Dawn - CP - Flashcards

1
Q

What is the phase shift in order to get complete destructive inteference?

A

destructive interference = 180 shift

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2
Q

When temperature increases, what direction does that shift equilibrium based on endo and exothermic reaction?

A

if DeltaH > 0 = endo = shift to product side

if DeltaH < 0 = exo = shift to reactant side

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3
Q

What does the reaction between sulfur dioxide and water produce?

A

Sulfurous acid (H2SO3)

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4
Q

Why would you have a reaction quotient that doesnt equal a Keq?

A
  • If Keq = Q then youre in equilibrium, but if Q is smaller then you have more products
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5
Q

What does the Kp express? and how do we determine the mole fraction?

A

Kp = product partial pressure/ reactant partial pressure
- Take that value and then do a normal equilibrium calculation using partial pressures. Once you have the partial pressure, to find mole fraction divide partial pressure by total pressure (sum of partial pressures).

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6
Q

How can you tell which species is most likely to be a radical?

A

A radical is a species with one or more unpaired electrons, thus, an substance with an odd number of electrons could become a radical

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7
Q

What would make something a heterogenous vs homogenous catalyst?

A
  1. Heterogenous = catalyst is in a different phase than the reactants
  2. Homogenous = catalyst is in the same phase as the reactants
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8
Q

Which compound would be most effective in catalyzing the saponification of an ester?

A

Strong base (NaOH)

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9
Q

What is the energy content in kcal of one peanut, if the temperature of 1 kg of water in a calorimeter increases by 50C upon the combustion of 10 peanuts? (Note: For water, the heat of fusion is 1.4 kcal/mol, the specific heat is 4.185 J/g•oC or 1 cal/g•oC, and the density is 1.0 g/mL at 15oC. One kg equals 2.2 pounds.)

A

(1 kg) × (1000 g/kg) × (1 cal/g oC) × (1 kcal/1000 cal) × (50oC) = 50 kcal but that is for 10 peanuts so divide by 10 to get 5kcal

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10
Q

How do you calculate the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in an element?

A
  1. Protons = atomic # = electrons IF neutral
  2. Neutrons = mass # - atomic #
  3. Electrons = atomic # - charge
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11
Q

What is the difference between tautomerization and resonance?

A
  1. Resonance - only moves electrons around
    - Maintains same structure (arbitrary and do not exists)
    - lowers potential energy to stabilize the molecule
  2. Tautomerization - moves bonds (atoms or H) around making new functional groups
    - Makes structural isomers that interconvert rapidly
    - has no stabilization effect
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12
Q

What does red litmus paper detect and what color will it change? and what does blue litmus paper detect and what color does it change?

A
  • Detects whether a solution is acidic or basic
    1. Blue turns red under acidic conditions
    2. Red turns blue under basic or alkaline conditions
  • color change occurring over the pH range 4.5–8.3 at 25 °C (77 °F).
    3. Neutral litmus paper is purple.
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13
Q

Why does nickle (II) ion produce a green color?

A

Nickle (II) is green colored because the nickle II ion has a partially filled d orbital and the electrons in the lower energy d orbitals absorb visible light to move to the higher energy d orbitals

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14
Q

when a sound wave crosses the X axis it is considered to be at what point?

A

Zero displacement

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15
Q

When capacitors are in series how does that effect overall capacitance? what about in parallel?

A
  • Opposite of resistors
    1. Series = 1/C1 + 1/C2 + etc
    2. parallel = C1 + C2 + etc
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16
Q

What is the function of an ebulliator?

A

To prevent superheating of the liquid to be distilled

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17
Q

What would improve the degree of fractional separation between two substances?

A
  • Heat the distillation flask at a slower rate!
  • Cooling condenser doesnt effect, shortening fractionating column = less separated
  • lower pressure inside = decreases BP and will cause smaller difference
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18
Q

What happens if there is a leak in the vacuum distillation apparatus?

A
  • The BP of the two components will BOTH INCREASE
  • Vapor pressure of a liquid increases with increasing temp, so BP of liquid decreases as pressure on surface of liquid is decreased
  • A leak would cause the surface pressure to increase
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19
Q

What is the bond order between oxygen atoms? in O2

A

2

  • 12 valence electrons with 8 in bonding and 4 in antibonding
  • Subtract bonding from antibonding and then divide by 2
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20
Q

What is an isoelectronic compound?

A
  • Have same number of electrons
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21
Q

How can you tell which electrons will have the greatest energy?

A
  • Whichever one has the highest n value because it makes the smallest negative number
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22
Q

What does a trigonal planar bond look like?

A

AlCl3 bc it is an expection to the octet rule, makes 120 degree angles

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23
Q

What pure substance has the highest bp typically?

A

Water, based on IMFs

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24
Q

What is a permanent dipole?

A
  • when the dipoles do not cancel out, must have polarized bonds
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25
Q
The H-C-H bond angle in dichloromethane (DCM) is expected to be: 
A. Greater than 109.5, but less than 120
B. Equal to 109.5
C. Less than 109.5
D. Equal to 120
A

Less than 109.5 because the steric clashing between the Cl will cause the H’s to be pushed together

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26
Q

What is a conjugated system?

A

A system that is connected by p orbitals with delocalized electrons in molecules with alternating single and pi bonds

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27
Q

What is the difference between resonace, constitutional isomers, conformational isomers and epimerization?

A
  1. Resonace - rearranging of valence electrons from one atom to another
  2. Constitutional isomers - structural isomers, that have completely differnt functional groups
  3. Conformational isomers - same molecular formula, same connections but are comprised of bonds that are freely rotatable
  4. Epimerization - Mutarotation - change in specific rotation of a chiral compound. The sugars ring opens up and rearranges the orientation at the anomeric carbon
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28
Q

What is the difference between thermodyamic control and kinectic control in the formation of compounds?

A

if something is stable and does not change upon mixing it means it is in kinetic control
- if something changes to a new state it as a preference and is likely in thermodynamic

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29
Q

What would allow a product to be detected with color?

A
  • More conjugated double bonds
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30
Q

How do you determine catalytic efficiency?

A

Ratio of Kcat/Km

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31
Q

what is the equation for wavelength, velocity and frequency?

A

wavelength = V/f

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32
Q

When does the ideal gas law not hold true?

A
  • The ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures, when intermolecular forces and molecular size becomes important
  • It also fails for most heavy gases, such as many refrigerants, and for gases with strong intermolecular forces, notably water vapor
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33
Q

What is the dopler effect and how does it affect wavelength and frequency of things traveling?

A

towards you, higher f, higher pitch, smaller wavelength

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34
Q

When using spectroscopy what absorbance color do you want to measure? what are the colors and wavelengths?

A
  • Want to use complementary colors
  • Y(560-600) –> V (400-500)
  • O (600-640)–> B (450-480)
  • R (640-700) –> G (450-560)
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35
Q

How do you determine a Km from a line weaver burk plot

A

it would be 1/Km which is the X intercept

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36
Q

When looking at concentration graphs, shifting to the right indicates an increase or decrease in stability?

A

Increase!

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37
Q

How does PAGE and SDS PAGE affect the molecules?

A
  • DOES NOT AFFECT HOMODIMERS!!
  • If the dimers are of different molecular weight, THEN they will make different bands, other wise all one band
  • Applies negative charge to molecule
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38
Q

What is the difference between a random order mechanism and an ordered mechanism and how can you tell if a ternary complex is formed?

A
  • Ordered mechanism - One thing binds then another binds
  • Random - either substrate could bind first
  • Ternary because both substrates occupy the catalytic cleft
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39
Q

The oxidation of aldehydes and ketones produces what? the reduction of ketones produces what?

A
  1. Oxidation of aldehydes = carboxylic acids
  2. Reduction of ketones = alcohols
  3. Oxidation of ketones = cannot be oxidized further! bc C=O bond already possesses two C-C bonds and cannot be broken easily
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40
Q

What is a diol?

A

Must have two alcohol groups

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41
Q

Which of the following is a plausible scenario for the work of CoQ in the electron transport chain?
A. Coenzyme Q10 is reduced by Complex I and later oxidizes Complex III.
B. Coenzyme Q10 oxidizes Complex I and then is later oxidized by Complex III.
C. Coenzyme Q10 reduces Complex I and later reduces Complex III.
D. Coenzyme Q10 is oxidized by Complex I and is later oxidized by Complex III.

A

B - read closely
- From the passage we learn that CoQ takes electrons from Complex I and II and passed them to Complex III. Since it takes electrons from Complex I, it is reduced and it oxidizes Complex I. Later, when it passes electrons to Complex III, CoQ is oxidized and reduces Complex III.

