Biochemistry

Question 1

A microorganism that grows well at 0°C and has an optinum growth temperature of 15°C or lower and a temperature maximum around 20°C.
A. mesophile
B. thermophiles
C. thermoacidophiles
D. psychrophiles

Answer 1

D. psychrophiles

Question 2

The microbial decomposition of organic matter, especially the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, with the production of foul smelling compound such as hydrogen sulfide and amines.
A. eutrophication
B. putrefaction
C. bioconversion
D. Inflection

Answer 2

B. putrefaction

Question 3

The deflection of a light ray from a straight path as it passes from one meduim to another.
A. reflection
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. inflection

Answer 3

B. refraction

Question 4

The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving as atemplate.
A. transcription
B. translation
C. replication
D. transformation

Answer 4

C. replication

Question 5

An energy-yeilding process in which an electron donor is oxidized using an inorganic electron electron acceptor. The aceeptor may be either oxygen or another inorganic acceptor.
A. aerobic respiration
B. anaerobic respiration
C. respiration
D. digestion

Answer 5

C. respiration

Question 6

A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during protein synthesis or signals the start or stop of translation
A. codon
B. nucleotides
C. DNA
D. polymerase

Answer 6

A. codon

Question 7

It refers to a multinucleate cell or hypha formed by repeated nuclear divisions not accompanied by cell divisions.
A. allosteric
B. coenocytic
C. tissues
D. organelles

Answer 7

B. coenocytic

Question 8

A loosely bound cofactor that often dissociates from the enzyme active site after product has been formed.
A. coenzyme
B. apoenzyme
C. holoenzyme
D. exoenzymes

Answer 8

A. coenzyme

Question 9

A cluster or assemblage of microorganism growing on a solid surface such as the surface of an agar cultute medium; the assemblage is often ditectly visible, but may be seen only microscopically.
A. seed
B. strain
C. culture
D. colony

Answer 9

B. strain

Question 10

A large group of photosynthetic bacteria with oxygenic photosynthesis and a photosynthetic system like that present in eucaryotic photodynthetiv organism.
A. eubacteria
B. cyanobacteria
C. archeaebacteria
D. bacteria

Answer 10

B. cyanobacteria

Question 11

The phase of microbial growth in a batch culture when the viable microbial population declines.
A. lag phase
B. exponential phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase

Answer 11

D. death phase

Question 12

The change in the shape of an enzyme that destroys its activity; the term is also applied to changes in nucleicacid shape.
A. denaturation
B. inhibition
C. metabolism
D. catalytic respression

Answer 12

A. denaturation

Question 13

The reduction of nirate to nitrogen gas during anaerobic respiration
A. nitrification
B. denitrification
C. nitration
D. denitration

Answer 13

B. denitrification

Question 14

The nucluic acid that constitutes the genitic material of all cellular organisms.
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA

Answer 14

D. DNA

Question 15

A structure within or on a cell that perfirm specific functions is related to the cell that is simillar to that of an organ to a body.
A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm
D. organelles

Answer 15

D. organelles

Question 16

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a dilute solution to a more concentratef solution.
A. diffusion
B. filtration
C. reverse osmosis
D. osmosis

Answer 16

C. reverse osmosis

Question 17

The process of heating milk and other liquids to destroy microorganisms that can cause spoilage or disease.
A. sterilization
B. disinfection
C. pasteurization
D. autoclaving

Answer 17

C. pasteurization

Question 18

Organism that use light as their energy source.
A. lithotrophs
B. chemotrophs
C. phototrophs
D. oligotrophs

Answer 18

C. phototrophs

Question 19

Which sequence shoes the “central dogma” of molecular biolgy?
A. DNA→protein→amino acid
B. RNA→DNA→protein
C. RNA→protein→DNA
D. DNA→ RNA→protein

Answer 19

D. DNA→ RNA→protein

Question 20

Which organ is especially sensitive to a victim deficiency?
A. skin
B. liver
C. heart
D. lungs

Answer 20

B. liver

Question 21

The primary function of albumin in the blood plasma is
A. leukocye transport
B. osmotic regulation
C. formation of antibodies
D. maintenance of pH level

Answer 21

C. formation of antibodies

Question 22

A lab technician may present a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents ______ from entering the clotting process.
A. potassium citrate
B. vitamin K
C. soduim ion
D. calcuim ion

Answer 22

C. soduim ion

Question 23

The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried out by the
A. thrombocytes
B. leukocytes
C. evythrocytes
D. plasma

Answer 23

C. evythrocytes

Question 24

The body digest nitrogen in the form of
A. N2
B. HNO3
C. ammonia
D. amino acids

Answer 24

D. amino acids

Question 25

Amino acids that are transformed into one of the intermediates of the citric acid cycle are generally
A. glycogen
B. ketogenic
C. ketoglutaric
D. acetic

Answer 25

A. glycogen

Question 26

The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of
A. alkaloids
B. coenzymes
C. hormones
D. protein

Answer 26

D. protein

Question 27

In the Lineweaver-Burk double reciprocal plot the is equal to
A. 1/[S]
B.1/V
C. Km/Vmax
D. 1/Vmax

Answer 27

D. 1/Vmax

Question 28

For an enzyme that display Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity ( as a fraction of Vmax) observed at [S] = 2 KM will be
A. 0.09
B. 0.33
C. 0.66
D. 0.91

Answer 28

C. 0.66

Question 29

I Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.25 times Vmax ?
A. (1/9) Km
B. (1/3) Km
C. 1.0 Km
D. 9.0 Km

Answer 29

B. (1/3) Km

Question 30

The product obtained by the fermentation of wet cellulose is
A. ethane
B. ethyne
C. methane
D. ethane

Answer 30

C. methane

Question 31

A gene is a segment of a molecule of
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. protein

Answer 31

D. protein

Question 32

If a nucleic acid is completely hydrolyzed, which type of compound is not one of its products?
A. a base
B. a phosphoric acid
C. an amino acid
D. a sugar

Answer 32

C. an amino acid

Question 33

Which set of bases does not usually form a base pair usually found in nucleic acid?
A. adenine-thymine
B. cytosine-guanine
C. uracil-thymine
D. adenine-uraci

Answer 33

C. uracil-thymine

Question 34

Which contains the codon?
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. the protein molecule

Answer 34

C. tRNA

Question 35

Which molecule carries the anticodon?
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. the ribosome
D. the protein molecule

Answer 35

A. mRNA

Question 36

The gentic message is transcribed from DNA to
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. DNA
D. rRNA

Answer 36

A. mRNA

Question 37

Base pairing is accompanied by
A. covalent bonding
B. hydrogen bonds
C. ionic bond
D. phosphate linkage

Answer 37

D. phosphate linkage

Question 38

When active protein synthesis is taking place in the cell, which material is not required at the ribosomes?
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. growing protein chain

Answer 38

A. DNA

Question 39

The largest carbohydrates are called
A. polysaccharides
B. oligosaccharides
C. monosaccharides
D. disaccharides

Answer 39

A. polysaccharides

Question 40

A 3-carbon monosaccharide is
A. triose
B. tetrose
C. hexose
D. pentose

Answer 40

A. triose

Question 41

The most abundant organic substance found in nature is
A. starch
B. glycogen
C. cellulose
D. dextran

Answer 41

C. cellulose

Question 42

Sugar in which the aldehyde group can be oxidized to a carboxylic acid group are called
A. glycosides
B. glucosides
C. reducing sugars
D. phosphate esters

Answer 42

A. glycosides

Question 43

An example of water soluble is
A. vitamin C
B. vitamin A
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin K

Answer 43

A. vitamin C

Question 44

One mole of an alkane reacts with excess O2 to give 7 mole of H2O. The alkane could be
A. isopentane
B. isohexane
C. pentane
D. isoheptane

Answer 44

D. isoheptane

Question 45

Also generated from the same alkane from isoheptane moles of CO2.
A. 7.0
B. 6.0
C. 6.5
D. 7.5

Answer 45

A. 7.0

Question 46

DNA consist of alternating links of; (D=deoxyribose, R=ribose, and P=phosphate)
A. N bases and R
B. N basses and D
C. D and P
D. R and P

Answer 46

C. D and P

Question 47

The only base in the following that is not present is
A. pyridine
B. adenine
C. guanine
D. cytosine

Answer 47

A. pyridine

Question 48

Information transfer from to genes to the ribosomes is the function of
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA

Answer 48

B. tRNA

Question 49

The DNA base order AAA GCC corresponds to the RNA base order of
A. TTT CGG
B. UUU CGG
C. CCC GGG
D. none of these

Question 50

The dipeptide from the mRNA sequence UUU AGA is
A. Phe-Arg
B. Arg-Phe
C. Lys-Ala
D. Ala-Lys

Question 51

Amino acids are brought to ribosome surface by
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. DNA
D. tRNA

Answer 51

D. tRNA

Question 52

All of the following have carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen atoms except
A. nucleotides
B. sucrose
C. nucleosides
D. purines

Answer 52

B. sucrose

Question 53

Which of the following is a pyramidine?
A. cytosine
B. cysteine
C. adenine
D. thymine

Answer 53

D. thymine

Question 54

The amino acid Thr could correspond to which of the following DNA segments?
A. TGC
B. ATA
C. TAG
D. CGA

Answer 54

C. TAG

Question 55

Which of the following reactions will not be driven by ATP?
A. Peptide synthesis
B. biosynthesis of maltose from glucose
C. synthesis of AMP from Adenosine
D. ATP will drive all the reactions

Answer 55

B. biosynthesis of maltose from glucose

Question 56

What type of enzyme will catalyze the reaction: Galactose-6-P → Glucose-6-P
A. transferase
B. isomerase
C. kinase
D. hydrase

Answer 56

B. isomerase

Question 57

An enzyme in snake venom is capable of causing the conversion of lecithins to lysolecithins. To which class does the enzyme belong?
A. ligases
B. isomerases
C. hydroiase
D. synthetase

Answer 57

D. synthetase

Question 58

An enzyme is responsible for the conversion of an alcohol to a ketone. A possible coenzyme could be
A. NADH
B. CoA
C. pyredoxasepyrophosphate
D. NADP+

Answer 58

A. NADH

Question 59

With which vitamin do you associate the disease Pellagra?
A. niacin
B. vitamin B12
C. vitamin K
D. vitamin C

