystalline solids have a defined molecular structure, while amorphous solids do not.
B. Crystalline solds are transparent, while amorphous solids are opaque.
C. Crystalline solids are brittle, while amorphous solids are ductiile.
D. Crystalline solids have a high melting point, while amorphous solid do not.

A

A. Crystalline solids have a defined molecular structure, while amorphous solids do not.

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31
Q

What is the main difference between a tensile and a compressive load?
A. Tensile loads cause a meterial to stretch, while compressive loads cause a material to compress.
B. Tensile loads are experienced by materuals in tension, while compressive loads are experienced by materials in compression.
C. Tensile loads cause material to bend, while compressive loads cause a material to twist.
D. Tensile loads cause a material to deform plastically, while compressive loads cause a material to compress.

A

A. Tensile loads cause a meterial to stretch, while compressive loads cause a material to compress.

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32
Q

What is the main difference between a metal and a ceramic (based on basic physical manifestation)?
A. Metals are good conductors of electricity, while ceramics are brittle.
B. Metals are malleable and ductile, while ceramics are brittle.
C. Metals have a hogh melting point, while creamics have a low melting point.
D. Metals are opaque, while ceramics are transparent.

A

B. Metals are malleable and ductile, while ceramics are brittle.

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33
Q

What is the best main difference betweem polymer and a composite material?
A. Polymers are made of a single type of polymer chain, while composite materials are made of multiple materials.
B. Polymers are weak and brittle, while composite materials are strong and durable.
C. Polymers are made by polymerizationm while composite materials are made by compounding.
D. Polymers are homogeneous, while composite materials are heterogeneous.

A

A. Polymers are made of a single type of polymer chain, while composite materials are made of multiple materials.

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34
Q

What is the main difference between a brittle and a ductile material?
A. Brittle materials break without significant plastic deformation, while ductile materials deform plastically before breaking.
B. Brittle materials have low tensile strength, while ductile materials have high tensile strength.
C. Brittle materials are hard, while ductile materials are soft.
D. Brittle materials are stiff, while ductile materials are flexible.

A

A. Brittle materials break without significant plastic deformation, while ductile materials deform plastically before breaking.

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35
Q

What is the main difference between a superconductor and a normal conductor?
A. Superconductors have zero electrical resistance, while normal conductors have non-zero electrical resistance.
Superconductos are made of metals, while normal conductors are made of ceramics.
C. Superconductors are magnetic, while normal conductors are non-magnetic.
D. Superconductors have high thermal conductivity, while normal conductors have low thermal conductivity.

A

A. Superconductors have zero electrical resistance, while normal conductors have non-zero electrical resistance.

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36
Q

What is the main difference between a nanomaterial and conventional material?
A. Nanomaterials have unique properties due to their small size, while conventional materials have properties that are independent of their size.
B. Nanomaterials are made up of nanoparticles, while conventional materials are made of macroscopic particles.
C. Nanomaterials have high surface area, while conventional materials have low surface area.
D. Nanomaterials are rare, while conventional materials are abundant.

A

A. Nanomaterials have unique properties due to their small size, while conventional materials have properties that are independent of their size.

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37
Q

A metal rod has a Young’s modulus of 200GPa and a diameter of 10mm. What is the stress in the rod when it is subjected to a tensile force of 500N?
A. 50 MPa
B. 100 MPa
C. 150 MPa
D. 200 MPa

A

B. 100 MPa

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38
Q

A metal sample has a grain size of 10 microns. What will happen to its yield strength if the grain size is decreased to 1 micron?
A. It will increase
B. It will decrease
C. It will remain the same
D. It is impossible to determine without further information

A

A. It will increase

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39
Q

A reaction has the following rate law: rate = k[A]^2[B]. What is the order of the reaction with respect to reactant B?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

A

B. 1

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40
Q

What is the effect of pipe diameter on fluid flow?
A. Increases flow rate
B. Decreases flow rate
C. No effect on flow rate
D. Increases flow rate and pressure

A

A. Increases flow rate

41
Q

What is the main purpose of a safety valve in a piping system?
A. To regulate the flow rate
B. To maintain pressure
C. To relieve excess pressure
D. To control the chemical composition of the fluid

A

C. To relieve excess pressure

42
Q

What is the most commom cause of fluid flow turbulence in pipes?
A. High fluid viscosity
B. Sudden changes in pipe diameter
C. High fluid velocity
D. Insufficient pipe length