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42
Q

What are the common IR regions for the for the following bond types:

  1. O-H
  2. C=O
  3. C=C
  4. CtriplebondC, CtriplebondN
A
  1. O-H (3200-3600)
  2. C=O (~1700)
  3. C=C (~1650)
  4. CtriplebondC, CtriplebondN (2100-2300)
    NOTE: C-H is 2950 and will NEVER be the answer
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43
Q

When you have an overall E > 0, how does that effect deltaG?

A

Means negative delta G

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44
Q

What is the voltage generated by an electrochemical cell at equilibrium?

A

Voltage must be 0!

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45
Q

What is a spectator ion?

A

A spectator species is unchanged in the net ionic equation

i.e. appears the same on both sides of the reaction and is not consumed

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46
Q
Before coordination to protoporphyrin, what is the ground state electron configuration of Co2+?
A. [Ar]4s23d5
B. [Ar]4s23d7
C. [Ar]3d7
D. [Ar]4s24d5
A

C! bc During the ionization of transition metals, electrons from 4s subshell orbitals are generally removed before those from 3d subshell orbitals. This is because it is also generally true that, when occupied by electrons, electrons of 4s subshell orbitals are higher energy than those in 3d subshell orbitals.

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47
Q

What is the reaction of carbonic acid and when does it occur?

A

The combination of CO2 and H2O to make carbonic acid (H2CO3)

  • Carbonic acid and its conjugate base (bicarbonate) play a large role in maintaining the pH of the human bod
  • Makes pH more acidic!
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48
Q
Under anaerobic conditions, bacteria can sometimes derive energy from the oxidation of sulfur-containing species. Which of the following can NOT be oxidized by anaerobic bacteria?
A. H2S (aq)
B. SO42- (aq)
C. S2O32- (aq)
D. S8 (s)
A

B bc The highest oxidation state for sulfur is +6, corresponding to the loss of all of its valence electrons

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49
Q

What is a 5-8.5ppm peak indicitive of?

A

Amide hydrogens!

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50
Q

How do surfactants exert catalytic effects?

A

Reducing activation energy of the reaction

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51
Q

What is KMnO4 used for? what is PCC used for?

A

KMnO4 - Oxidize alcohols to carboxylic acids
PCC - mild oxidizing reagent when added to a primary alcohol in non-aqueous solution, it converts the alcohol to an aldehyde (KMnO4 gets it all the way to carboxylic acid)

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52
Q

What contributes to the levels of FDG signal seen during a PET scan of the colon?

A

I. Blood flow to the tissue

II. Availability of oxygen to the tissue

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53
Q
Which of the following is most likely to undergo positive beta decay?
A. 14C
B. 13C
C. 17O
D. 22Na
A

D - Looking for a high proton to neutron ratio!

- Positive beta decay, also known as positron emission,

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54
Q

What does a high and low youngs modulus indicate?

A
  1. High - steepest slope = stiffest

2. Low - least steep = not stiff

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55
Q

What is the elastic potential energy equation?

A

PE (spring) = 1/2kx^2

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56
Q

In order to measure the ∆G, researchers needed to denature the proteins. Which of the following steps would be LEAST suitable for this procedure?
A. Increasing temperature
B. Irradiating the protein with non-ionizing radiation
C. Adding a concentrated chaotropic agent
D. Lowering pH

A

B - bc nonionizing radiation doesnt break bonds
- Irradiating the proteins with X-rays or gamma rays certainly can denature them, but these are forms of ionizing radiation.

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57
Q
Administration of a muscle relaxant causes a vessel to increase radius by 10%. If all else is held constant, the volume flow rate will change to approximately what percent of the original rate?
A. Increase to 150% of the original
B. Remain at 100% of the original
C. Decrease to 65% of the original
D. Cannot be determined
A

A is correct. Volume flow rate is proportional to the radius raised to the fourth power. An increase of 10% means the rate of flow will increase to 1.14 of the original rate. We need not do any calculations here, since only choice A says that the flow rate will increase.

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58
Q
If the volume flow rate through segment 1 is 3 times that of segment 2, with all else being held constant, what is the value of P3?
A. 40
B. 70
C. 80
D. 100
A

C

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59
Q
A horizontal force of 100 N is applied to a 50-kg box that is accelerating at 1 m/s2 on a rough, horizontal surface. What is the work done by kinetic friction if the box is moved 4 m?
A. 0 J
B. -150 J
C. -200 J
D. -400 J
A

Fnet = ma = Fapplied – Fk, where Fk is the force of kinetic friction.
(50 kg)(1 m/s2) = 100 N - Fk
50 N = 100 N - Fk
Fk = 50 N
To calculate work, we use W = Fd cos θ.
W = (50 N)(4 m)(cos 180º) = -200 Nm = -200 J

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60
Q

What reaction conditions are necessary to react amines or alcohols

A

Amines and alcohols are not reactive on their own so to add them you need to activate it (heat - dehydrate)

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61
Q

What does calcium sulfate look like? what does calcium sulfite look like?

A

“Calcium sulfate = CaSO4

Calcium sulfite = CaSO3”

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62
Q

” Another possible method of separating 2-methylundecanal and 2-methylundecanoic acid could be based on:

A. their differences in the rotation of plane-polarized light.
B. a mass spectrometry analysis.
C. an extraction based on their differing solubilities.
D. the very different scent profiles of each molecule.”

A

C - its the only method of separation, the rest are methods of analysis

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63
Q

“Rank the order of these substances boiling points:

  1. Alkane
  2. Alcohol
  3. Aldehyde
  4. Acid
  5. Amide
  6. Amine
  7. Ester
  8. Ether
  9. Ketone “
A

“1. Amide

  1. Acid
  2. Alcohol
  3. Ketone
  4. Aldehyde
  5. Amine
  6. Ester
  7. Ether
  8. Alkane “
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64
Q

“What are the formal charges on the atoms in the molecule below? (Note: the molecule has not been labeled with overall formal charge and may have an overall formal charge that is 0 or a value other than 0.)

OtriplebondN-O”

A

(+1, +1, -1)

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65
Q

“The preferred ion configuration of many elements on the periodic table is determined by:

A. the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas; elements will gain or lose electrons until they have the same core electron configuration as this noble gas.
B. the electronegativity of the element directly above it, within the same group; elements will gain or lose electrons until they have an electronegativity that matches the period immediately above them.
C. the electron configuration of the nearest noble gas; elements will gain or lose electrons until they have the same valence electron configuration as this noble gas.
D. the relative stability of the nearest d subshell; elements will gain or lose electrons until the outermost d subshell available is stable.”

A

“C
- Elements will often adopt a configuration with a complete octet – the configuration found in the noble gases. This complete octet is preferred for the outermost valence electrons.”

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66
Q

” If a 65-kg man undergoes a turning acceleration of 5 m/s2 during a running turn, what is the magnitude of force experienced by the foot due to the ground?

A. 325 N
B. 650 N
C. 750 N
D. 1075 N
"
A
"C
- We are looking for the overall force experienced, so we must find the hypotenuse. Specifically, we need to find the hypotenuse of a triangle with legs of Fnormal = mg = (65 kg)(10 m/s2) = 650 N and Fturning = (65 kg)(5 m/s2) = 325 N. The combined vector will be bigger than either component alone, so eliminate choices A and B. To solve, let's round 650 N to 700 N and round 325 N to 300 N. With this in mind, this calculation can be approximated as:
√(3002 + 7002)
= √(90000 + 490000)
= √(580000)
= √(58 x 104)
= (√58) x 102

The square root of 58 falls between 7 and 8, so the overall value of our answer falls between 700 and 800, meaning that choice C must be correct (the actual value is 761). “

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67
Q

” A book rests horizontally on a table. The book experiences a gravitational force of mg due to the earth’s gravity. According to Newton’s third law:

A. the book experiences a normal force of mg pushing up due to the table.
B. the earth experiences a gravitational force of mg from the book.
C. the table exerts a gravitational force of mg on the earth.
D. the earth exerts a normal force up on the table equal to mg plus the weight of the table.”

A

“B is correct. Newton’s third law can be expressed as:

FA on B = −FB on A

Here, the force of the earth pulling on the book is equal to and opposite of the book pulling up on the earth. Thus, choice B is correct.

A: Remember that Newton’s third law applies very narrowly to the interactions between two objects. While the table does exert a normal force upwards on the book, that normal force is not what Newton’s third law refers to. Notice that in the equation above, the reaction force of A on B is strictly limited to B on A.

C: The question stem defines mg as the gravitational force on the book. As such, since the book is resting on top of the table, mg would not be the gravitational force exerted by the table on the earth unless the table were entirely massless (which is not stated).

D: This statement, like choice A, is true. However, the question stem is asking for the Newton’s third law corollary to ““The book experiences a gravitational force of mg due to the earth’s gravity.”” The two objects we should be focusing on are thus the book and the earth — not the table.”

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68
Q


Nitrogen primarily exists in the atmosphere as a diatomic gas. Which of the following is true about this form of nitrogen?