Answer 59

B. vitamin B12

Question 60

Which type compound is prothrombin?
A. enzyme
B. holoenzyme
C. zymogen
D. vitamin

Answer 60

C. zymogen

Question 61

When an enzyme is inactived by a change in pH, this is known as
A. uncompetitive inhibition
B. non-competitive
C. competitive inhibition
D. non-specific inhibition

Answer 61

B. non-competitive

Question 62

An inhibitor which has a chemical structure similar to that of an enzymes’ normal substrate is likely to act as a
A. competitive inhibitor
B. non-competitive imhibitor
C. non-specific inbihitor
D. uncompetitive inbihitor

Answer 62

C. non-specific inbihitor

Question 63

If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product of a reaction sequence in which the enzyme participates, the enzyme is
A. a zymogen
B. allsteric
C. competitively inhibited
D. a modular

Answer 63

C. competitively inhibited

Question 64

The starting material for the anabolic process gluconeogenesis is
A. acetic acid
B. glycogen
C. glucose
D. acetyl CoA

Answer 64

B. glycogen

Question 65

The coenzye FAD, which is a hydrogen carrier in the electron-transport chain is a derivative of which vitamin?
A. niacin
B. B2
C. B12
D. folic acid

Answer 65

A. niacin

Question 66

How many molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose due to the intervention of FAD as a hydrogen carrier during the TCA cycle?
A. 2
B. 11
C. 4
D. 22

Answer 66

C. 4

Question 67

What is the strongest oxidizing agent in the electron-transport chain?
A. FADH
B. NADH
C. cytochroms C
D. O2

Answer 67

B. NADH

Question 68

What compound is at the “branch point” in the metabolism of all foodstuffs?
A. acetyl
B. pyruvic acid
C. citric acid
D. glucose

Answer 68

A. acetyl

Question 69

Muscle cramps are frequently experienced by runners, due to buildup of lactic acid in the muscle fibers. This due to
A. gluconeogenesis
B. glycolysis
C. glycogenesis
D. aerobic respiration

Answer 69

D. aerobic respiration

Question 70

Which enzyme would except to find in greater concentration in the stomach of a baby than in an aldult’s stomach?
A. rennin
B. pepsin
C. chymotroypsin
D. tryspin

Answer 70

B. pepsin

Question 71

What is the major structural unit of plants
A. cellulose
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. glycogen

Answer 71

A. cellulose

Question 72

Myoglobin is an example of an
A. fibrous protein
B. globular protein
C. DNA
D. starch

Answer 72

B. globular protein

Question 73

Which of the following form(s) a double helix
A. DNA
B. cellulose
C. a protein
D. glycogen

Answer 73

A. DNA

Question 74

A nucleotide contains
A. a nitrogen-containing organic base
B. a phisphoric acid
C. a sugar
D. all of these

Answer 74

D. all of these

Question 75

Starch is
A. a form of cellulose
B. a polysaccharide
C. a monosaccharide
D. an amino acid

Answer 75

B. a polysaccharide

Question 76

Gluvose contain boyh
A. alcohol and aldehyde forms
B. a phosphoric acid
C. ester and aldehyde groups
D. ester and acid group

Answer 76

C. ester and aldehyde groups

Question 77

The overall shape of a protein molecule is called its
A. tertiary structure
B. alpha-helix
C. secondary structure
D. primary structure

Answer 77

B. alpha-helix

Question 78

A peptide bond is form via
A. a substitution
B. a combustion reaction
C. a condensation
D. none of the these

Answer 78

A. a substitution

Question 79

All amino acids contain
A. an amine group
B. an ether group
C. an aldehyde group
D. an ester group

Answer 79

A. an amine group

Question 80

The sequence of amino acids in a protein is the
A. primary structure
B. secondary structure
C. tertiary structure
D. quaternary structure

Answer 80

C. tertiary structure

Question 81

What is the distinguishing characteristic of a carbohydrate?
A. carbonly group
B. two-C-OH groups
C. Cx(H2O)y formula
D. six carbon atoms

Answer 81

C. Cx(H2O)y formula

Question 82

What is/are the difference(s) between RNA and DNA?
(I) DNA contains thymine and RNA contains uracil
(II) RNA contains five carbon sugar
(III) RNA contains nitrogen-containing organic bases
(IV) RNA is found in the cytoplasm, whereas DNA is found in the cell nucleus

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only

Answer 82

D. IV only

Question 83

What is the difference between alpha-glucose and beta-glucose?
A. there is no difference
B. the number of oxygen protein
C. the number carbon atoms
D. the location of the hydroxyl group

Answer 83

D. the location of the hydroxyl group

Question 84

The secondaty structure of a protein describes
A. the sequence of amino acid
B. the coiling or stretching of the protein
C. the overall shape of the protein
D. none of these

Answer 84

A. the sequence of amino acid

Question 85

The site of protein synthesis is the
A. chloroplast
B. nucleus
C. ribosome
D. mitochondrion

Answer 85

C. ribosome

Question 86

Inability ti digest amino acids may indicate a deficiency in
A. vitamin B1
B. vitamin B6
C. vitamin B12
D. folic acid

Answer 86

D. folic acid

Question 87

Which monosaccharide is a part of the structure of DNA’s?
A. 3-deoxyribose
B. 4-deoxxyribose
C. ribose
D. 2-deoxyribose

Answer 87

C. ribose

Question 88

Organism which require only CO2 to supply their carbon needs.
A. autotrophs
B. heterotrophs
C. chemotrophs
D. lithotrophs

Answer 88

B. heterotrophs

Question 89

Organisms which requires organic compounds to supply their carbon needs.
A. autotrophs
B. heterotrophs
C. chemotrophs
D. lithotrophs

Answer 89

C. chemotrophs

Question 90

Organisms which oxidize inorganic material for energy production.
A. autotrophs
B. heterotrophs
C. chemotrophs
D. lithotrophs

Answer 90

A. autotrophs

Question 91

The destruction of an enzyme’s catalytic power by changing its molecular structure is
A. deactivation
B. inhibition
C. denaturation
D. suppression

Answer 91

A. deactivation

Question 92

The rate of microbial growth is temperatutre dependent. Bacteria which grow over the temperature range of 7 to 45°C are called
A. thermophiles
B. mesophiles
C. psychrophiles
D. endophile

Answer 92

A. thermophiles

Question 93

Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 30 to 45°C are called
A. thermophiles
B. mesophiles
C. psychrophiles
D. endophiles

Answer 93

B. mesophiles

Question 94

Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 55 to 85°C are called
A. thermophiles
B. mesophiles
C. psychrophiles
D. endophiles

Answer 94

A. thermophiles

Question 95

Biological compound which soluble in nonpolar solvent but insoluble in water.
A. carbohydrates
B. lipids
C. proteins
D. vitamins

Answer 95

B. lipids

Question 96

The fluid portion occupying the whole portion of the cell is called
A. ribosomes
B. cytoplasm
C. vacuole
D. lysosome

Answer 96

B. cytoplasm

Question 97

Microorganisms made of small and simple cells are known as
A. prokaryotes
B. eukaryotes
C. algae
D. protozoa

Answer 97

A. prokaryotes

Question 98

Which of the following enzymes give flavor to cheese?
A. lactose
B. invertase
C. lipase
D. amylase

Answer 98

A. lactose

Question 99

The unpleasant taste and odor which develops in fats caused by the presence of free acids and oxidization of the double bonds which first forms peroxides.
A. rancidity
B. acidity
C. foulness
D. bitterness

Answer 99

A. rancidity

Question 100

We reduce our chance of getting cancer by eating a lot of
A. cabbage
B. eggs
C. peas
D. potato chips

Answer 100

C. peas

Question 101

This is the early stage of growth where the organism adjust its new environment.
A. stationary phase
B. logarithmic phase
C. leg phase
D. decline phas

Answer 101

A. stationary phase

Question 102

Microorganisms which can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen are called
A. aerobes
B. anaerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. microaerophiles

Answer 102

C. facultative anaerobes

Question 103

Which system shows the “central dogma” of molecular biology?
A. DNA→protein→amino acids
B. RNA→DNA→protein
C. RNA→protein→DNA
D. DNA→RNA→protein

Answer 103

B. RNA→DNA→protein

Question 104

Which organ is especially sensitive to vitamin deficiency?
A. skin
B. liver
C. heart
D. lungs

Answer 104

B. liver

Question 105

The primary function of albumin in the blood plasma is
A. leukocyte transport
B. osmotic regulation
C. formation of antibodies
D. maintenance of pH leve

Answer 105

C. formation of antibodies

Question 106

Allergies, such as hay fever, result from
A. an abnormal immunity to a common substance
B. the absence of specific antibodies
C. the delayed reaction of a specific antibody
D. the absence of gamma globulins in the blood plasma

Answer 106

A. an abnormal immunity to a common substance

Question 107

A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents ____ from entering the clotting process.
A. potassium citrate
B. vitamin K
C. sodium ion
D. calcium ion

Answer 107

C. sodium ion

Question 108

The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried out by
A. thrombocytes
B. leukocytes
C. erythrocytes
D. plasma

Answer 108

C. erythrocytes

Question 109

The body digest nitrogen in the form of
A. N2
B. HNO3
C. ammonia
D. amino acids

Answer 109

D. amino acids

Question 110

Amino acids that are transformed into one of the intermediates of the citric acid cycle are generally
A. glycogenic
B. ketogenic
C. ketoglutaruc
D. acetic

Answer 110

A. glycogenic

Question 111

How many ATP molecules are needed for the urea cycle?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Answer 111

B. 4

Question 112

The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of
A. alkaloids
B. coenzymes
C. hormones
D. protein

Answer 112

B. coenzymes

Question 113

A high energy molecule and serves as the cell’s major form of energy currency.
A. NADH
B. ADP
C. ATP
D. DNA

Answer 113

C. ATP

Question 114

A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or asexually through spore formation.
A. yeast
B. molds
C. bacteria
D. algae

Answer 114

B. molds

Question 115

The filtrate of malted grains used as the substrate for the production of beer and ale by fermentation.
A. bagasse
B. pulp
C. wart
D. wort

Answer 115

D. wort

Question 116

An organism that grows in the presence of atmospheric oxygen.
A. anaerobes
B. facultative
C. microaerophile
D. aerobes

Answer 116

D. aerobes

Question 117

An organic compound required by organisms in minute quantities of growth and reproduction because it cannot be synthesize by organism; it often serves as enzyme cofactors or part of cofactors.
A. biological catalyst
B. hormones
C. vitamin
D. lipids