A

B. Sudden changes in pipe diameter

43
Q

What type of unit operation is commonly used to separate solid and liquid components of a mixture in pharmaceuticals?
A. Distillation
B. Evaporation
C. Filtration
D. Extraction

A

C. Filtration

44
Q

What is the purpose in the pharmaceutical manufacturing process?
A. To improce the flowability of powders
B. To improve the stability of liquids
C. To improve the bioavailability of drugs
D. To improve the appearance of tablets

A

A. To improce the flowability of powders

45
Q

What is the main purpose of drying in the pharmaceutical manufacturing process?
A. To remove solvents
B. To increase the stability of liquids
C. To remove impurities
D. To improve the flowability of powders

A

A. To remove solvents

46
Q

What is the primary objective of thermal processing in food engineering?
A. To preserve food by killing pathogens.
B. To improve the flavor of food.
C. To improve the texture of food.
D. To increase the nutrient content of food.

A

A. To preserve food by killing pathogens.

47
Q

What is the main purpose of food preservation by the use of a modified atmosphere?
A. To improve the flavor of food
B. To increase the nutrient content of food
C. To preserve food by reducing oxidation
D. To improve the texture of food

A

C. To preserve food by reducing oxidation

48
Q

What is the main purpose of mixing in food processing?
A. To homogenize the ingredients
B. To improve the flavor of food
C. To improve the texture of food
D. To increase the nutrient content of food

A

A. To homogenize the ingredients

49
Q

What is the main purpose of a control valve in a piping system?
A. To regulate the flow rate
B. To maintain pressure
C. To measure temperature
D. To control the chemical composition of the fluid

A

A. To regulate the flow rate

50
Q

What is the main application of Boolean algebra in process control?
A. To represent the state of a system
B. To control the flow rate of a fluid
C. To measure temperature
D. To analyze the stability of a system

A

A. To represent the state of a system

51
Q

What is the main difference between Boolean algebra and traditional algebra?
A. Boolean algebra operates on binary values, while traditional algebra operates on real numbers.
B. Boolean algebra is used in control systems, while traditional algebra is used in mathematics.
C. Boolean algebra is used in mathematics, while traditional algebra is used in control systems.
D. Boolean algebra is used to represent the state of a system, while traditional algebra is used to represent numerical relationship.

A

A. Boolean algebra operates on binary values, while traditional algebra operates on real numbers.

52
Q

What is the main benefit of using Boolean algebra in process control?
A. Boolean algebra provides a concise representation of the state of a system.
B. Boolean algebra provides a way to represent and analyze complex control logic.
C. Boolean algebra allows fot hte efficeint analysos pf stability.
D. Boolean algebra provides a convenient way to measure temperature.

A

B. Boolean algebra provides a way to represent and analyze complex control logic.

53
Q

In Boolean algebra, what is the result of the logical AND operation on the binary values 0 and 1?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1

A

A. 0

54
Q

In Boolean algebra, what is the result of the logical OR operation on the binary values 0 and 1?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1

A

B. 1

55
Q

What is the Laplace transfrom used for in process control?
A. To analyze the stability of systems
B. To solve differential equations
C. To control the chemical composition of the fluid
D. To measure temperature

A

A. To analyze the stability of systems

56
Q

How does the Laplace transform help in the design of control systems?
A. By converting a time-domain representation into a frequency-domain representation.
B. By controlling the chemical composition of the fluid.
C. By measuring temperature.
D. By solving differential equations.

A

A. By converting a time-domain representation into a frequency-domain representation.

57
Q

What is the relationship between the Laplace transform and the transfer function in process control?
A. The Laplace transform is used to calculate the trasfer function.
B. The transfer function is used to calculate the Laplace transform.
C. They are independent of each other.
D. They are used together to analyze the behavior of systems.