A. The presence of a lone pair of electrons on each nitrogen atom in the molecule allows it to act as a strong Lewis base.
B. The triple bond of electrons creates a region of high electron density that allows N2 to be very reactive as a nucleophile.
C. Diatomic nitrogen gas is relatively inert and can be used as the atmosphere in laboratory conditions to prevent unwanted side reactions.
D. Atmospheric nitrogen reacts spontaneously with carbon dioxide, which keeps atmospheric CO2 levels at a relatively low 0.04% (on a molar basis) of the atmosphere.”

A

” C is correct. The MCAT will expect you to be familiar with N2 as a very inert gas. It makes up approximately 80% of the air you breathe, yet has no significant chemical reactions with your lungs – or with anything other than nitrogen-fixing plants. This information implies that nitrogen is very inert (unreactive). As such, it would serve as a good artificial atmosphere when working with reagents that might react with oxygen or other gases.

A, B: Although N2 does have relatively high electron density, the strength and stability of the triple bond means it doesn’t react strongly as many other compounds.

D: Atmospheric CO2 levels are primarily determined by the seasons (when the northern hemisphere enters spring and summer, many plants grow leaves and pull CO2 out of the atmosphere) and by humans burning fossil fuels, which puts CO2 into the atmosphere. Nitrogen and carbon dioxide do not react readily with each other.”

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69
Q

” Which of the following is closest to the bond angle between the carbons in a molecule of acetone?

A. 90º
B. 109.5º
C. 120º
D. 180º”

A

C

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70
Q

What is the equation for power?

A

P = V^2/R

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71
Q

What is the function of LiAlH4?

A

Strong reudcing agent that conversta aldehydes to primary alcohols

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72
Q

” Lathyrism is known to target and degrade collagen in the lower limbs. Which pair of amino acids would best provide disulfide links to stabilize the folded form of collagen?

A. C and C
B. M and M
C. M and C
D. S and S “

A

A - bc the bond is a S-S bond but S is serine in the amino acids

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73
Q

In the electron transport chain, how are electrons passed between species?

A

From species with less positive reduction potentials to those with more positive reduction potentials (thus, O2 must have the hgihest standard reduction potential)

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74
Q

When does total internal reflection occur?

A

”- Total internal reflection can only result when a ray of light begins in a higher-index material and reaches a boundary with a lower-index one (e.g. starting in water and moving towards air).
- ie: start in water n=1.3 move to air n =1 “

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75
Q

” Which of the following correctly describes the orbital hybridization of XeF4 and NH3, respectively?

A. sp3d2, sp3
B. sp3, sp3
C. sp3, sp2
D. sp3d2, sp2”

A

“A is correct. One quick way to determine the orbital hybridization around the central atom is to simply count up the number of bonds and lone pairs. For example, ammonia has three bonds and one lone pair around its central nitrogen atom, for a total of four regions of electron density. This orbital hybrid therefore needs four orbitals to hybridize: s, p, p, and p. Thus, ammonia is an sp3 hybrid. We can narrow it down to choices A and B.

Next, XeF4 has two lone pairs and four bonds around the central xenon atom. We know this because the central Xe atom has eight valence electrons. It gets four of these eight electrons from the two lone pairs and four from the bonds — one electron from each bond. Alternatively, we could try drawing the Lewis structure of XeF4, knowing that 8 electrons must come from the Xe atom and 7 from each of the F atoms, for a total of 8 + 7(4) = 36 electrons. Drawing XeF4 with Xe as the central atom and single bonds between the Xe atom and each F atom produces a structure with only 32 electrons, so we must add two lone pairs to the central Xe atom.

Two lone pairs and four bonds gives us six total regions of electron density. So we need six hybrid orbitals to hold those electrons: s, p, p, p, d, and d. That’s an sp3d2 hybrid.”

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76
Q


The transcription factor AP-1 is a heterodimer consisting of c-jun and c-fos. C-jun and c-fos are soluble proteins that can be localized to either the cytosol or nucleus of a cell. C-jun and c-fos dimerize through a leucine zipper motif. In a leucine zipper motif, every 7 amino acid residues, or 2 full turns of an alpha helix, are leucine resides. Leucine and other amino acids on one face of the helix come together to form an opposite alpha helix that has a similar arrangement of leucine and other amino acids. Which solvent would be LEAST favorable for c-fos/c-jun dimerization?

A. Hexane
B. Ethanol
C. Water
D. Phosphate-buffered saline”A

A

A

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77
Q

What ist he rate of cation formation through the loss of hydrogen atom related to?

A

“Directly related to the energy required to remove a hydrogen atom from the compound
- More energy = slower reaction because harder to remove “

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78
Q

What is RSE and what does it tell you?

A

”- Relative stabilization energy

- The more negative the number the more stabilizition “

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79
Q

” What effect will the addition of a fluorine substituent have on carbocation stability?

A. The fluorine group will be destabilizing because it is highly electronegative.
B. The fluorine group will be stabilizing because it is highly electronegative.
C. The fluorine group will be destabilizing because it has additional lone pair electrons.
D. The fluorine group will be stabilizing because it has additional lone pair electrons.”

A

A is correct. The first part of each answer describes whether the fluorine group is stabilizing or destabilizing. From Table 1, we see that the fluorine group has an RSE of +2.9 and is therefore destabilizing (eliminate B and D). Next, we must explain this destabilizing influence. Carbocations are typically unstable due to their high concentration of positive charge. If a substituent can contribute some electron density to the carbocation, this positive charge will be “balanced” and the species stabilized. In contrast, electron-withdrawing substituents pull even more electron density away from the carbocation, decreasing its stability further. Since fluorine is destabilizing, and since it is highly electronegative, we can deduce that it must be electron-withdrawing.

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80
Q

What are the units for lift?

A

pN

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81
Q

What is the equation for frictional force?

A

Ff=uFn which is equal to the graviational force pulling something down

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82
Q

“If the radius bone of the forearm can take up to 1150 N of force along its axis before fracturing, which of the following is likely to cause a Colles fracture in a 60 kg man?
A. Falling on an arm that makes a 60° angle with the ground.
B. Falling on an arm that makes a 45° angle with the ground.
C. Falling on an arm that makes a 60° angle with the vertical.
D. Falling on an arm that makes a 45° angle with the vertical.”

A

C

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83
Q
"A patient is asked to throw a dart in order to hit the bullseye in the center of a target 5 m away. If the initial velocity of the dart is 10 m/s at 45° with the horizontal, from a height level with the bullseye, where will the dart hit the target? 
A. 2.5 m below the bullseye 
B. 1.0 m below the bullseye 
C. 0.0 m above the bullseye 
D. 2.5 m above the bullseye"
A

“D
– First we need to find the time it will take the dart to travel the 5 m to the target, then we can find out the height of the dart at that time.
- To do this we need the horizontal velocity.
vx of the dart = v0
cos 45 = 10√2/2 m/s
Time to travel 5 m = (5 m)/(10√2/2) = 1/√2 s
vy of the dart = v0
sin 45 = 10√2/2 m/s
Now we can use one of our kinematics equations to find out the height of the dart at that exact time.
Δy = vyt + ½ at2
Δy = 10√2/2 (1/√2) + ½ (-10)(1/√2)2 = 5 + (-5)(1/2) = 5 – 5/2 = +2.5 m
Thus, the dart will impact the target 2.5 m above the bullseye.”

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84
Q

What is the difference between a scalar and a vector quanitity and what are examples?

A

“1. Scalar - no direction only magnitude

  • length, area, volume
  • Speed, distance
  • Mass, density
  • Pressure, temperature
  • Energy, work, power
    2. Vector - direction plus magnitude
  • Displacement, velocity, acceleration
  • Momentum
  • Force
  • Lift, drag, thrust
  • Weight “
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85
Q
"In a fit of anger, a man unfortunately throws his new phone horizontally out his window with an initial velocity of 16 m/s. If his window is 45 meters high, what horizontal distance will the phone travel before hitting the ground? Assume no air resistance. 
A. 20 m 
B. 45 m 
C. 48 m 
D. 144 m"
A

C

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86
Q

What does it mean when the center of mass translates due to torque

A

moves to a different location, due to rotation

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87
Q
"A medical gurney is on a frictionless inclined plane. If the plane has an incline greater than 0° but less than 90°, the magnitude of acceleration of the gurney down the plane: (Assume that gravitational acceleration has a magnitude of 10 m/ s2.)
A. can be 0 m/s2. 
B. can be any value greater than 0 m/s2.
C. can be greater than 10 m/s2. 
D. must fall between 0 and 10 m/s2."
A

“D is correct.