Answer 117

C. vitamin

Question 118

A virus that uses bacteria as its host
A. bacteriophage
B. exoenzymes
C. eubacteria
D. genome

Answer 118

A. bacteriophage

Question 119

The movement of a piece of DNA around the chromosome
A. transcription
B. transposition
C. translation
D. transformation

Answer 119

B. transposition

Question 120

An infectious agent having a simple acellular organization with a protein coat and a single type of nucleic acid, lacking independent metabolism, and reproducing only within living host cell.
A. bacteria
B. protozoa
C. fungi
D. virus

Answer 120

D. virus

Question 121

An agent that kill bacteria
A. fungicide
B. insecticide
C. bactericide
D. germicide

Answer 121

C. bactericide

Question 122

A metabolic process in which molecules, often organic, are oxidized with oxygen as the final electron acceptor.
A. anaerobic digestion
B. aerobic digestion
C. anaerobic respiration
D. aerobic respiration

Answer 122

D. aerobic respiration

Question 123

The cycle that oxidizes acetyl coenzyme A to CO2 and generates NADH and FADH2 for oxidation in the electron transport chain; the cycle also supplies carbon skeletons for biosynthesis.
A. tricarboxylic acid
B. glyoxalate acid
C. polumerase chain reaction
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

Answer 123

A. tricarboxylic acid

Question 124

A complex sulfate polysaccharide, usually extracted from red algae,that is used as a solidifying agent in the preparation of culture media.
A. agar
B. carragnen
C. nata
D. alga

Answer 124

A. agar

Question 125

A preparation of either killed microorganism: living, weekend (attenuated) microorganism: ot inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids). It is administered to include development of the immune response and protect the individual against a pathogen or a toxin.
A. vaccine
B. disinfectant
C. antibiotic
D. analgesic

Answer 125

A. vaccine

Question 126

A continuous culture system equipped with a photocell that adjust the flow of medium through the culture vessel so as to maintain a constant cell density or turbidity.
A. chemotat
B. turbidostat
C. biostat
D. fermentor

Answer 126

B. turbidostat

Question 127

A bacterial infection transmitted by contaminated food, water, milk, or shellfish. The causative organism Salmonella typhi, which is present in human faces.
A. yellow fever
B. hay fever
C. typhoid fever
D. dengue fever

Answer 127

C. typhoid fever

Question 128

An enzyme whose activity is altered by the of a small effector or modulator molecule at a regulatory site; effector binding causes a conformational change in the enzyme and its catalytic site, which leads to enzyme deactivation or inhibition.
A. oxidase
B. reductase
C. hydrolase
D. allosteric

Answer 128

D. allosteric

Question 129

The phase of the microbial growth in a batch culture when population growth ceases and the growth curve levels off.
A. lag phase
B. growth phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase

Answer 129

D. death phase

Question 130

Protein synthesis; the process by which the genetic message carried by mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides with the aid of ribosomes and other cell constituents.
A. transcription
B. transition
C. transposition
D. transformation

Answer 130

B. transition

Question 131

The process in which single-stranded RNA with a base sequence complementary to the template strand of DNA or RNA is synthesized.
A. transcription
B. translation
C. transposition
D. transformation

Answer 131

A. transcription

Question 132

The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules with the input energy.
A. catabolism
B. anabolism
C. respiration
D. digestion

Answer 132

C. respiration

Question 133

The microbiological treatment of sewage wastes under anaerobic contains to produce methane.
A. aerobic digestion
B. anaerobic digestion
C. aerobic respiration
D. anaerobic respiration

Answer 133

A. aerobic digestion

Question 134

An oxygen-yielding process in which the electron transport chain acceptor is an inorganic molecule other than oxygen.
A. aerobic digestion
B. anaerobic digestion
C. aerobic respiration
D. anaerobic respiratio

Answer 134

B. anaerobic digestion

Question 135

A microbial product or its derivative that kills susceptible microorganism or inhibits their growth.
A. antipyretic
B. antibiotic
C. pyretic
D. antiseptic

Answer 135

B. antibiotic

Question 136

A glycoprotein produced in response to the introduction of an antigen; it has the ability to combine with the antigen that stimulated its production. Also known as immunoglobulin.
A. antibiotic
B. antibody
C. hormone
D. steroid

Answer 136

B. antibody

Question 137

An agent that kills microorganisms or inhibit their growth.
A. antimicrobial agent
B. antiseptic
C. antigen
D. antibiotic

Answer 137

A. antimicrobial agent

Question 138

Chemical agent applied to tissues to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogens.
A. antitoxin
B. antiseptic
C. antimicrobial agent
D. antibiotic

Answer 138

B. antiseptic

Question 139

The process by which all living cells, viable spores, viruses and viriods are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat.
A. sterilization
B. pasteurization
C. disinfection
D. immobilization

Answer 139

C. disinfection

Question 140

The substance an enzyme acts upon.
A. subtrate
B. strain
C. disinfection
D.immobilization

Answer 140

A. subtrate

Question 141

The science of biological classification; it consist of three parts: classification, nomenclature, and identification.
A. flora
B. fauna
C. taxonomy
D. anatomy

Answer 141

C. taxonomy

Question 142

The removal from sewage of inorganic nutrients, heavy metals, viruses, etc., by chwmical and biological means after microorganisms have degraded dissolved organic matrial.
A. preminary treatment
B. primary treatment
C. secondary treatment
D. tertiary treatment

Answer 142

C. secondary treatment

Question 143

A microbial product or component that can injure another cell or organism at low concentrations. Often the term refers to poisonous protein, but may be lipids or other substances.
A. antigen
B. toxin
C. virus
D. oxidants

Answer 143

B. toxin

Question 144

The protein part of an enzyme that also has a nonprotein component.
A. holoenzyme
B. apoenzyme
C. exoenzymes
D. endoenzymes

Answer 144

B. apoenzyme

Question 145

An apparatus for sterilizing objects by the use of steam under pressure.
A. boiler
B. heater
C. autoclave
D. sterilizer

Answer 145

C. autoclave

Question 146

An organism that uses CO2 as its sole or principle source of carbon.
A. autotrophy
B. phototroph
C. heterotroph
D. litotroph

Answer 146

C. heterotroph

Question 147

A mulated prototroph that lacks the ability to synthesized an essential nutrient and therefore must obtain it or a precusor from its surrounding.
A. chemotroph
B. auxotroph
C. methylotroph
D. prototroph

Answer 147

B. auxotroph

Question 148

The organelle where protein synthesis occurs; the message encoded in mRNA is translated here.
A. cytoplasm
B. golgi complex
C. ribosomes
D. lysozymes

Answer 148

C. ribosomes

Question 149

The clear, fluid portion of blood lacking both blood cells and fibrinogen. It is the fluid remaining after coagulation of plasma, the noncellular liquid fraction of blood.
A. WBC
B. RBC
C. hemoglobin
D. serum

Answer 149

D. serum

Question 150

A basin used during water purification to chemically precipition out fine particles, microoganisms, and organic material by coagulation or flocculation.
A. catch basin
B. setting basin
C. lagoon
D. neutralization tank

Answer 150

B. setting basin

Question 151

A genaral term for the precipitated solid matter produced during water and sewage treatment; solid particles composed of organic matter and microorganism that are involved in aerobic sewage treatment.
A. residue
B. ash
C. sludge
D. solid waste

Answer 151

C. sludge

Question 152

A reproductive cell, usually unicellular, capable of developing into an adult without fusion with another cell or of acting as a gamete. It may produced asexually or sexually and are of many types.
A. spore
B. zygote
C. bud
D. titer

Answer 152

C. bud

Question 153

Microbial growth in which all cellular constituents are synthesized at constant rates relative to active to each othet.
A. unbalanced growth
B. balance growth
C. diauxic growth
D. germination

Answer 153

B. balance growth

Question 154

A culture of microoganisms produced by inoculating a closed culture vessel containing a single batch of meduim.
A. batch culture
B. continuous culture
C. feed batch culture
D. semi-continuous culture

Answer 154

A. batch culture

Question 155

Asexual reproduction in which a cell or an organism separates into two cells.
A. binary fission
B. budding
C. sporulation
D. copulation

Answer 155

A. binary fission

Question 156

A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of sexual reproduction; the daughter cell is smaller than the parent
A. binary fission
B. budding
C. sporulation
D. copulation

Answer 156

B. budding

Question 157

Sludges produced in sewage treatment that do not settle properly, usually due to the development of filamentous microorganisms.
A. effluents
B. sewage
C. bulking sludge
D. foam

Answer 157

D. foam

Question 158

The part of metabolism in which larger, more complex molecules are broken down into smaller, simpler molecules with the release of energy.
A. anabolism
B. catabolism
C. biodegradation
D. disintegration

Answer 158

B. catabolism

Question 159

The strong layer or structure that lies outside the plasma membrane; it supports and protects the membrane and gives the cell shape.
A. plasmid
B. cytoplasm
C. cell wall
D. nucleus

Answer 159

C. cell wall

Question 160

A continuous culture apparatus that feeds medium into the culture vessel at the same rate as medium containing microorganisms is removed; the medium contains one essential nutrient in limiting quantities.
A. turbidostat
B. biostat
C. reactor
D. chemostat

Answer 160

D. chemostat

Question 161

Organisms that obtain energy from the oxidization of chemical compounds.
A. litotrophs
B. chemotrophs
C. autotrophes
D. phototrophes

Answer 161

B. chemotrophs

Question 162

The process in which water osmotically leaves a cell, which causes the cytoplasm to shrivel up and pull the plasma membrane away from the cell wall.
A. phagocytosis
B. cytosis
C. Iyasis
D. plasmolysis

Answer 162

A. phagocytosis

Question 163

Cells lack a true, membrane enclosed nucleus; bacteria are prokaryotic and have their genetic material located in a nucleoid.
A. prokaryotes
B. eucaryotes
C. eubacteria
D. archeabacteria

Answer 163

A. prokaryotes

Question 164

An enzyme that hydrolizes protein to their constituent amino acids.
A. foliose
B. diastease
C. protease
D. lipase

Answer 164

C. protease

Question 165

A unicellular or acellular eukaryotic protists whose organilles have the functional role of organs and tissues in more complex form.
A. fungi
B. virus
C. protozoa
D. lipase