A

A. The Laplace transform is used to calculate the trasfer function.

58
Q

What type of sensor is commonly used to measure pressure in industrial process control systems?
A. Strain Gauge Pressure Sensor
B. Optical Pressure Sensor
C. Piezoelectric Pressure Sensor
D. Absolute Pressure Sensor

A

A. Strain Gauge Pressure Sensor

59
Q

What type of sensor is commonly used to measure flow rate in industrial process control systems?
A. Vortez Shedding Flow Sensor
B. Magnetic Flow Sensor
C. Coriolis Flow Sensor
D. Ultrasonic Flow Sensor

A

C. Coriolis Flow Sensor

60
Q

Which block of the periodic table contains elements that show increasing metallic character from left to right and down to up?
A. s-block
B. p-block
C. d-block
D. f-block

A

C. d-block

61
Q

Which element was discovered using the periodic law formulated by the Russian chemist Dmitri Mendeleev in 1869?
A. Helium
B. Neon
C. Gallium
D. Germanium

A

C. Gallium

62
Q

Which element in the periodic table is known for its shiny appearance and is a good conductor of electricity and heat?
A. Carbon
B. Sodium
C. Chlorine
D. Sulfur

A

B. Sodium

62
Q

What was the reason behidn the periodic law being recognized as a fundamental discovery in the late 19th cetury?
A. The discovery of atomic mass
B. The discovery of atomic number
C. Pioneering work in quantum mechanics
D. The discovery of neutron

A

B. The discovery of atomic number

63
Q

Which element in the periodic table is known as the most reactive nonmetal?
A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Fluorine

A

D. Fluorine

64
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property tat the elements in a group of the periodic table display?
A. Similar electron configurations
B. Similar chemical reactivity
C. Similar physical state at room temperature
D. Different boiling points

A

D. Different boiling points

65
Q

A chemist is trying to determine the electron configuration of an unknown element. From their observation, they know the element has a similar chemical reactivity to elements in group 14 of the periodic table. Which electron configuration is most likely for this unknown element?
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2

A

C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6

66
Q

Which of the following best describes the trend in ionization energy across a period in the periodic table?
A. Decreases as you move form left to right
B. Increases as you move form left to right
C. Decreases as you move right to left
D. Remains the same

A

B. Increases as you move form left to right

67
Q

What is the peridic law?
A. The law stating the dependence of chemical properaties on atomic mass.
B. The law stating the dependence of chemical properaties on atomic number.
C. The law stating the dependence of chemical properaties on the number of electrons.
D. The law stating the dependence of chemical properaties on the number of neutrons.

A

B. The law stating the dependence of chemical properaties on atomic number.

68
Q

What happens when a metal experiences a stres larger than its elasstic limit?
A. Elastic deformation
B. Plastic deformation
C. Elastic and Plastic deformation
D. No deformation

A

B. Plastic deformation

69
Q

Which of the following factors affects the pressure of a gas in a closed container?
A. The temperature of the gas
B. The volume of the container
C. The mass of the gas particles
D. The density of the gas

A

A. The temperature of the gas
B. The volume of the container

70
Q

What is the relationship betweem the volume and temperature of a gas at constant pressure, according to Charle’s law?
A. V ∝ T
B. V ∝ T^2
C. V ∝ 1/T
D. V ∝ log T

A

A. V ∝ T

71
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the ideal gas law?
A. It is only applicable to gases composed of non-polar molecules.
B. It assumes that gas molecules have volume and attractive forces between them.
C. It relates the pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of a gas.
D. It only applies to gases at standar temperature and pressure (STP).

A

C. It relates the pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of a gas.

72
Q

Which of the following factors affects the diffusion rate of a gas?
A. The mass of the gas particles
B. The temperature of the gas
C. The pressure of the gas
D. The size of the container

A

A. The mass of the gas particles

73
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the compressibility factor of a gas?
A. It is always equal to 1 for ideal gases.
B. It depends on the pressure and temperature of the gas.
C. It is the same for all gases at the same pressure and temperature.
D. It is a measure of the kinetic energy of the gas particles.

A

B. It depends on the pressure and temperature of the gas.

74
Q

Which of the following factors influence the rate of a chemical reaction?
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Surface area
D. Volume

A

A. Temperature

75
Q

Which of following statements is true about the equilibrium constant (Kc) of a chemical reaction?
A. Kc is independent of temperature.
B. Kc is independent of the initial concentration of reactants and products.
C. Kc is a measure of the rate of the reaction.
D. Kc can be used to predict the direction of a reaction.

A

B. Kc is independent of the initial concentration of reactants and products.

76
Q

Which of the following statements is true about Hess’s law of of heat summation?
A. It applies only to reactions that occur at constant pressure.
B. It states that the enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the path taken between the reactants and products.
C. It applies only to reactions that occur at constant volume.
It is based on the principle of conservation of mass.

A

B. It states that the enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the path taken between the reactants and products.