  • The only force acting parallel to the plane is the relevant component of the gravitational force (the x-component).
  • This force is equal to Fgravsin(θ), or mgsinθ.
  • Since this is the only force that will drag the gurney along the plane, it is also our net force.
  • From Newton’s second law, remember that Fnet = ma. Substituting in our equation yields mgsinθ = ma, or gsinθ = a.”
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88
Q
"A simplified model of a mammalian forelimb is shown below. The forelimb has a uniformlydistributed mass of 2 kg and a length of 30 cm. A downward force of 10 N is exerted at the end of the limb, 30 cm from the point of rotation. What is the magnitude of the upward force that must be exerted 10 cm from the point of rotation to prevent the forelimb from moving? 
A. 3.3 N 
B. 10 N 
C. 30 N 
D. 60 N"
A

“D is correct.
- We have two downward torques: that of the 10-N applied force and that of the weight of the board (20 N), which is exerted at the board’s center of mass, 15 cm from the point of rotation.
τtotal downward = (10 N)(0.3 m)(sin 90°) + (20 N)(0.15 m) (sin 90°)
τtotal downward = 3 N∙m + 3 N∙m = 6 N∙m
- The upward torque, then, must also be equal to 6 N∙m.
- We are told that the upward force is exerted 10 cm from the point of rotation, meaning that we can calculate it as follows:
τ upward = F ∙ d ∙ sin (θ)
6 N∙m = (F)(0.1 m)(sin 90°)
6 N∙m = 0.1F
F = 60 N”

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89
Q

What is homotropic regulation?

A

”- A molecule serves as a substrate for its target enzyme, as well as a regulatory molecule of the enzyme’s activity. O2 is a homotropic allosteric modulator of hemoglobin.
- AKA what gives the sigmoidal shape of oxygen binding curve “

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90
Q

“Fluid pressure changes with depth are assumed to be linear. Which statement best explains why this does not hold true for atmospheric pressure changes?

A. At very high temperatures, air behaves less ideally.
B. The volume of a mass of air is not constant.
C. The majority of molecules in air are nonpolar.
D. Air is not of a uniform composition.”

A

“B is correct. Hydrostatic pressure for liquids is linear because as depth changes, the density of the liquid remains constant. Gases, however, have densities that change according to the forces applied to them. Gases are compressible, while liquids and solids are not.

A: For gases, higher temperatures result in behavior that is more ideal.”

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91
Q

“While the composition of oxygen and nitrogen in air does not change with altitude, the decreasing temperature at high altitude does change the percent of air that is composed of H2O. Assuming constant relative humidity, which of the following can be asserted about the total grams of H2O in a given volume of air at 3000 m above sea level versus at sea level?

A. Assuming constant relative humidity means that air has roughly the same mass of H2O per unit volume at 3000 m above sea level.
B. Whether air at very high altitude has more or less mass of H2O per unit volume than it does at sea level depends on the temperature at high altitude.
C. Air has significantly more mass of H2O per unit volume at 3000 m above sea level.
D. Air has significantly less mass of H2O per unit volume at 3000 m above sea level.”

A

“D is correct. With decreasing temperature, air is able to hold less H2O. Since colder air can hold less total H2O, this means the same relative humidity would result in less total water in the air.

For example, if warm air could hold 100 g of water in a given volume, then 50% relative humidity would be 50 g of water in the air. And if cold air could only hold 40 g of water in the same given volume, then 50% relative humidity would be 20 g of water in the air. So with the same relative humidity, the cold high-altitude air has less mass of water.”

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92
Q

“The complete conversion of three moles of glucose by aerobic fermentation yields how many moles of acetic acid?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6”

A

D

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93
Q

“If a hospital requires at least 250 g of 145Nd to complete a standard cardiac image, how long will it be before it must replace a 2000 g sample if the sample decays to 93% after 100 minutes?

A. 25 minutes
B. 50 minutes
C. 75 minutes
D. 100 minutes

A

“C is correct. The decay of a substance can be calculated by knowing its half-life, the time it takes for half of the original amount to decay. The final paragraph states that about 93% of the decay occurs in the first 100 minutes. This leaves about 7% of the sample left, which would indicate that close to 4 half-lives (0.54 = 0.0625 = 6.25% remaining) have passed at the 100-minute mark. Thus, 1 half-life = 100/4 = 25 minutes. The hospital sample is 2000 g and must be replaced once it reaches 250/2000, or 1/8 of its original radioactivity.

Using the shortcut that the amount remaining = (1/2)n, where n represents the number of half-lives that have passed, we can calculate 1/8 = (1/2)3. Therefore, 3 half-lives will pass before the sample drops below 250 g. At 25 minutes apiece, 25 min (3) = 75 minutes.”

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94
Q

“Which of the following charged particles will be attracted to the particle emitted during the decay of 145Nd?

A. An electron
B. A neutron
C. An anti-neutrino
D. A positron “

A

D

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95
Q

At what pH is spectrophotmetric absorbance greatest?

A

“Smallest pH because spectrophotometric absorbance is used to measure the conc of metal ion remaining in aquesous solution following extraction
- This value is maximized when the extend fo the extraction is minimized “

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96
Q

“In oxidative phosphorylation, what is the final step?

A. O2 is oxidized to produce H2O.
B. NADH is oxidized to form NAD+.
C. H+ is hydrolyzed to form H2O.
D. ADP is phosphorylated to produce ATP.

A

D

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97
Q

“A 50-kg child is riding on a playground merry-go-round. If the radius of the circular path of the merry-go-round is 5.0 m and the frequency is 0.1 hertz, what is the force required to keep the child on the ride?

A. 25 N
B. 100 N
C. 1000 N
D. 2500 N

A

“B is correct. If the frequency of the merry-go-round is 0.1 Hz, then the period is 10 s. We can calculate the speed of the merry-go-round from V = 2πr/T = 2(3.14)(5.0 m)/(10 s) = 3.14 m/s. Using this in the centripetal force equation:

Fc = mv2/r = (50 kg)(3.14 m/s)2/(5.0 m)

Approximate the square of the speed at 10 m2/s2.

Fc = (50)(10)/(5) = 100 N”

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98
Q

What is a suicide inhibitor?

A

”- Suicide inhibition occurs when an enzyme binds the inhibitor (structurally a substrate analogue) and forms an irreversible complex with it, usually through a covalent bond.
- This can involve the inhibitor being chemically modified by the enzyme during the normal course of catalysis to produce a reactive group that is specifically responsible for the formation of the irreversible inhibitor-enzyme complex.”

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99
Q

What is the difference between an imine, amine, amide,

A

“1. Amines are derivatives of NH3

  1. Amides are acid derivatives (or more rarely, anionic amines)
    - (i) the acid derivative, R C ( = O ) N R 2 , or (ii) the conjugate BASES of ammonia, for instance potassium amide, K N H 2 , which is unknown in aqueous solution, but known in liquid ammonia
  2. Imines are nitrogen derivatives of carbonyl compounds.
    - R C ( = N R ‘ ) R , formed by condensation of a carbonyl and an amine:”
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100
Q

What does the pKa correspond to on a titration curve?

A

The half equivalence point on a titration curve

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101
Q

What is the equation for mechanical advantage and what are the ratios sides of a 30-60-90 triangle?

A

“MA = hypotenuse / height

a 30º-60º-90º right triangle, with side ratio of x : x√3 : 2x. Thus:”

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102
Q

“Gurney 1 has a dummy placed on it to give it a total mass of 200 kg, while Gurney 2 is loaded with a dummy that makes it only 50 kg overall. If the ramp has a coefficient of friction of μs, which gurney is more likely to slide down the ramp?
A. Gurney 1, due to the increased force of gravity
B. Gurney 2, due to the reduced force of static friction
C. Gurney 1 and Gurney 2 are equally likely to slide.
D. Neither gurney can slide unless the wheels are unlocked.

A

C is correct. In order for the gurney to slide down the ramp, the force pulling it downward (mgsinƟ) must be greater than the static frictional force (μsFN = μsmgcosƟ). The net force on each gurney is thus Fnet = (mgsinƟ) - (μsmgcosƟ). Since net force is equal to the product of mass and acceleration, we can rewrite this equation as ma = (mgsinƟ) - (μsmgcosƟ), where an acceleration greater than 0 means the gurney will slide down the ramp. The mass of the gurney is present in all terms and can be canceled, meaning that it is not a factor in whether the gurney slides. Thus, both gurneys have an equal likelihood of slipping down the ramp, regardless of the fact that they have different total masses.

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103
Q
"What is the approximate pH of a saturated aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid whose molarity is 10.6 M?
A. -1
B. 1
C. 7
D. 13

A

A is correct. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid and completely dissociates in aqueous solution. In this solution, the hydronium ion concentration is 10.6 M, which can be approximated as 10 M to make the math easier. The pH is the -log of the hydronium ion concentration: -log[10] = -log[101] = -1. While the typical pH range is normally thought of as ranging from 0 to 14, if the concentration of hydronium ion is greater than 1 M, negative pH values are possible. It is also possible to have pH values greater than 14, i.e. if the hydroxide concentration is greater than 1 M.