Answer 165

C. protozoa

Question 166

A microorganism that grow at 0°C and has an optimum growth temperature of 15°C or lower and a temperature maximum around 20°C.
A. mesophile
B. thermophiles
C. thermoacidophiles
D. psychrophiles

Answer 166

D. psychrophiles

Question 167

The microbial decomposition of organic matter, especially the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, with the production of foul-smelling compounds such as hydrogen sulfide and amines.
A. eutrophication
B. putrefaction
C. bioconversion
D. biodegradation

Answer 167

C. bioconversion

Question 168

The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving as a template.
A. transcription
B. translation
C. replication
D. transformation

Answer 168

C. replication

Question 169

An energy-yielding process in which an electron donor is oxidized using an inorganic electron acceptor. The acceptor may be either oxygen or another inorganic compound.
A. aerobic respiration
B. anaerobic respiration
C. respiration
D. digestion

Answer 169

C. respiration

Question 170

A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during protein synthesis or signals the start or stop of translation.
A. codon
B. nucleotides
C. DNA
D. polymerase

Answer 170

A. codon

Question 171

It refers to a multinucleate cell or hypha formed by repeated nuclear divisions not accompanied by cell divisions.
A. allosteric
B. coenocytic
C. tissues
D. organelles

Answer 171

B. coenocytic

Question 172

A loosely bound cofactor that often dissociates from the enzyme active site after product has been formed.
A. coenzymes
B. apoenzyme
C. holoenzyme
D. exoenzymes

Answer 172

B. apoenzyme

Question 173

A cluster or assemblage of microorganisms growing on a solid surface such as the surface of an agar culture medium; the assemblage is often directly visible, but may be seen only microscopically.
A. seed
B. strain
C. culture
D. colony

Answer 173

B. strain

Question 174

A large group of photosynthetic bacteria with oxygenic photosynthesis and a photosynthesis system like that present in eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms.
A. eubacteria
B. cyanobacteria
C. archeabacteria
D. bacteria

Answer 174

B. cyanobacteria

Question 175

The phase microbial growth in a batch culture when the viable microbial population declines.
A. lag phase
B. exponential phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase

Answer 175

D. death phase

Question 176

The change in the shape of an enzyme that destroys the activity; the term is also applied to changes in nucleic-acid-shape.
A. denaturation
B. metabolism
C. inhibition
D. catalytic repression

Answer 176

A. denaturation

Question 177

The reduction of nitrate to nitrogen gas during anaerobic respiration.
A. nitrification
B. denitrification
C. nitration
D. denitration

Answer 177

A. nitrification

Question 178

The nucleic acid that constitutes the genetic material of all cellular organisms.
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA

Answer 178

D. DNA

Question 179

A structure within or on a cell that performs specific functions and is related to the cell in a way similar to that of an organ to the body.
A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm
D. organelles

Answer 179

D. organelles

Question 180

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution.
A. diffusion
B. filtration
C. reverse osmosis
D. osmosis

Answer 180

C. reverse osmosis

Question 181

The process of heating milk and other liquids to destroy microorganisms that can cause spoilage or disease.
A. sterilization
B. disinfection
C. pasteurization
D. autoclaving

Answer 181

A. sterilization

Question 182

Organisms that use light as their energy source.
A. litotrophes
B. chemotrophes
C. phototrophes
D. oligotrophs

Answer 182

C. phototrophes

Question 183

Glucose is metabolized by
A. plants only
B. plants and animals
C. animals only
D. monerans only

Answer 183

B. plants and animals

Question 184

In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.12 times Vmax?
A. (1/9)Km
B. (1/3)Km
C. 1.0Km
D. 9.0Km

Question 185

In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.5 times Vmax ?
A. (1/9)Km
B. (1/3)Km
C. 1.0Km
D. 9.0Km

Answer 185

C. 1.0Km

Question 186

In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.12 times Vmax?
A.(1/9)Km
B. (1/3)Km
C. 1.0Km
D. 9.0Km

Answer 186

D. 9.0Km

Question 187

Given the following information, coupled: A → B Keq = 103
Uncoupled: ATP + A → B + ADO + Pi Keq = 200
By what approximate factor will the equilibrium ratio of B/A be increased in the coupled reaction when the phosphorylation potential in the cell ([ATP]/[ADP][Pi]) is 5000?
A. 1E9
B. 1E8
C. 1E6
D. 2E5

Answer 187

A. 1E9

Question 188

Ethanol is produced in a 100,000 L continuous stirred tank fermenter at a rate of 10,000 L/hr. The dilution rate will be
A. 0.1hr
B. 0.1/hr
C. 10hr
D. 10/h

Answer 188

B. 0.1/hr

Question 189

A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it has:
A. Nucleus
B. cellulose cell wall
C. definite shape
D. vacuoles

Answer 189

B. cellulose cell wall

Question 190

From the data in problem 8, what is Km (in μmol/min ) of the enzyme for the substrate?
A. 4.0
B. 60
C. 100
D. 140

Answer 190

B. 60

Question 191

A high energy molecule and serves as the cell’s major form of energy currency
A. NADH
B. ADP
C. ATP
D. DNA

Answer 191

C. ATP

Question 192

A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or sexually through spore formation.
A. Yeast
B. molds
C. bacteria
D. algae

Answer 192

A. Yeast

Question 193

The filtrate of malted grains used as the substrate for the production of beer and ale by fermentation.
A. Bagasse
B. pulp
C. wart
D. wort

Answer 193

D. wort

Question 194

An organism that grows in the presence of atmospheric oxygen
A. Anaerobes
B. facultative
C. microaerophites
D. aerobes

Answer 194

D. aerobes

Question 195

An organic compound required by organisms in minute quantities for growth and reproduction because it cannot be synthesized by the organism, it often serve as enzyme cofactors or part of cofactors
A. Biological catalyst
B. hormones
C. vitamin
D. lipids

Answer 195

C. vitamin

Question 196

A virus that uses bacteria as its host
A. Bacteriophage
B. exoenzymes
C. eubacteria
D. genome

Answer 196

A. Bacteriophage

Question 197

The movement of a piece of DNA around the chromosome
A. Transcription
B. transportation
C. translation
D. transformation

Answer 197

B. transportation

Question 198

An infectious agent having a simple acellular organization with a protein coat and a single type of nucleic acid, lacking independent metabolism, and reproducing only within living host cells.
A. Bacteria
B. protozoa
C. fungi
D. virus

Answer 198

C. fungi

Question 199

An agent that kills bacteria
A. Fungicide
B. insecticide
C. bactericide
D. germicide

Answer 199

C. bactericide

Question 200

A metabolic process in which molecules, often organic, are oxidized with oxygen as the final electron acceptor
A. Anaerobic digestion
B. Anaerobic respiration
C. Aerobic digestion
D. Aerobic respiration

Answer 200

D. Aerobic respiration

Question 201

The cycle that oxidizes acetyl coenzyme A to CO2 and generates NADH and FADH2 for oxidation in the electron transport chain; the cycle that also supplies carbon skeletons for biosynthesis.
A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
B. Glyoxylate cycle
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Embden-Meyyerhof pathway

Question 202

A complex sulfated polysaccharide, usually extracted from red algae, that is used as solidifying agent in the preparation of culture media.
A. Agar
B. carrageenan
C. nata
D. alga

Answer 202

A. Agar

Question 203

A preparation of either killed microorganisms, living, weakened (attenuated) microorganisms; of inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids). It is administered to induce development of the immune response and protect the individual against a pathogen or a toxin.
A. Vaccine
B. disinfectant
C. antibiotic
D. analgesic

Answer 203

A. Vaccine

Question 204

A continuous culture system equipped with photocell that adjust the flow of medium through the culture vessel so as to maintain a constant density or turbidity.
A. Chemostat
B. turbidostat
C. biostat
D. fermentor

Answer 204

B. turbidostat

Question 205

A bacterial infection transmitted by contaminated food, water, milk, or shellfish. The caussive organism is Salmonella typhi, which is present in human feces.
A. Yellow fever
B. hay fever
C. typhoid fever
D. dengue fever

Answer 205

C. typhoid fever

Question 206

An enzyme whose activity is altered by the binding of a small effector or modulator molecule at a regulatory site separate from the catalytic site: effector binding causes a conformational change in the enzyme and its catalytic state, which lead to enzyme deactivation or inhibition.
A. Oxidase
B. reductase
C. hydrolase
D. allosteric

Answer 206

D. allosteric

Question 207

The phase of microbial growth in batch culture when population growth ceases and the growth curve levels off.
A. Lag phase
B. growth phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase

Answer 207

C. stationary phase

Question 208

Protein synthesis; the process by which the genetic message carried by mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides with the aid of ribosome and other cell constituents.
A. Transcription
B. translation
C. transportation
D. transformation

Answer 208

B. translation

Question 209

A process in which single-stranded RNA with a base sequence complementary to the template strand of DNA or RNA is synthesizes.
A. Transcription
B. translation
C. transposition
D. transformation

Answer 209

A. Transcription

Question 211

The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecule with the input energy.
A. Catabolism
B. anabolism
C. respiration
D. digestion

Answer 211

B. anabolism

Question 212

The microbiological treatment of sewage wastes under anaerobic conditions to produce methane.
A. Aerobic digestion
B. Aerobic respiration
C. anaerobic digestion
D. anaerobic respiration

Answer 212

C. anaerobic digestion

Question 213

An energy-yielding process in which the electron transport chain acceptor is an inorganic molecule other than oxygen.
A. Aerobic digestion
B. Aerobic respiration
C. anaerobic digestion
D. anaerobic respiration

Answer 213

D. anaerobic respiration

Question 214

A microbial product or its derivative that kills susceptible microorganisms or inhibits their growth.
A. Antipyretic
B. antibiotic
C. pyretic
D. antiseptic

Answer 214

B. antibiotic

Question 215

A glycoprotein produced in response to the introduction of an antigen; it has the ability to combine with the antigen that stimulated its production. Also known as immunoglobulin.
A. Antibiotic
B. antibody
C. hormone
D. steroid

Answer 215

B. antibody

Question 216

An agent that kills microorganisms to inhibit their growth.
A. Antimicrobial agent
B. antiseptic
C. antigen
D. antibiotic

Answer 216

A. Antimicrobial agent

Question 217

Chemical agents applied to tissue to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogens.
A. Antitoxin
B. antiseptic
C. antimicrobial agent
D. antibiotic