77
Q

Which of the following factors affect the solubility of a gas in a liquid?
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Surface area
D. pH

A

B. Pressure

78
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the Bernoulli’s principle?
A. It states that the pressure of a fluid decreases as its velocitu increases.
B. It is only applicable to compressible fluids.
C. It applies only to fluids flowing in a straight line.
D. It violates the conservation of energy principle.

A

A. It states that the pressure of a fluid decreases as its velocitu increases.

79
Q

A chemical engineer needs to separate a mixture of two compounds, A and B, with very similar boiling points. Which of the following techniques would be most effective for this task?
A. Distillation
B. Filtration
C. Chromotography
D. Centrifugation

A

C. Chromotography

80
Q

A research needs to seperate a mixture of two compounds, C and D, with different boiling points. However, the researcher does not have access to a distillation apparatus. Which of the following techniques would be most effective for this task?
A. Filtration
B. Chromatography
C. Crystallization
D. Solvent extraction

A

D. Solvent extraction

81
Q

A chemical plant needs to separate a mixture of four different compounds, all of which have similar boiling points and chemical properties. Which of the following combinations of separation techniques would be most effective for this task?
A. Distillation and filtration
B. Chromatography and centrifugation
C. Membrane filtration and crystallization
D. Adsorption and absorption

A

D. Adsorption and absorption

82
Q

Which of th following dactors affects the Reynolds number of a fluid flow?
A. The density of the fluid
B. The viscosity of the fluid
C. The velocity of the fluid
D. The diameter of the conduit

A

D. The diameter of the conduit

83
Q

What is the ultimate strength of a material?
A. The maximum load that a material can withstand before it fractures or breaks.
B. The load that a maeterial can bear over a long period of time without deforming.
C. The maximum load that a material can bear without permanent deformation.
D. The load that a material can bear without yielding.

A

A. The maximum load that a material can withstand before it fractures or breaks.

84
Q

What is the difference between yield strength of a material?
A. Yield strength is the maximum stress that a material can bear without permanent deformation, while ultimate strength is the maximum load that a material can withstand before it fractures or breaks.
B. Yield strength is the maximum load that a material can bear without yielding, while ultimate strength is the maximum stress that a material can withstand before it fractures or breaks.
C. Yield strength is the stress at which a material starts to deform plastically, while ultimate strength is the stress at which the material fractures.
D. Yield strength is the maximum load that a material can bear over a long period of time withou deforming, while ultimate strength is the maximum load that can bear without permanent deformation.

A

C. Yield strength is the stress at which a material starts to deform plastically, while ultimate strength is the stress at which the material fractures.

85
Q

Which of the following factors affects the modulus of elasticity of a material?
A. The temperature of the material
B. The cross-sectional area of the material
C. The length of the material
D. The type of material

A

D. The type of material

86
Q

A system undergoes an isothermal process in which its volume is doubled. Which of the following statements is true regarding the entropy change of the system?
A. The entropy change is positive.
B. The entropy change is negative.
C. The entropy change is zero.
D. The entropu change cannot be determined without more information.

A

A. The entropy change is positive.

87
Q

A person drinks a hot cup of coffee, which cools down over time. Which of the following statements is true regarding the second law of thermodynamics as it applies to this process?
A. The cooling of the coffee violates the second law of thermodynamics.
B. The cooling of the coffee is an example of a reversible process.
C. The entropy of the universe decreases as the coffee cools down.
D. The entropy of the universe increases as the coffee cools down.

A

D. The entropy of the universe increases as the coffee cools down.

88
Q

A machine is designed to operate with a thermal efficiency greater than 100%, Which of the following statments is true regarding the second law thermodynamics as it applies to this machne?
A. The machine violares the second law of thermodynamics.
B. the machine is an example of reversible process.
C. The entropy of the universe decreases the machine operates.
D. The entropy of the universe increaases the machine operates.

A

A. The machine violares the second law of thermodynamics.

89
Q

A company is producing a pharmaceutical product that requires a purification step usinf adsorption. The target compound is a small molecule with a high affinitu for the adsorbent materialm but the product also contains impurities that may bind to the adsorbent. Which of the following statements is true about how to optimize the adsorption process?
A. Increasing the temperature of the solution will increase the adsorption of the impurities.
B. Using a higher concentration of the target compound will increas ehte adsorption of the impurities.
C. Reducing the flow rate of the solution will increase the adsorption of the impurities.
D. Using a lower concentration of the target compound will increase the adsorption of the impurities.