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104
Q

Which molecules will have the highest Rf value when studied with thin-layer chromatography using a silica plate?

A

”- Silica is highly polar

- Something that is nonpolar will move faster (larger Rf) “

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105
Q

What is the difference between an ester and a ether?

A

“1. Ester - RCOOR’. Esters are made by the reaction between a carboxylic acid with an alcohol.
2. Ester - two alkyl groups, aryl groups, or an alkyl and an aryl group are connected to both side of an oxygen atom(ROR’)”

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106
Q

Which type of synthesis proceeds from the C terminal to the N terminal and which type proceeds from the N terminal to the C terminal?

A

“1. C terminal to N terminal - Solid phase peptide synthesis

2. N terminal to C terminal - Ribosome protein synthesis (more common) “

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107
Q

What are the traits of benzene that make it good for reactions?

A

“1. Inert to acids and bases

  1. aromatic hydrocarbon
  2. very stable “
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108
Q

“An artificial heart valve was tested for its ability to function under extreme conditions, to a maximum flow rate of 4.00 x 10-4 m3/s. What speed would this correspond to for an average red blood cell within a blood vessel of cross-sectional area 5.00 x 10-6 m2?

A. 2.00 x 10-9 m/s
B. 1.25 x 10-2 m/s
C. 4.05 x 10-4 m/s
D. 8.00 x 101 m/s

A

“D is correct. Watch your units! We’re given one number in m3/s and another in m2. To get an answer in the units of m/s, just divide the two numbers in the question:

Speed = (4 x 10-4 m3/s) / (5 x 10-6 m2)
= (4/5) x (10-4/10-6)
= 0.8 x 102 m/s
= 8 x 101 m/s

This can also be solved using the equation flow rate = cross-sectional area x velocity.”

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109
Q

“A man is accidentally exposed to a toxin which binds irreversibly and noncompetitively to pyruvate dehydrogenase. A likely consequence of this ingestion is:

A. a decrease in lactic acid concentration in exposed cells.
B. an increase in the concentration of acetyl-CoA in exposed cells.
C. a decrease in the level of Krebs cycle activity within the exposed cells.
D. an increased rate of formation of NADH in exposed cells.”

A

“C is correct. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that mediates pyruvate decarboxylation. This step is the critical link between anaerobic and aerobic respiration. With this link broken, cells would be limited to anaerobic respiration. Thus, a decrease in aerobic respiration makes sense in this context.

A: Lactic acid is a byproduct of anaerobic respiration. With pyruvate decarboxylation blocked, the cell would likely see an increase in such products.

B, D: Acetyl-CoA and NADH are products of pyruvate decarboxylation. Blocking this enzyme would lower these concentrations.”

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110
Q

“If elements in the same group of the periodic table tend to have similar chemical properties, which of the following is the most likely structure of hydrogen sulfide?

A. Tetrahedral
B. Trigonal planar
C. Pyramidal
D. Bent”

A

“D
- Group 16, directly under oxygen, so the structure of hydrogen sulfide would be similar to that of water: bent. The Lewis dot structure of H2S also predicts a bent structure due to the presence of the two lone electron pairs on the sulfur atom.

A: Neither hydrogen sulfide nor water is tetrahedral. A common example of a tetrahedral molecule is methane (CH4).

B: Trigonal planar molecules have three substituents bound to the central atom, which is not true of hydrogen sulfide. Boron trifluoride (BF3) is a good example of a trigonal planar species.

C: Hydrogen sulfide is not pyramidal. One of the most common examples of a trigonal pyramidal structure on the MCAT is ammonia (NH3).”

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111
Q

“Ritonavir is an antiviral drug that mimics the natural substrate for a key viral protease enzyme. As a competitive inhibitor, ritonavir:

A. decreases the rate of reaction because it decreases the availability of ATP to catalyze the reaction.
B. increases the rate of reaction by altering the tertiary structure of the enzyme.
C. decreases the rate of reaction by binding to the enzyme and altering the structure of its active site.
D. decreases the rate of reaction by binding to the active site.”

A

D is correct. This question is asking us for the definition of a competitive inhibitor, which binds to the active site and blocks the substrate from attaching. The mechanism of a generic competitive inhibitor is depicted below.

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112
Q

How does recrystalization work and what does MP tell you?

A

”- Recrystalization works by having a solvent that makes the product of interest highly soluble in warm temperatures and insoluble in cold.

  • The MP tells you the purity (ie: if its close to what you want its likely more pure)
  • If a compound is always insoluble then it will never dissolve and cannot recrystalize
  • if comppound is always soluble then we cannot reform the desired solid even when we have cooled the solvent “
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113
Q

What is the difference between vacuum distillation, simple distillation, and fractional distillation?

A

“1. Vacuum distillation - used when you have compounds with high BP to help lower the ambient pressure to make them more prone to vaporization

  • AKA temps that are hard to get in lab
    2. Fractional distillation - use when you have compounds with a BP difference less than 50
  • CANNOT be used to separate solvent from solute
  • DO have to repeat to purify
    3. Simple distillation - used when compounds with BP difference GREATER than 50
  • CAN be used to separate solvent from solute
  • DONT have to repeat to purify “
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114
Q

How does IR spectroscopy measure absorbance?

A
  • Absorbance is measured as a function of the incident energy that is absorbed directly into the chemical bonds
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115
Q

What type of analysis would be used to anaylze a small organic ligand binding to its receptor?

A

NMR?

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116
Q

Why is SDS a useful reagent for gel electrophoresis?

A

“I. SDS confers a uniform charge density to all proteins in the sample.
- Long hydrophobic tail
II. SDS is amphipathic, allowing it to denature most globular proteins.”

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117
Q

What environment can cytosolic proteins not unfold in?

A

”- Highly charged environments because they are hydrophobic globular cytosolic proteins
- Would case transmembrane proteins to denature “

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118
Q

What does UV-Vis typically assess for?

A

“The presence of highly conjugated systems

- ie: double bonds or triple bonds “

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119
Q

In gel electrophoresis with SDS PAGE, what do the charged proteins migrate towards and what is their charge?

A

”- Negative charge

- Migrate towards the anode WHICH is (+) in electrophoresis! (cathode is -) “

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120
Q

What are the SI units for length, mass and time?

A

The SI units for length, mass, and time are often described as “MKS units,” or meters, kilograms, and seconds

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121
Q

For a velocity vs time graph, an upward linear slope is indicative of what?

A
  • Shows that the velocity is increasing
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122
Q

“Several manic gorillas are throwing objects from a skyscraper. At the exact same instant, one of the gorillas drops a 15-kg table directly downward, another throws a 20-kg refrigerator horizontally with a velocity of 10 m/s, and a third drops a 1-kg lunchbox straight down. If air resistance can be neglected, which object will hit the ground last?

A. The table, due to its larger mass and negligible initial velocity
B. The refrigerator, due to its substantial horizontal velocity
C. The lunchbox, due to its smaller mass
D. All three objects will reach the ground at the same time. “

A

D is correct. Time in flight does not depend on mass; in other words, if two objects of different masses are simultaneously dropped from the same height, they will hit the ground at the same time. Additionally, though the refrigerator is thrown horizontally while the other two objects are dropped, all projectiles begin with a vertical velocity of zero.

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123
Q

“A slingshot propels a rubber ball horizontally from a platform 30 m off the ground at 15 m/s. Approximately how far from the base of the platform will the ball land?

A. 14 m
B. 21 m
C. 30 m
D. 38 m “

A

“D is correct. Let’s start by listing our known values. The height of the platform, or vertical distance, is 30 m. The initial velocity is 15 m/s, but remember that this is entirely horizontal! The initial vertical velocity is 0 m/s and the gravitational acceleration can be estimated at 10 m/s2.

First, use vertical components and the equation Δx = v0t + ½at2 to find time. 30 m = ½(10 m/s2)(t2) means that t2 = 6, so t ≈ 2.5 (you should know that the square root of 4 is 2 and the square root of 9 is 3; so the square root of 6, which is between 4 and 9 should be between 2 and 3; just estimate that as 2.5).

Next, use horizontal components to find range, which is equal to the product of initial horizontal velocity and time. Range = (15 m/s)(2.5 s) = 37.5 m. That’s closest to choice D.”

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124
Q

What is the equation for finding horizontal distances along a plane?

A

vf2 = vi2 + 2aΔx

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125
Q

“Compared to the moon, Earth is about 100 times more massive and has a radius about four times larger. By what factor is the gravity on Earth greater than that experienced on the surface of the moon?