Answer 217

B. antiseptic

Question 218

The process which all living cells, viable spores, viruses and viroids are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat.
A. Sterilization
B. pasteurization
C. disinfection
D. immobilization

Answer 218

A. Sterilization

Question 219

The substance an enzyme acts upon.
A. Substrate
B. strain
C. reactants
D. proteins

Answer 219

A. Substrate

Question 220

The science of biological classification; it consist of three parts: classification, nomenclature, and identification.
A. Flora
B. fauna
C. taxonomy
D. anatomy

Answer 220

C. taxonomy

Question 221

The removal from sewage of inorganic nutrients, heavy metals, viruses, etc, by chemical and biological means after microorganisms have degraded dissolved organic material.
A. Preliminary treatment
B. Secondary treatment
C. primary treatment
D. tertiary treatment

Answer 221

D. tertiary treatment

Question 222

A microbial product or component that can injure another cell or organism at low concentrations. Often the team refers to poisonous protein, but may be lipids or other substances.
A. Antigen
B. toxin
C. virus
D. oxidants

Answer 222

B. toxin

Question 223

The protein part of an enzyme that also has a nonprotein component.
A. Holoenzyme
B. apoenzyme
C. exoenzyme
D. endoenzyme

Answer 223

B. apoenzyme

Question 224

An apparatus for sterilizing objects by the use of steam under pressure.
A. Boiler
B. healer
C. autoclave
D. sterilizer

Answer 224

C. autoclave

Question 225

An organism that uses CO2 as its sole principal source of carbon.
A. Autotrophy
B. phototroph
C. heterotroph
D. lithitroph

Answer 225

A. Autotrophy

Question 226

A mutated prototroph that lacks the ability to synthesize the essential nutrient and therefore must obtain it or a precursor from its surrounding.
A. Chemototroph
B. auxotroph
C. methylotroph
D. prototroph

Answer 226

B. auxotroph

Question 227

The organelle where protein synthesis occurs; the message encoded in mRNA is translated here.
A. Cytoplasm
B. golgi complex
C. ribosomes
D. lysozomes

Answer 227

C. ribosomes

Question 228

The clear, fluid portion of blood lacking both blood cells and fibrinogen. It is the fluid remaining after coagulation of plasma, the noncellular liquid fraction of blood.
A. WBC
B. RBC
C. hemoglobin
D. serum

Answer 228

D. serum

Question 229

A basin used during water purification to chemically precipitate out fine particles, microorganisms, and organic materials by coagulation or flocculation.
A. Catch basin
B. Lagoon
C. settling basin
D. neutralization tank

Answer 229

C. settling basin

Question 230

A general term for the precipitated solid matter produced during water and sewage treatment; solid particles composed of organic matter and microorganisms that are involved in aerobic sewage treatment.
A. Residue
B. ash
C. sludge
D. solid waste

Answer 230

C. sludge

Question 231

A reproductive cell, usually unicellular, capable of developing into an adult without fusion with another cell or of acting as a gamete. It may be produced asexually or sexually and are of many types.
A. Spore
B. zygote
C. bud
D. titer

Answer 231

A. Spore

Question 232

Microbial growth in which all cellular constituents are synthesized at constant rates relative to each other.
A. Unbalanced growth
B. balanced growth
C. diauxic growth
D. germination

Answer 232

B. balanced growth

Question 233

A culture of microorganisms produced by inoculating a closed culture vessel containing a single batch of medium.
A. Batch culture
B. Feed batch culture
C. continuous culture
D. semi-continuous culture

Answer 233

A. Batch culture

Question 234

Asexual reproduction in which a cell or an organism separates into two cells.
A. Binary fission
B. budding
C. sporulation
D. copulation

Answer 234

A. Binary fission

Question 235

The amount of oxygen used by organisms in water under certain standard conditions; it provides an index of the amount of microbially oxidizable organic matter present.
A. COD
B. BOD
C. TOC
D. TDS

Answer 235

B. BOD

Question 236

A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of asexual reproduction; the daughter cell is smaller than the parent.
A. Binary fission
B. budding
C. sporulation
D. copulation

Answer 236

B. budding

Question 237

Sludges produced in sewage treatment that do not settle properly, usually due to the development of filamentous microorganism.
A. Effluents
B. sewage
C. bulking sludge
D. foam

Answer 237

C. bulking sludge

Question 238

The part of metabolism in which larger, more complex molecules are broken down into smaller, simpler molecules with release of energy.
A. Anabolism
B. catabolism
C. biodegradation
D. disintegration

Answer 238

B. catabolism

Question 239

The strong layer or structure that lies outside the plasma membrane; it supports and protects the membrane and gives the cell shape.
A. Plasmid
B. cytoplasm
C. cell wall
D. nucleus

Answer 239

C. cell wall

Question 240

The amount of chemical oxidation required to convert organic matter in water and wastewater to CO2.
A. BOD
B. DO
C. COD
D. TOC

Answer 240

C. COD

Question 241

A continuous culture apparatus that feeds medium into the culture vessel at the same rate as medium containing microorganisms is removed; the medium contains one essential nutrient in limiting quantities.
A. Turbidostat
B. biostat
C. reactor
D. chemostat

Answer 241

D. chemostat

Question 242

Organisms that obtain energy from the oxidation of chemical compounds.
A. Lithotrophs
B. chemotrophs
C. autotrophs
D. phototrophs

Answer 242

B. chemotrophs

Question 243

The process in which water osmotically leaves a cell, which causes the cytoplasm to shrivel up and pull the plasma membrane away from the cell wall.
A. Phagocytosis
B. cytosis
C. lyasis
D. plasmolysis

Answer 243

C. lyasis

Question 244

The first step of sewage treatment, in which physical settling and screening are used to remove particulate materials.
A. Primary treatment
B. Tertiary treatment
C. Secondary treatment
D. Advanced treatment

Answer 244

A. Primary treatment

Question 245

A cell that lack a true, membrane-enclosed nucleus; bacteria are prokaryotic and have their genetic material located in the nucleoid.
A. Prokaryotes
B. eucaryotes
C. eubacteria
D. archeabacteria

Answer 245

A. Prokaryotes

Question 246

An enzyme that hydrolyzes proteins to their constituent amino acids.
A. Foliose
B. diastase
C. protease
D. lipase

Answer 246

C. protease

Question 247

A unicellular or acellular eukaryotic protists whose organelles have the functional role of organs and tissues in more complex forms.
A. Fungi
B. Virus
C. Protozoa
D. Bacteria

Answer 247

C. Protozoa

Question 248

The decomposition of an organic molecule through the action of acetic acid or acetic anhydride.
A. Acetolysis
B. acidolysis
C. protolysis
D. hetolysis

Answer 248

A. Acetolysis

Question 249

A type of reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons with hydrogen, halogens, halogen acids, and other reagents, so that no change in valency is observed and the organic compound forms a more complex one.
A. Addition
B. substitution
C. decomposition
D. displacement

Answer 249

A. Addition

Question 250

A speculative chemical system having as its central aims the transmutation of base metals to gold and the discovery of the philosopher’s stone.
A. Metallurgy
B. alchemy
C. stoichiometry
D. radioactivity

Answer 250

B. alchemy

Question 251

An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagine to asparginic acid and ammonia.
A. Asparaginase
B. aspartase
C. amylase
D. protease

Answer 251

A. Asparaginase

Question 252

A bacterial enzyme that catalyzes the determination of aspartic acid to fumaric acid and ammonia.
A. Asparaginase
B. aspartase
C. amylase
D. protease

Answer 252

B. aspartase

Question 253

An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of amino compounds, removing the amino group.
A. Aspartase
B. amylase
C. aminase
D. deaminase

Answer 253

D. deaminase

Question 254

An enzyme which removes hydrogen atoms from a substrate and transfers it to an acceptor other than oxygen.
A. Hydrogenase
B. asparaginase
C. dehydrogenase
D. deaminase

Answer 254

C. dehydrogenase

Question 255

An enzyme which is located on the external surface of a cell.
A. Apoenzyme
B. holoenzyme
C. coenzyme
D. ectoenzyme

Answer 255

D. ectoenzyme

Question 256

Chemical reactions usually take place on an organic compound at the site of (a)
A. Double bond
B. lone pair of electrons
C. functional group
D. any of the above

Answer 256

D. any of the above

Question 257

A protein is a polymer formed from the linking of many
A. Glucose units
B. Amino acid molecules
C. DNA molecules
D. monosaccharides

Answer 257

B. Amino acid molecules

Question 258

Which of the following is not converted to blood sugar by the human body?
A. Lactose
B. dextrose
C. cellulose
D. glycogen

Answer 258

C. cellulose

Question 259

Fats from animals and oils from plants have the general structure of a/an
A. Aldehyde
B. ester
C. amine
D. ketone

Answer 259

B. ester

Question 260

Liquid oils from plants can be converted to solid by adding what to the molecule?
A. Metal ions
B. carbon
C. polyatomic ions
D. hydrogen

Answer 260

D. hydrogen

Question 261

The average microscope having a high power objective marked 43x, and an ocular marked 10x gives a magnification of
A. 43x
B. 53x
C. 100x
D. 430x

Answer 261

D. 430x

Question 262

The nucleus contains all of the following except
A. Mitochondria
B. chromatin
C. genes
D. nucleolus

Answer 262

A. Mitochondria

Question 263

The most abundant substance in protoplasm is
A. Protein
B. fat
C. carbohydrates
D. water

Answer 263

D. water

Question 264

A cell obtains energy during the process of
A. Ingestion
B. respiration
C. excretion
D. secretion

Answer 264

B. respiration

Question 265

Animal cells do not posses
A. Cell membrane
B. cell wall
C. cytoplasm
D. nucleus

Answer 265

B. cell wall

Question 266

ATP is a chemical that is essential for
A. Digestion
B. absorption
C. oxidation
D. assimilation

Answer 266

C. oxidation

Question 267

The life activity concerned with the taking of food in known as
A. Ingestion
B. digestion
C. secretion
D. excretion

Answer 267

A. Ingestion

Question 268

The life activity concerned with the stability of the organism’s chemical make-up under its constantly changing environment is
A. Respiration
B. reproduction
C. regulation
D. photosynthesis