A

D. Using a lower concentration of the target compound will increase the adsorption of the impurities.

90
Q

A company is trying to purify a protein product using an ion exchange resin. The protein has a high isoelectric point (pl), which means it has a net positive charge at the pH of the solution. Which of the following statements is true about how to optimize the ion exchange process?
A. Using a cation excahnge resin will lead to better purification of the protein.
B. Adjusting the pH of the solution to a lower value will lead to better purification of the protein.
C. Increasing the salt concentration of the solution will lead to better purification of the protein.
D. Using a higher flow rate for the solution will lead to better purification of the protein.

A

B. Adjusting the pH of the solution to a lower value will lead to better purification of the protein.

91
Q

A company is trying to recover a solvent from a solution using adsorption onto activated carbon. The solvent is relatively nonpolar, and the solution also contains polar impurities. Which of the following statements is true about how to optimize the adsorption process?
A. Using a polar adsorbent material will increase the selectivity for the solvent.
B. Increasing the temperature of the solution will increase the electivity for the solvent.
C. Increasing the flow rate of the solution will increase the selectivity for the solvent.
D. Reducing the polarity of the solven twill increase the selectivity for the solvent.

A

D. Reducing the polarity of the solven twill increase the selectivity for the solvent.

92
Q

Which of the following statements is true about optimizing the adsorption process?
A. Using a polar adsorbent material is not recommended.
B. Increasing the temperature of the solution can decrease the efficiency of the process.
C. Increasing the flow rate of the solution can reduce the adsorption capacity.
D. Reducing the polarity of the solvent will increase the selectivity for the solvent and improve the efficiency of the process.

A

D. Reducing the polarity of the solvent will increase the selectivity for the solvent and improve the efficiency of the process.

93
Q

Conside the reaction: A(g) + B(g) ⇌ 2C(g). If the initial concentration of A is doubled while the concentration of B is kept constant, what effect will this have on the equilibrium position?
A. The equilibrium will shift to the left, towards the reactants.
B. The equilibrium will shift to the right, toward the products.
C. The equilibrium will remain unchanged.
D. The equilibrium wull shift in a direction that cannot be determined.

A

B. The equilibrium will shift to the right, toward the products.

94
Q

A reaction vessel contains equal concentrations of hydrogen adn iodine gas, and the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) is allowed to come to equilibrium. If the reaction vessel is then compressed, what effect will this have on the equilibrium position?
A. The equilibrium will shift to the left, towards the reactants.
B. The equilibrium will shift to the right, towards the products.
C. The equilibrium will remain unchanged.
D. The equilibrium will shift in a direction that cannot be determined.

A

B. The equilibrium will shift to the right, towards the products.

95
Q

At 1000 K, the equilibrium constant for the reaction CO(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ H2O(g) is Kc = 3.45×10^-3. If a mixture of CO and H2 gases is introduced into a reaction vessel at this temperature, and the concentration of CH
at equilibrium is found to be 0.023 M, what is the concentration of CO at equilibrium?
A. 0.0026 M
B. 0.0167 M
C. 0.023 M
D. 0.045 M

A

A. 0.0026 M

96
Q

A researcher is conducting an experiment to investigate the relationship between temperature and reaction rate. After collecting the data, she performs a linear regression analysis and obtains an R-squared value of 0.95. WHich of the following conclusions is most appropriate?
A. There is a strong positive correleation between temperature and reaction rate.
B. There is a weak negative correlation between temperature and reaction rate.
C. The model does not provide a good fit for the data.
D. The relationship between temperature and reaction rate cannot be determined from the data.

A

A. There is a strong positive correleation between temperature and reaction rate.

97
Q

A quality control manager is testing the hardness of a batch of metal parts. She takes ten measurements and obtains the following data: 50, 51, 52, 48, 49, 53, 54, 55, 51, 50. What is the median hardness value of the batch?
A. 50
B. 51
C. 52
D. 53

A

B. 51

98
Q

A chemical engineer is analyzing the performace of a distillation column. She measures the composition of the distillate and obtains the following data: 70%A, 20%B, and 10%C. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The column is operating at total reflux.
B. The column is not separating the components effectively.
C. The composition of the feed is not known.
D. The column is operating in a steady state.

A

B. The column is not separating the components effectively.

Day 1 (10 decks)

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