A. 2
B. 6
C. 16
D. 100 “

A

B is correct. To answer this question, we must remember the equation Fgrav = GMm/r2. Since Earth has a mass that is 100 times that of the moon and a radius that is four times the moon’s radius, it will have an Fgrav that is (100)/(42) = (100/16) times greater. This fraction is closest to 6.

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126
Q

When trying to find the final velocity of an object (mass m) on a ramp (h tall with L length) with friction (uk) what is the equation?

A

The kinetic energy at the end of the track is equal to the initial potential energy (mgh) minus the energy lost to friction. Since that dissipated energy is the same as the work performed by the frictional force, it can be written as µkmgL. In other words, ½ mv2 = mgh – µkmgL.

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127
Q

What are newtons 3 laws?

A

“1st - objects at rest will stay at rest and objects in motion will stay in motion as long as no net force is acting on it
2nd - F=ma
3rd - for every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction “

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128
Q

When solving for the tention in the ropes for objects that are not centered (ie: one rope is longer than the other), which component must be equal and opposite?

A

The horizontal components of the tension force

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129
Q

How do you determine the coefficient of static friction?

A

u = Fgrav/Fnormal

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130
Q

For an object moving in a circle, where is the force pointed and how does this effect the work?

A

”- Always pointed towards the center of the circle

- Velocity vector points at tangent from the circle so angle is 90 which means 0 work is done “

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131
Q

What is the equation for finding weight in a circular path?

A

Mg + Mv2/R (Combo of centripetal force and gravity)

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132
Q

A metal box with a glass bottom slides down a steep incline. The incline can be assumed to be frictionless, and no air resistance acts on the box as it slides. However, a substantial amount of gravitational potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. How are total energy and mechanical energy conserved? (ie: are they both consereved, neither, or only one)

A

”- Total energy and mechanical energy are both conserved.

  • If friction and air resistance do not affect this process, we can assume that all forces involved are conservative. (The fact that gravitational PE is converted to KE is irrelevant, and happens whenever an object falls or slides downwards.) In cases like this, (KE + PE)initial = (KE + PE)final, so mechanical energy is conserved.
  • TOTAL energy is ALWAYS conservered”
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133
Q

The SI unit for power, the watt, is equivalent to one joule/s. This unit can also be written as:

A

(kg∙m2)/s3.

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134
Q

What are the units for Power and how do you calculate the amount of work that is done?

A

J/s and you multiply by the seconds

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135
Q

“Which fundamental law of physics prohibits an engine from having an efficiency that is greater than 100%?

A. The first law of thermodynamics
B. The second law of thermodynamics
C. The theory of special relativity
D. No law; this is just a current obstacle related to modern technology. “

A

A is correct. It is the first law that states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted between forms. In other words, we cannot possibly obtain a larger energy output than was originally supplied. Such a scenario would be required to yield an efficiency of greater than 100%.

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136
Q

What is the equation for work that involves pressure? and what is the conversion for 1L-atm to J?

A

“Work = PdeltaV

- Conversion = 101.325”

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137
Q

How does an objects moment of intertia effect its translational velocity?

A

An object’s moment of inertia contributes to its rotational kinetic energy. Since a higher moment of inertia correlates to a higher rotational KE, it also means that translational KE must be lower, as the sum of these two values must equal the potential energy at the top of the incline. For the sphere, more of its mass is concentrated towards the center than for the hoop.

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138
Q

How does hydrogen bonding effect the boiling point of a liquid?

A
  • Hydroxyl groups can hydrogen bond, thus if there are more present then the hydrogen bonding INCREASES the BP of a liquid
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139
Q

Why woud saponification of a triacylglycerol result in four different fatty acid salts?

A
  • One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and a small percentage isomerized under the reaction conditions.
  • If one of the R groups in the triacylglycerol contained a carbon–carbon double bond and if isomerization of the double bond occurred during the saponification reaction, four fatty acids would be obtained instead of three.
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140
Q

What makes nitrogen very unreactive?

A
  • Its triple bond!

- Not polar (bc N’s are identical)

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141
Q

What is the difference between molecular and empirical formulas?

A
  1. Molecular - actual composition of the molecule (C6H12O6)

2. Empirical - Relative # of atoms of each element it contains (CH2O)

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142
Q

What are the requirements for STP vs sandard conditions?

A
  1. STP = 1atm, 22.4L, 0C

2. Standard conditions = 1 atm, 25C, solutions are 1M

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143
Q

What does the volume of a gas depend on as temperature changes?

A
  • Depends only on the # of moles of gas present, not the identity of the gas
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144
Q

What is the geometry of the hexafluoroaluminate ion (AlF63–)?

A

Octahedral

- An ion consisting of a central metal ion and six ligands is expected to have an octahedral geometry.

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145
Q

What is the difference in arrhenius, bronsted and lewis acid and bases?

A

ACIDS

  1. Arrhenius - H+ in H2O
  2. Bronsted - H+ donor
  3. Lewis - e- acceptor

BASE

  1. Arrhenius - OH in H2O
  2. Bronsted - H+ acceptor
  3. Lewis - e- donor
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146
Q

What is the difference between a galvanic and an electrolytic cell?

A
  1. Galvanic cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy
  2. Electrolytic cell converts electrical energy into chemical energy
    - BOTH - flow from anode to cathode
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147
Q
What do the following reaction types do to an unsaturated fat?
A. Acetylation
B. Hydrogenation
C. Elimination
D. Substitution
A

A. Acetylation - Adds more C-C
B. Hydrogenation - Adds Hydrogen to a C-C multiple bond
C. Elimination- create additional C-C bonds
D. Substitution - Add something in (doesnt change saturation)

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148
Q

How do estrogen and progesterone effect milk production?

A

High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit the production of milk
- Levels drop after birth to help stimulate milk production

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149
Q
What is the function of these enzymes?
A. Pepsin
B. Amylase
C. Hexokinase
D. Lactase
A

A. Pepsin - Hydrolysis (breaking) of peptide bonds to make smaller peptides and AA
B. Amylase- Hydrolysis of starches to sugars (produced by salivary glands and panceas
C. Hexokinase - Phosphorlyation of sugars
D. Lactase - hydrolysis of lactose to glucose and galactose

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150
Q

What structures are disrupted when something is denatured?

A

Secondary, tertiary (and by default quaternary)

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151
Q

When a solution is supersaturated and perturbed what happens?

A

Cyrstalization (precipitate) out of solution

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152
Q

What are the requirements of an aromatic ring?

A
  1. Cyclic
  2. Planar
  3. Conjugated
  4. Obeys Huckel’s rule (# of pi electrons satisfies 4n+2 rule –> n = 0 or any positive integer, n = number of pi electrons)
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153
Q

How does a magnetic field effect velocity and direction of a particle?

A

The magnetic field can only change the direction not the speed (how fast its moving)
- the velocity can change but the speed cannot

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154
Q

What are the requirements for a furan?

A
  • heterocyclic
  • 5 membered aromatic ring
  • 4 carbon atoms and one oxygen
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155
Q

When do substances move into the water layer in extractions and what can make this happen?

A
  • When they become charged
  • Adding base to mixture = deprotonate the strongest acid = it will separate out
  • Adding acid = strongest base
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156
Q

When attempting a substitution, when should you use a nonpolar solvent and when should you use a polar solvent?

A
  • nonpolar solvents are more effective when attempting monosubstitution
  • polar solvents are typically used for polysubstitution.
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157
Q
What are the following made up of?
A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Lactulose
A

A. Lactose - Glucose + galactose
B. Maltose- 2 glucose
C. Sucrose - fructose + glucose
D. Lactulose - Galactose + fructose

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158
Q

What is the difference between fructose and glucose

A

fructose is 5 membered ring with 2 CH2OH and glucose is 6

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159
Q
How is the glucose monomer connected in the following?
A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Lactulose
A
A. Lactose - beta anomer (beta acetal linkage to galactose) 
All others have alpha linkages
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Lactulose
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160
Q

What is a benedicts test?

A
  • test to indicate reducing sugars
  • Reduces all monosaccharides (such as fructose or lactose) and some disaccharides
  • Tests for presence of hemiacetals
  • (AKA + benedicts test = brownish red precipitate)
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161
Q

What makes ketals excellent protecting groups?

A
  • Extremely resistant to Nu attack under basic or neutral conditions
  • This is bc the alkoxide ions constitute relatively poor leaving groups
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162
Q

Testosterone and estrogen, two hormones with roles in the reproductive system, are classified as derivatives of what?

A

Cholesterol

  • All steroid hormones are derivatives of cholesterol
  • In general, steroid hormones can be distinguished from peptides by their suffixes, which tend to be either “-ol,” “-one,” or “-en.”
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163
Q

How do you name a fatty acid?