Answer 268

C. regulation

Question 269

DNA is found in the cell’s
A. Vacuole
B. nucleolus
C. nucleus
D. ribosomes

Answer 269

C. nucleus

Question 270

Stomates are largely found in a
A. Leaf
B. stem
C. root
D. root hair

Answer 270

A. Leaf

Question 271

A by-product of photosynthesis is
A. Carbon dioxide
B. water
C. carbon monoxide
D. oxygen

Answer 271

D. oxygen

Question 272

The substance produced as the direct result of photosynthesis is
A. Glucose
B. protein
C. fat
D. vitamin A

Answer 272

A. Glucose

Question 273

The source of oxygen in photosynthesis is
A. CO2
B. glucose
C. ATP
D. water

Answer 273

D. water

Question 274

An autotroph makes food from
A. Organic molecules
B. inorganic molecules
C. glucose
D. proteins

Answer 274

B. inorganic molecules

Question 275

The evaporation of water from a leaf is known as
A. Conduction
B. circulation
C. transportation
D. transformation

Answer 275

C. transportation

Question 276

An inherited disease in which blood does not clot is
A. Thrombosis
B. hemophilia
C. heparin
D. anemia

Answer 276

B. hemophilia

Question 277

Which one of the following correctly pairs amino acid with a valid chemical characteristic?
A. Glutamine: contains a hydroxyl group in its side chain
B. Serine: can form disulfide bonds
C. Cysteine: contains the smallest side chain
D. Isoleucine: is nearly always found buried in the center of proteins
E. Glycine: contains an amide group in its side chain

Answer 277

D. Isoleucine: is nearly always found buried in the center of proteins

Question 278

Which one of the following statements concerning glutamine is correct?
A. Contains three titratable groups
B. Is classified as an acidic amino acid
C. Contains an amide group
D. Has E as its one-letter symbol
E. Migrates to the cathode (negative electrode) during electrophoresis at pH 7.0

Question 279

A peptide bond
A. Has a partial double-bond character
B. Is ionized at physiological pH
C. Is cleaved by agents that denature proteins such as organic solvents and high concentrations of urea
D. Is stable to heating in strong acids
E. Occurs most commonly in the cis configuration

Answer 279

A. Has a partial double-bond character

Question 280

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme
A. Increases Km without affecting Vmax
B. Increases Vmax without affecting Km
C. Decreases both Vmax and Km
D. decreases Km without affecting Vmax
E. decreases Vmax without affecting Km

Answer 280

A. Increases Km without affecting Vmax

Question 281

The Michaelis constant Km is:
A. Numerically equal to 0.5 Vmax
B. Dependent on the enzyme concentration
C. Independent of pH
D. Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half-maximal velocity
E. Increases in the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor

Answer 281

D. Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half-maximal velocity

Question 282

Computer disks, video tapes, and audio tapes uses common a chemical which is
A. Rust, Fe2O3
B. Teflon
C. sand, SiO2
D. diamond, C

Answer 282

A. Rust, Fe2O3

Question 283

The strongest acid below is
A. HClO2
B. HSrO3
C. HClO3
D. H2SO3
E. H2SeO3

Answer 283

C. HClO3

Question 284

Which of the following cannot be used to determine molar mass.
A. Osmotic pressure
B. percent composition
C. vapor pressure
D. gas density
E. freezing point depression

Answer 284

B. percent composition

Question 285

A substance labeled hygroscopic
A. Reacts with atmospheric oxygen
B. Absorbs water from the atmosphere
C. Spontaneously combusts in contact with organic matter
D. spontaneously combusts
E. oxidizes readily

Answer 285

B. Absorbs water from the atmosphere

Question 286

Very fine precipitates are most easily separated by
A. Distillation
B. filtration
C. centrifugation
D. evaporation
E. vacuum filtration

Answer 286

C. centrifugation

Question 287

The ion with the largest radius is
A. K+
B. I-
C. Cl-
D. Na+
E. Ba2+

Answer 287

B. I-

Question 288

The colored gas most associated with smog is
A. An oxide of nitrogen
B. an oxide of sulfur
C. an oxide of hydrogen
D. a chloride of sulfur
E. a nitrate of nitrogen

Answer 288

A. An oxide of nitrogen

Question 289

A protein is
A. A polysaccharide
B. deoxyribonucleic acid
C. a polymer of amino acids
D. soluble because of the carbonyl groups
E. a polyester

Answer 289

C. a polymer of amino acids

Question 290

The bonding in the benzene molecule, C6H6, in any of its resonance structures, contains
A. 6 sigma bonds and 6 pi bonds
B. 12 sigma bonds and 6 pi bonds
C. 12 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds
D. 6 sigma bonds and 12 pi bonds
E. only sigma bonds

Answer 290

C. 12 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds

Question 291

Which of the following is most likely to form hydrogen bonds?
A. An alkyne
B. an alcohol
C. an aldehyde
D. a ketone
E. an ether

Answer 291

B. an alcohol

Question 292

The following compounds have the same number of carbon atoms. Which is expected to have the lowest boiling point?
A. An alkyne
B. an alcohol
C. an aldehyde
D. a ketone
E. an ether

Answer 292

A. An alkyne

Question 293

Which of the following always have a constant percentage of carbon in all of their compounds?
A. Alkenes
B. alcohols
C. aldehydes
D. ketones
E. esters

Answer 293

A. Alkenes

Question 294

CH2O is the empirical formula for
A. Amino acids
B. proteins
C. carbohydrates (sugar)
D. aldehydes
E. DNA and RNA

Answer 294

C. carbohydrates (sugar)

Question 295

Modern automobiles use a catalytic converter to
A. Increase horsepower by burning more gasoline
B. Complete the combustion of unburned gasses
C. Convert pollutants into water
D. absorb pollutants from the exhaust
E. cool the exhaust gasses

Answer 295

B. Complete the combustion of unburned gasses

Question 296

A graph of the reciprocal of reactant concentration versus time will give a straight line for
A. A zero-order reaction
B. a first-order reaction
C. a second-order reaction
D. both A and C

Answer 296

C. a second-order reaction

Question 297

A reaction in which the rate and the rate constant have the same units is
A. A radioactive decay
B. a second-order reaction
C. a reaction with one-step mechanism
D. a first-order reaction
E. a zero-order reaction

Answer 297

E. a zero-order reaction

Question 298

A student observed that a small amount of acetone sprayed on the back of the hand felt very cool compared to a similar amount of water. Your explanation of this phenomena be that
A. All organic compound do this
B. Acetone has a lower viscosity and transfers heat quanta better
C. Water has a higher heat capacity than acetone, therefore retaining more heat
D. The higher vapor pressure of acetone results in more rapid evaporation and heat loss
E. The observed effect is not real and is only imagined

Answer 298

D. The higher vapor pressure of acetone results in more rapid evaporation and heat loss

Question 299

When a pot of water bois on the stove, small bubbles form at the bottom of the pan and rise to the surface. What is inside these bubbles?
A. Steam
B. hydrogen gas
C. oxygen gas
D. a vacuum
E. air

Answer 299

A. Steam

Question 300

Diamond is classified ass
A. A covalent crystal
B. an ionic crystal
C. an amorphous solid
D. a metallic crystal
E. a molecular crystal

Answer 300

A. A covalent crystal

Question 301

A liquid compound that exhibits low intermolecular attraction is expected to have
A. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization
B. High viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization
C. Low viscosity, high boiling point
D. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and high heat of vaporization
E. high viscosity, high boiling point, and high heat of vaporization

Answer 301

A. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization

Question 302

If gastric juice is tested with a pH meter, its pH would most likely be about
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D.8

Answer 302

A. 2

Question 303

The blood type known as the universal donor is
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

Answer 303

D. O

Question 304

A process in which fuel is mixed with the ore and burned on the grate.
A. Sintering
B. annealing
C. cold working
D. heat hardening

Answer 304

A. Sintering

Question 305

Organisms which used only simple inorganic compounds as nutrients.
A. Chemotroph
B. phototroph
C. heterotroph
D. autotroph

Answer 305

D. autotroph

Question 306

For any closed system formed initially from given masses of prescribed chemical species, the equilibrium state is completely determined by any two proteins of the system, provided only that these two properties are independently variable in the equilibrium state.
A. Phase rule
B. Lewis-Randall rule
C. Duhem’s theorem
D. Henry’s law

Answer 306

D. Henry’s law

Question 307

It is a nonporous rock containing organic kerogen.
A. Tar sands
B. Natural gas
C. oil shale
D. coil-oil mixtures (COM)

Answer 307

C. oil shale

Question 308

It is the nonagglomerated, nonfusible residue from the thermal treatment of solid carbonaceous material.
A. Charcoal
B. tanbank
C. bagasse
D. char

Answer 308

D. char

Question 309

It is produced by the decay of vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas”
A. Producer gas
B. furnace gas
C. hydrogen
D. methane

Answer 309

D. methane

Question 310

Calcium carbonate is also known as
A. Chalk
B. charcoal
C. feldspar
D. silica

Answer 310

A. Chalk

Question 311

If the partial pressure of the vapor in a gas-vapor mixture is for any reason less than the equilibrium vapor pressure of the liquid at the same temperature, the gas mixture is
A. Saturated
B. unsaturated
C. supersaturated
D. none of these

Answer 311

B. unsaturated

Question 312

Of the following elements the one that always has the oxidation number 1-in its compound is
A. Hydrogen
B. sodium
C. fluorine
D. oxygen

Answer 312

C. fluorine

Question 313

If an element is at its lowest oxidation state, under appropriate circumstances, it can act as
A. A reducing agent
B. An oxidizing agent
C. Either an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent depending upon whether its oxidizing number is negative or positive
D. Neither an oxidizing agent nor a reducing agent

Answer 313

B. An oxidizing agent

Question 314

The atom with high electronegativity value
A. A small tendency to attract electrons
B. No tendency to attract electrons
C. A large tendency to attract electron
D. The attraction for electron does not depend upon electronegativity but upon electron affinity

Answer 314

C. A large tendency to attract electron

Question 315

A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because_________.
A. The heat is more evenly distributed
B. the higher pressure tenderizes the food
C. The boiling point is elevated
D. a large flame must be used

Answer 315

C. The boiling point is elevated

Question 316

It is the science of flow and deformation of fluids
A. Transportation phenomena
B. rheology
C. fluid dynamics
D. fluid statics

Answer 316

C. fluid dynamics

Question 317

Who determined that energy is radiated only when an electron falls from a higher energy level to a lower energy level?
A. Einstein
B. Rutherford
C. Heisenberg
D. Bohr

Answer 317

D. Bohr

Question 318

Who determined the charge of an electron by means of the oil droplet experiment?
A. Rutherford
B. Heisenberg
C. Millikan
D. de Broglie

Answer 318

C. Millikan

Question 319

Who showed that electrons can be considered to have both particle character and wave character?
A. Thomson
B. Moseley
C. Heisenberg
D. de Broglie

Answer 319

D. de Broglie

Question 320

Who determined that no two electrons may have the same set of four quantum numbers?
A. Planck
B. Pauli
C. Hund
D. Rutherford

Answer 320

B. Pauli

Question 321

Which of the following is a nonviscoelastic material?
A. Plastic
B. metal
C. rubber
D. glass

Answer 321

B. metal

Question 322

In molecules of the same composition, what are the variations of atomic arrangements known as?
A. Polymers
B. monomers
C. crystal systems
D. isomers

Answer 322

D. isomers

Question 323

The only common liquid on the earth is
A. Mercury
B. water
C. petroleum
D. oxygen

Answer 323

B. water

Question 324

Because oil slick do not dissolve in water, one might expect oit to be composed of ____ molecules.
A. Nonpolar
B. polar
C. subpolar
D. arctic

Answer 324

A. Nonpolar

Question 325

The main source of water pollution is
A. Industry
B. domestic sewage
C. chemical plants
D. fertilizer funof

Answer 325

B. domestic sewage

Question 326

The most commonly used agent for killing bacteria in treated wastewater is
A. Chlorine
B. ozone
C. gamma radiation
D. phosphates

Answer 326

A. Chlorine

Question 327

Which stage of wastewater treatment is most adversely affected by low temperature?
A. Primary
B. secondary
C. advanced
D. disinfection

Answer 327

B. secondary

Question 328

Which substance has polar covalent bonds?
A. CaF2
B. F2
C. HF
D. H2

Answer 328

C. HF

Question 329

The water molecule is
A. Bent
B. linear
C. pyramidal
D. tetrahedral

Answer 329

A. Bent

Question 330

In nearly all molecules, carbon forms _____ bonds.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer 330

C. 4

Question 331

A chemical bond formed by the equal sharing of electrons is called
A. Ionic
B. nonpolar covalent
C. polar covalent
D. coordinate

Answer 331

B. nonpolar covalent

Question 332

The weight percent of SiO3 in coal ash ranges from
A. 20-60
B. 10-35
C. 5-35
D. 1-20

Answer 332

A. 20-60

Question 333

A method used for landfilling dry areas when the terrain is unsuitable for the excavation of trenches in which to place the solid wastes.
A. Trench method
B. depression method
C. area method
D. topsoil method

Answer 333

C. area method

Question 334

Biological catalyst which expedite reactions by lowering the amount of activation required.
A. Enzymes
B. positive catalyst
C. inhibitor
D. depressants

Answer 334

A. Enzymes

Question 335

The rate equation for the decomposition of H2O2 in the presence of I- is rate = k [H2O2] [I-] what are the units of the rate constant, k?
A. Mol/ L-time
B. L-time/ mol
C. L2/ mol2-time
D. L/ mol-time

Answer 335

D. L/ mol-time

Question 336

As the temperature of the reaction is increased, the rate of the reaction increases because the
A. Reactant molecules collide less frequently
B. Reactant molecules collide less frequently and with greater energy
C. Activation energy is lowered
D. Reactant molecules collide with greater energy

Answer 336

D. Reactant molecules collide with greater energy

Question 337

Which of the following would have the lowest vapor pressure at 0o C?
A. CH3OH
B. CH4
C. H2O
D. CH2Cl2

Answer 337

B. CH4

Question 338

The reason that some insects can walk on water is due to
A. Surface tension
B. adhesive forces
C. vaporization
D. capillary action

Answer 338

A. Surface tension

Question 339

Which would have the lowest freezing point?
A. H2O
B. N2
C. CO2
D. H2

Answer 339

D. H2

Question 340

What is the significance of a line in a phase diagram?
A. Only one phase is present
B. Three phases are in equilibrium
C. two phases are in equilibrium
D. the distinction between two phases

Answer 340

C. two phases are in equilibrium

Question 341

List the three states of matter in order of increasing molecular disorder.
A. Gas < liquid < solid
B. Solid < liquid < gas
C. gas < solid < liquid
D. solid < gas < liquid

Answer 341

B. Solid < liquid < gas

Question 342

First ionization energy refers to
A. Removal of an electron from a gas atom
B. Trapping an ion in a lattice structure
C. energy to form the most probable ion
D. formation of a 1- anion

Answer 342

A. Removal of an electron from a gas atom

Question 343

The tripe point of water is
A. 0°, 1 atm
B. 374.4°C, 217.7 atm
C. 0.0098°C, 4.58 torr
D. 56.4°C, 5.11 atm

Answer 343

C. 0.0098°C, 4.58 torr

Question 344

It is a substance that exhibits one or more ordered phases at a temperature above the melting point of the solid.
A. Thermoplastic
B. plastics
C. liquid crystal
D. biomaterials

Answer 344

C. liquid crystal

Question 345

Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin C
C. vitamin D
D. vitamin E

Answer 345

B. vitamin C

Question 346

A substance that can accept a proton or a proton acceptor.
A. Arrhenius acid
B. Bronsted acid
C. Arrhenius base
D. Bronsted base

Answer 346

D. Bronsted base

Question 347

A hydrocarbon derivative in which one or more hydrogen or a parent hydrocarbon have been replaced by a hydroxyl functional group, OH.
A. Carboxylic acid
B. esters
C. alcohols
D. ethers

Answer 347

C. alcohols

Question 348

It is a product of the fermentation of carbohydrates such as sugar and starch.
A. Methanol
B. ethanol
C. dimethyl ether
D. ethanoic acid

Answer 348

B. ethanol

Question 349

Compounds in which two hydrocarbon groups are bonded to one oxygen are called
A. Ethers
B. esters
C. phenols
D. amines

Answer 349

A. Ethers

Question 350

Which of the following has no carbonyl group?
A. Aldehydes
B. ketones
C. carboxylic acid
D. ethers

Answer 350

D. ethers

Question 351

It is the scattering of light by colloidal effect.
A. Brownian movement
B. Tyndall effect
C. Coriolis effect
D. Meissner effect

Answer 351

B. Tyndall effect

Question 352

A type of colloid in which a liquid is dispersed in a liquid, example, milk.
A. Foam
B. emulsion
C. sol
D. aerosol

Answer 352

B. emulsion

Question 353

A type of colloid in which a liquid/solid is dispersed in a gas, example, fog, smoke.
A. Aerosol
B. foam
C. emulsion
D. sol

Answer 353

A. Aerosol

Question 354

A type of colloid in which a gas is dispersed in a liquid, example, whipped cream.
A. Aerosol
B. foam
C. emulsion
D. sol

Answer 354

B. foam

Question 355

It refers to the adherence to a surface.
A. Adsorption
B. Absorption
C. desorption
D. osmosis

Answer 355

A. Adsorption

Question 356

It consists of O-Si-O chains in which the remaining bonding positions on each silicon are occupied by organic groups as CH3.
A. Boranes
B. silicones
C. sulfide
D. nitrides

Answer 356

B. silicones

Question 357

Which of the following is an aluminum ore?
A. Sphalenite
B. amalgam
C. galena
D. bauxite

Answer 357

D. bauxite

Question 358

Which of the following radioisotopes is used in treating cancer?
A. Cobalt-60
B. uranium-233
C. helium-4
D. uranium-238

Answer 358

A. Cobalt-60

Question 359

Iodine, when heated, passes from the solid phase directly to the gaseous phase. This is an example of
A. Charle’s law
B. sublimation
C. vapor pressure
D. heat of fusion

Answer 359

B. sublimation

Question 360

The study of chemistry does not include which one of the following?
A. The composition of particles
B. The mechanics of particle motion
C. the structure of particles
D. the properties of particle

Answer 360

B. The mechanics of particle motion

Question 361

Aluminum hydroxide is an amphoteric compound. This means that aluminum hydroxide
A. Is highly colored
B. is used as a reducing agent
C. insoluble I string base
D. can act as a weak acid or weak base

Answer 361

D. can act as a weak acid or weak base

Question 362

Acetic acid is classified as weak acid because it
A. Does not ionize in water
B. does not neutralize bases
C. slightly ionize in water
D. react rapidly with zinc to produce hydrogen

Answer 362

C. slightly ionize in water

Question 363

According to Bronsted lowry theory, an acid is any substance that
A. Donates a proton
B. donates an electron pair
B. C. donates an electron
D. accepts an electron pair

Answer 363

A. Donates a proton

Question 364

The hydronium ion is a complex ion composed of
A. An electron
B. a neutron
C. a proton
D. a positron

Answer 364

C. a proton

Question 365

The chaotic zigzag motion of particle in solution is described by
A. Electrical charge effect
B. Tyndall effect
C. Brownian movement
D. osmosis

Answer 365

C. Brownian movement

Question 366

The temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the prevailing atmospheric pressure is
A. Boiling point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. critical point

Answer 366

A. Boiling point

Question 367

The indicator which turns to yellow in basic solution is
A. Phenolphthalein
B. blue litmus
C. methyl orange
D. red litmus

Answer 367

C. methyl orange

Question 368

A base is an electron pair donor as defined by
A. Arrhenius
B. Lewis
C. Democritus
D. Bronsted Lowry

Answer 368

B. Lewis

Question 369

Elements are composed of extremely small particles called atoms. All atoms of the same element are alike, and atoms of different elements are different. This is an expression of the
A. Quantum theory
B. kinetic theory
C. Dalton’s theory
D. Bohr theory

Answer 369

C. Dalton’s theory

Question 370

The magnetic quantum number is related to the
A. Direction of turning
B. orientation in space
C. shape of the electron cloud
D. distance from the nucleus

Answer 370

B. orientation in space

Question 371

The maximum numbers of electron that can stay in a d-orbital is
A. 10
B. 8
C. 6
D. 2

Answer 371

A. 10

Question 372

Deuterium or heavy hydrogen has an atomic number of 1 and a mass of
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4

Answer 372

B. 2

Question 373

A chemical change in which a substance loses electrons and thus increases in oxidation number
A. Oxidation
B. reduction
C. combination
D. decomposition