A
  1. Start numbering carbons at carbonyl
  2. Prefix is from total # of carbons with -oic acid always used as suffix
  3. For unsaturated fatty acids you must say cis or trans
  4. location of double bonds identified using lower #
  5. TRIEN is inserted between prefix and suffix to show the alkenes present
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164
Q

Typically, the dissolution of a lipid in water is highly unfavorable. With this in mind, the entropy change associated with dissolving a phospholipid in aqueous solution is
A. more negative than the entropy associated with dissolving a cholesterol molecule.
B. more positive than the entropy associated with dissolving a cholesterol molecule.
C. more positive than the entropy associated with dissolving inorganic phosphate.
D. more negative than the entropy associated with dissolving a triacylglycerol.

A

B is correct. Phospholipids are amphipathic, meaning that they contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions. For this reason, a phospholipid will interact more favorably with water than will entirely hydrophobic molecules such as cholesterol or triacylglycerols. A positive (or less negative) change in entropy is a hallmark of a more favorable dissolution. In other words, since the solvation of a phospholipid is more favorable than the solvation of a cholesterol molecule, it will have a more positive entropy.

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165
Q

What is the equation for observed angle of rotation?

A

enantiomeric excess = (observed optical rotation * 100) / (specific rotation)

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166
Q

In a unimolecular Nu substitution reaction, how does the solution rotate plane polarized light if it intiially rotated it in a clockwise direction

A
  • Wont rotate at all because in an SN1 reaction, the original stereochemistry of the molecule is lost when the carbocation intermediate (a planar structure) is formed. Thus, the product is present as a racemic mixture. Such a mixture includes each enantiomer in a 1:1 ratio, meaning that it promotes no net rotation of polarized light.
  • If it had been SN2 it would have been opposite
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167
Q

How do you determine the number of stereocenters a molecule will have?

A

2^n

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168
Q

What is the difference between

A. conformational isomers.
B. structural isomers.
C. geometric isomers.
D. enantiomers.

A

A. conformational isomers - based on rotation around a single bond
B. structural isomers - share molecular formula but have different bonding configurations
C. geometric isomers - Presence of double bond or ring
D. enantiomers - stereoisomers with one center changed

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169
Q

What is the difference between epimers and anomers?

A
  1. Epimer - molecules differ at a single stereogenic center, (which is not the anomeric carbon –> typically the alpha carbon)
  2. Anomer - specific type of epimer that differs only at the anomeric carbon (ie: carbon attached to two O’s)
    - Derived from the carbonyl carbon in the sugars straight chain aldehyde or ketone form
170
Q

How would you separate diastereomers vs enantiomers?

A
  1. Diastereomers - use fractional distillation bc of distinct physical and chemical properties (BP, MP, solubility)
  2. Enantiomers - use reaction with chiral reagent to make into diastereomer and then react
171
Q

How do you increase the BP of a compound?

A
  1. Increase molecular weight
  2. Increase intermolecular forces (halogenate = makes more polar)
  3. Decreased branching - increased branching decreases SA available for intermolecular attraction = lower BP
172
Q

What increases the stability of a carbocation in an SN1 reaction?

A
  • more alkyl substitutents bond to the position (ie: tertiary > secondary > primary >methyl)
  • Thus TERTIARY compounds are favored for the reaction (carbocation stability effects more)
  • Unimolecular substitution
  • Polar protic solvent
  • Racemic mixture
  • Want weak Nu: (weak base)
173
Q

What conditions favor an E1 reaction and which conditions favor E2?

A

E1

  • Tertiary reagent
  • Mild or weak base
  • Polar protic solvents
  • Unimolecular

E2

  • Biomolecular
  • Needs strong base
  • LG must be anti to hydrogen
174
Q

What are the favorable conditions for an SN1 and SN2 reaction?

A
  1. SN1
    - Alkyl halide (electrophile) -Tertiary > secondary > primary >methyl
    - Want weak Nu: (weak base) in acidic conditons (sulfuric acid)
    - Unimolecular substitution
    - Polar protic solvent (alcohols)
    - Racemic mixture
    - Biggest barrier –> carbocation stability
  2. SN2
    - Alkyl halide (electrophile) - primary&raquo_space; secondary > tertiary
    - Want strong Nu: (with negative charge)
    - bimolecular substitution
    - Polar aprotic solvent (DMSO, acetone)
    - Inversion
    - Biggest barrier –> steric hinderance
175
Q

Deca-1,3,5-triene contains how many more sigma carbon-carbon bonds than pi bonds?

A. 3 more sigma bonds
B. 6 more sigma bonds
C. 9 more sigma bonds
D. 10 more sigma bonds

A

B is correct. This ten-carbon structure includes nine sigma bonds between carbons, as well as three pi bonds. Remember, double and triple bonds must contain one sigma bond before they “add” bonds made from pi orbitals! Since the question asks for the difference between sigma and pi quantities, the answer is 9 - 3 or 6.

176
Q

How does PCC effect a primary and secondary alcohol? and how would it be named?

A
  • PCC oxidizes a primary alcohol to an aldehyde
  • Aldehyde is given suffix of -al
  • Secondary alcohols react with PCC to make ketones (end in -one)
  • NOTE: can then use K2Cr2O7 to oxidize aldehyde into carboxylic acid
177
Q

How do you increase the pKa of a substance by adding a substitutent?

A
  • AKA make the proton less acidic
  • Looking for electron donating group
  • add electron density to make it more negatively charged and less likely to lose its proton
178
Q

How does CrO3 effect alcohols?

A
  • Strong oxidizing agent
    1. Primary - carboxylic acid
    2. Secondary - ketones
    3. Tertiary - cant?
179
Q

Consider the course of a typical SN1 reaction. The intermediate generated by the rate-limiting step is best described as what?

A

an unstable intermediate with vacant orbitals.

180
Q

What is x-iodide and sodium hydride used for in a reaction?

A
  • Sodium hydride is very strong but not a Nu: base, but it can deprotonate a primary alcohol
  • Then the deprotonated species can act as a Nu and attack the x-I to add it
181
Q

What does a tert-butanol look like?

A

Chicken foot with OH on leg

- Notoriously a weak acid = conj would be a strong base

182
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

I. Acetals cannot form under basic conditions.
II. Hemiacetals and hemiketals exist in equilibrium with aldehydes and ketones.
III. In multistep reactions, acetals and ketals often serve as protecting groups for vulnerable esters.
IV. Ketals contain two –OR groups, while acetals contain only one.

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only

A

B is correct. Statement I is true. Under basic conditions, only hemiacetals can be formed. Acetals, which result from the reaction of a hemiacetal with an alcohol, require acidic conditions. Statement II is also correct, as these species rapidly interconvert.

III: Acetals and ketals serve as protecting groups for aldehydes and ketones, which are more reactive than esters. As comparatively inert groups, esters do not need protection as much as other functionalities.

IV: Both ketals and acetals contain two –OR groups. In contrast, hemiacetals and hemiketals contain only one such group.

183
Q

Where is an alpha hydrogen located?

A

An alpha hydrogen is one that is bound to the carbon immediately adjacent to a carbonyl carbon

184
Q

How does lithium aluminum deuteride effect a compound?

A
  • Basically LAH

- Strong reducing agent that can reduce both carboxylic acids and aldehydes into primary alcohols

185
Q

What is sodium hydroxide and how is it used as a reagent?

A
  • Strong base!
  • Will attack most acidic site (typically tertiary)
  • Makes carboanion
186
Q

Compared to its analogous acyl chloride, a carboxylic acid is considered:
A. more electrophilic due to resonance.
B. more electrophilic due to the inductive effect.
C. less electrophilic due to resonance.
D. less electrophilic due to the inductive effect.

A

C is correct. Both chlorine and oxygen are technically capable of electronic delocalization. However, the resonance structure in which the oxygen atom forms a double bond with the carbonyl carbon is more significant than the corresponding structure in which Cl forms the same double bond. Thus, although both atoms are very electronegative, the dominant resonance contribution is more significant for the oxygen species. The resulting increase in electron density around the carbonyl carbon confers decreased electrophilicity.

187
Q

What is the suffix for an ester and what type of LG is it?

A
  • “-oate”
  • ## Very bad LG bc it creates unstable RO-
188
Q

How is reactivity determined?

A
  • Based on stability –> least stable = most reactive

- Resonance increases stability

189
Q

What is transesterification and what does it involve?

A
  • Conversion of one ester to another
  • Need alcohol bc -OH acts as Nu: and attacks ester carbonyl carbon
  • Replaces previous R group with its own
190
Q

What are the requirements for something to be a carboxylic acid derivative?

A
  • Must be synthesized from carboxylic acid via Nu: acyl substitution
  • Contains a carbonyl group immediately adjacent to a heteroatom (generally EN)
191
Q

Rank F, Cl, Br, and I in order of best to worst LG

A
Best LG (also most reactive) - I > Br > Cl > F 
- Note: this is opposite of stability (F is most stable)
192
Q

What does urea look like and what type of molecule is it?