Answer 373

A. Oxidation

Question 374

A reaction in which the products that are formed react to form the original reactants
A. Reversible
B. irreversible
C. redox
D. chemical

Answer 374

A. Reversible

Question 375

It states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system will shift, if possible, in such a way as to reduce the stress.
A. Law of mass action
B. Le Chatelier’s principle
B. C. rate law
D. Pauli exclusion principle

Answer 375

B. Le Chatelier’s principle

Question 376

In the reaction Na + Cl2 → NaCl, what is the ox idizing agent?
A. NaCl
B. Cl
C. Na
D. Cl2

Answer 376

D. Cl2

Question 377

The rise of liquids up very narrow tube is called
A. Surface tension
B. capillarity action
C. viscosity
D. buoyant force

Answer 377

B. capillarity action

Question 378

Sometimes as we remove heat from a liquid we can temporarily cool it below its freezing point without forming a solid. This phenomenon is called
A. Fusion
B. supercooling
C. vaporization
D. sublimation

Answer 378

B. supercooling

Question 379

It is a particle that has the same mass as an electron but an opposite charge.
A. Beta particle
B. neutrino
C. positron
D. nucleon

Answer 379

C. positron

Question 380

Which of the following indicators us yellow in acidic solution and blue in basic solution?
A. HpH
B. thymol blue
C. bromothymol blue
D. methyl orange

Answer 380

C. bromothymol blue

Question 381

On heating glucose with Fehling’s solution we get a precipitate whose color is
A. Yellow
B. red
C. black
D. white

Answer 381

B. red

Question 382

The action on nitrous acid on ethyl amine gives
A. Ethane
B. ammonia
C. ethyl alcohol
D. nitroethane

Answer 382

C. ethyl alcohol

Question 383

If formaldehyde and KOH are heated we get
A. Acetylene
B. methane
C. methanol
D. ethyl acetate

Answer 383

C. methanol

Question 384

Which of the following is formed when urea is heated?
A. Ammonium cyanate
B. ammonia
C. carbon dioxide
D. formic acid

Answer 384

B. ammonia

Question 385

The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of electric field is called
A. Electrodialysis
B. electrodispersion
C. electrophoresis
D. electroosmosis

Answer 385

C. electrophoresis

Question 386

Which fluid is involved in maintaining a heat balance in the body?
A. Interstitial fluid
B. lymph
C. saliva
D. sweat

Answer 386

D. sweat

Question 387

The number of major amino acids found in protein is
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

Answer 387

C. 20

Question 388

The special region of an enzyme where the substrate molecules fits is called the
A. Activation energy
B. substrate bond
C. active site
D. catalyst

Answer 388

C. active site

Question 389

Enzymes which catalyze the breaking or making of double bonds are called
A. Transferases
B. ligases
C. isomerases
D. lyases

Answer 389

D. lyases

Question 390

Bacteria which converts alcoholic solution to vinegar are
A. Coli
B. acetobacters
C. bacilli
D. proteins

Answer 390

B. acetobacters

Question 391

Ethylene readily undergoes the following type of reaction
A. Addition
B. elimination
C. substitution
D. rearrangement

Answer 391

A. Addition

Question 392

A functional group on the principal polymer chain
A. Radical group
B. peridant group
C. aromatic group
D. chain group

Answer 392

A. Radical group

Question 393

Ring compounds consisting of carbon and other atoms.
A. Aromatic
B. heterocyclic
C. terpolymer
D. copolymer

Answer 393

A. Aromatic

Question 394

If an atom has a diameter of 426 pm, what is the volume of 100 atoms?
A. 4.11×10-29 m3
B. 3.28×10-7 m3
C. 4.11×10-27 m3
D. 4.11×10-8 m3

Answer 394

C. 4.11×10-27 m3

Question 395

How many valence electrons are involved in writing the Lewis structure of AsF3?
A. 5
B. 21
C. 26
D. 8

Answer 395

C. 26

Question 396

1000 gal/min of water is cascading down a height of 50 feet from a reservoir. If half of the energy is converted to electrical energy, how many 100-watts bulb can be lighted in 30 seconds?
A. 54
B. 56
C. 47
D. 60

Answer 396

C. 47

Question 397

If the velocity of a reaction doubles every ten degree rise in temperature, how much faster would the reaction proceed at 100°C than 20°C?
A. 64 times faster
B. 256 times faster
C. 120 times faster
D. 512 times faster

Answer 397

B. 256 times faster

Question 398

The accounting device of a “barrel of oil” is defined to hold how many US gallons of petroleum?
A. 24
B. 42
C. 55
D. 100

Answer 398

B. 42

Question 399

The specific heat of soil is 0.20 kcal/kg-°C and the specific heat of water is 1.00 kcal/kg-°C. This means that if 1 kg of soil and 1 kg of water each receive 1 kcal of energy ideally
A. The water will be warmer than the soil by 0.8°C
B. The soil will warm by 5°C
C. The water will warm by 5°C
D. The water will warm by 1°C, and the soil will warm by 0.2°C

Answer 399

B. The soil will warm by 5°C

Question 400

What is the mass of aluminum produced in 1hr in the electrolysis of molten Al2(SO4)3 if the electrical current is 10 A.
A. 3.36g
B. 5.04g
C. 1.00g
D. 0.167g

Answer 400

A. 3.36g

Question 401

The density of a gas mixture of O2 and N2 is 1.1705 g/L at 27°C and 750 mmHg. The % of N2 in the mixture is
A. 70%
B. 68%
C. 30%
D. 32%

Answer 401

A. 70%

Question 402

How much oil at 200°C must be added to 50 grams of the same oil at 20o C to heat it to 70°C?
A. 12.39 g
B. 29.12 g
C. 19.23 g
D. 23.91 g

Answer 402

C. 19.23 g

Question 403

A compound contains 54.45% carbon, 9.09% hydrogen and 36.36% oxygen. What is the empirical formula?
A. C4H6O2
B. C2H4O
C. CH2O+
D. C2H4O3

Answer 403

B. C2H4O

Question 404

Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 10 mL of 0.1 N NaOH and 25 mL of 0.1 N HAc.
A. 2.46
B. 12.96
C. 4.57
D. 8.72

Answer 404

C. 4.57

Question 405

What is the pH of natural rain water?
A. 5.6 - 6.2
B. 7.0 - 8.3
C. 4.2 – 4.4
D. 2.2 – 2.4

Answer 405

A. 5.6 - 6.2

Question 406

The concentration of a chemical degrades in water according to first-order kinetics. The degradation constant is 0.2/day. If the initial concentration is 100 mg/ L, how many days are required for the concentration to reach 0.14 mg/L?
A. 24.8 days
B. 26.2 days
C. 30.7 days
D. 32.9 days

Answer 406

D. 32.9 days

Question 407

What is the pH of water that contains 120 mg/L of bicarbonate ion and 15 mg/L of carbonate ion?
A. 9.43
B. 8.76
C. 8.01
D. 7.65

Answer 407

A. 9.43

Question 408

Of the following gasses, _____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature.
A. NH3
B. CH4
C. Ar
D. HBr

Answer 408

B. CH4

Question 409

What weight of Epsom salts, MgSO4∙7H2O is required to prepare 300 mL of 2 M solution of magnesium sulfate?
A. 148 g
B. 120 g
C. 87 g
D. 75 g

Answer 409

A. 148 g

Question 410

A sample of hydrogen occupies a volume of 2.50 liters at atmospheric pressure and a temperature of 25.0°C. if the gas is cooled at constant pressure to -200°C, what will the volume be?
A. 0.512 L
B. 0.548 L
C. 0.613 L
D. 0.670 L

Answer 410

C. 0.613 L

Question 411

When an ester is hydrolyzed, the end products are
A. Water and base
B. An acid and an alcohol
C. an acid and water
D. an acid and a base

Answer 411

B. An acid and an alcohol

Question 412

Which of the following are nonelectrolytes in water?
I. HF
II. ethanol
III. CH3CH3
IV. KCIO3
V. Cu(NO3)2

A. II and III only
B. I, II and II only
C. I, IV and V only
D. II only

Answer 412

A. II and III only

Question 413

By referring only to the periodic table, arrange the following in order of increasing electronegativity: Ga, P, As, S, O, and F.
A. Ga< P < As < S < O < F
B. Ga < As < S < P < O < F
C. Ga< As < P < O < S < F
D. Ga < As < P < S < O < F

Answer 413

D. Ga < As < P < S < O < F

Question 414

A solid metallic element burns in oxygen to produce an oxide which dissolves in water to give the hydroxide of the metal. The hydroxide obtained from 1 gram of metal neutralizes 111.2 ml of normal hydrochloric acid. The specific heat of the metal is 0.228 cal/g-°C. What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 414

C. 3

Question 415

A solid metallic element burns in oxygen to produce an oxide which dissolves in water to give the hydroxide of the metal. The hydroxide obtained from 1 gram of metal neutralizes 111.2 ml of normal hydrochloric acid. The specific heat of the metal is 0.228 cal/g-°C. What is the equivalent wright of the metal?
A. 9.33
B. 8.992
C. 9.002
D. 4

Answer 415

B. 8.992

Question 416

The following equilibrium was obtained when some NO gas was placed into a 2-L container until the pressure was 0.650 atm: 2NO (g) = N2 (g) + O2 (g) the equilibrium pressure of N2 was found to be 5.25 E-2 atm. What is the Kp for this reaction?
A. 198
B. 153
C. 6.52E–3
D. 9.28 E–3

Answer 416

D. 9.28 E–3

Question 417

What H+is needed to dissolve completely 0.0010 mole of AgCN in 1 liter solution? KHCN = 4E-10 and Ksp of AgCN = 1.6E-14
A. 0.00026 M
B. 0.026 M
C. 0.000026 M
D. 0.26 M

Answer 417

B. 0.026 M

Question 418

A 25 ml sample of 0.025 M HBr is mixed with 25.0 ml of 0.023 M KOH. What is the pH of the resulting mixture?
A. 1.00
B. 3.00
C. 7.00
D. 11.00

Answer 418

B. 3.00

Question 419

A student is titrating 50 ml of 0.2 N HCl solution with a solution of 0.2 N KOH. He accidentally adds one ml too much titrant. What is the pH of the resulting solution?
A. 10.3
B. 11.3
C. 2.7
D. 7.3

Answer 419

B. 11.3