A
  • H2N-C=O-NH2

- it is an amide

193
Q

How do you identify a cyclic amide and cyclic ester?

A
  1. Cyclic amide = “lactam”

2. Cyclic ester = “lactone”

194
Q

When a cyanide reacts with an aldehyde what does it form?

A
  • Cyanohydrin
  • The carbon (not nitrogen) atom attacks as a Nu: to attack carbonyl carbon
  • final cyanohydrin product consists of the former carbonyl carbon bound to -OH, -H, the original -R group from the aldehyde, and -C≡N.
195
Q

When you mix an acyl halide with an amine what product do you get?

A
  • Get an amide product
196
Q

What is the differerence between exergonic and exothermic?

A
  1. Exergonic - a reaction is spontaneous ΔG < 0 (shown when -change in energy)
  2. Exothermic - energy is released to surroundings
197
Q

What determines which compound will have the largest enthalpy of vaporization?

A
  • Magnitude of the enthalpy of vaporization (ΔHv) is related to the strength of intermolecular forces holding molecules together in the liquid phase
  • AKA stronger IMF = larger ΔHv
198
Q
Which of the following is a strong acid?
A. Hydrofluoric acid
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Hydrobromic acid
D. Hydroiodic acid
A
  • All EXCEPT HF

- HF is a weak acid that will only partially dissociate

199
Q

How can you tell if reagents are in equilibrium given a concentration vs time graph?

A
  • IF the graph is flat

- Where they cross doesnt mean anyhting?

200
Q

What does the presence of ice crystal formation indicate about a reaction in terms of its heat energy?

A
  • Shows that it is an endothermic reaction
201
Q

What are the 5 gas laws?

A
  1. Boyles PV=PV P inversely related to V
  2. Charles V/T=V/T V directly proportional to T
  3. Gay- lussac’s P/T P directly proportional to T
  4. Combined PV/T = PV/T
  5. Ideal gas law - PV=nRT
202
Q

A sealed iron vessel holds four gases: 2.25 mol ammonia, 1.25 mol argon, 0.5 mol oxygen, and 2 mol nitrogen. If the partial pressure of N2 is 300 mmHg, what is the total pressure in the vessel?

A. 450 mmHg
B. 900 mmHg
C. 1800 mmHg
D. 3600 mmHg

A

B is correct. Dalton’s law states that the total pressure in a vessel is the sum of the partial pressures of the components. Moreover, the partial pressure of a gas is proportional to its mole fraction in the container. We can quickly find the total number of moles in the flask, which is 2.25 + 1.25 + 0.5 + 2 = 6 moles. Since exactly one-third of this is nitrogen, the total pressure is 3*300 mmHg, or 900 mmHg.

203
Q

How do you find the latent heat of vaporization?

A
  • Find energy diff needed on plateau and divide it by the grams of substance
  • units are kJ/kg typically
204
Q

When does a liquid boil? and how does adding a nonvolatile solute effect the BP?

A
  • When its vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure (1 atm = 760 mmHg)
  • Adding nonvolatile solute should increase BP
205
Q

How can you calculate freezing point depression?

A

ΔTf = Kfmi, where Kf is a constant, m is molality, and i is the Van’t Hoff factor, or number of dissolved particles per molecule
- NOTE: addition of solute decreases freezing point (opposite for BP - would increase it)

206
Q

How does BP, MP, and VP change as you add substances to water?

A

boiling point will increase, melting point (freezing point depression) will decrease, and vapor pressure will decrease.

207
Q

A foam life raft has a density of 491 kg/m3. When placed in a pool of pure water, what percentage of the raft’s volume will be above the surface of the liquid?

A. 4.91%
B. 49.1%
C. 50.9%
D. None; the raft will be entirely submerged.

A

C is correct. To find the fraction of the raft that is underwater, we can use its specific gravity, or the ratio of its density to that of water. Since pure water has a density of 1000 kg/m3, this raft’s specific gravity is 0.491. From this, we already know that 49.1% of the object will fall beneath the surface, but this question asks for the amount that sticks out above the water. 100% - 49.1% = 50.9%.

208
Q

What is the density of water?

A

1 g/cm3, 1 g/mL, or 1 kg/L

- 1000g/L also works or 1000kg/m3

209
Q

How do you find gauge pressure? how do you find absolute pressure?

A

Gauge pressure (P) = densitygy

  • Absolute pressure = gauge + atmospheric pressure
  • Convert 101,500pa = 1atm
210
Q

What is the difference between adhesive and cohesive forces and how can you tell when something is more attracted to glass?

A
  1. Adhesive = attractive forces between different particles
  2. Cohesive = attractive forces between like particles
    - If meniscus is concave –> then fluid particles are more attracted to the glass sides of the tube than each other (adhesive stronger than cohesive)
211
Q

How do Bernoulli’s equation and the contiunity equation relate to compression and viscosity for an idea fluid?

A
  1. Bernoulli’s - Conservation of energy for fluids
    - Viscosity effects it more (friction)
  2. Continuity - A1v1=A2v2
    - Compressibility effects it more (volume flow rate)
212
Q

How do you find the velocity of a liquid leaving a tank?

A

v=squareroot(2gh)

213
Q

If a fluid moves more rapidly through vessel A than vessel B at the same height, what does that mean about the pressure between the two?

A

Pressure in A must be smaller than Pressure in B

214
Q

How do you convert volume to cubic meters?

A

cm3 = 10^-6 m^3

215
Q

how do you find the Keq for a reaction?

A

Sum (multiple) all reactions together that the whole reaction contains

216
Q

How do you find heat of formation if you have enthalpy of formation?

A
  • change in H = gas- liquid if you get it wrong, know vaporization is an endothermic process so it must be +
217
Q

if resistance decreases how does that effect power if the voltage is constant?

A
  • Power will increase as R decreases

- P=V^2/R

218
Q

What is poiseuille’s law?

A

Q= piPr^4/8nl

  • Q = flow rate
  • P = Pressure
  • l = length
  • r = radius
219
Q

what is the equation for root mean squared?

A

Vrms = squareroot (3RT/M)

- M = molar mass

220
Q

What is hooks law and what is the PE for a spring?

A

The spring constant of the rope can be determined by using Hooke’s law (F = -kx).
- PEspring = ½ kx2

221
Q

If something drops by 67% and you want to find 21% of that, what do you need to multiple the original # (X) by?

A

X (0.33) = remaining

- Then mutliple remaining X by 0.21

222
Q

Why would you add an acid catalyst in esterification?

A

The hydrogen ion protonates the carbonyl oxygen, making the carbonyl carbon more susceptible to nucleophilic attack by the alcohol.

223
Q

When does pKa = pH?

A

at the half equivalence point!

224
Q

What is the Henderson Hasselbach equation?

A

pH = pKa + log([A-]/[HA])

225
Q

For a thermodynamic mixture of isomeric products what does the mole ratio tell you?

A
  • Mole ratio of products tells you the relative stability of these products
226
Q

How do you find charge and energy a capacitor will store?

A

Capacitor charge x Voltage of battery = Charge (C)

(1/2)capacitor charge x (Voltage of bat)^2) = J

227
Q

What does the heat of combustion tell you?

A

The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compound

228
Q

What is the equation between Kb, Ka, and Kw?

A

Kw = KaxKb

- given Kw is 1.0 x 10^-14 at 25C

229
Q

How do you find the activation energy of a reaction?

A

the activated complex minus the energy of the reactants.

230
Q

How do you determine a period of a graph?

A

The shortest distance between repetition (ie: peaks)

- can also just say, how long does it take for the pattern to repeat

231
Q

What is the formula for photon energy yield?

A

E = hc/λ = 6.6 × 10-34 J × (3 × 108 m/s)/(wavelength)

232
Q

What does an oxidoreductase enzyme catalyze?

A

enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of electrons from one molecule, the reductant
- Usually needs NADP or NAD+ or FAD

233
Q

If 0.67 μmol of electrons were measured, what mass of glucose was present in the sample if it is a 2 electron oxidation(Note: The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol = 180 μg/μmol.)

A

2 mol e– per mole of glucose consumed. The device measured 0.67 (2/3) μmol of electrons, indicating that 0.33 (1/3) μmol of glucose was consumed. This weighs 60 μg, based on its molar mass of 180 g/mol.

234
Q

What type of cofactor is FAD?

A

Cofactor oxidant! (need it for oxidizing agents)

235
Q

What is the characteristic structure of a steroid?

A
  • 4 fused rings!
236
Q

How do you adjust the pH of a buffer solution?

A

Need to change the proportion of acidic buffer and basic!

  • To decrease pH, increase the acidic buffer component
  • To increase pH, increase the basic buffer component
237
Q

What is released during peptide bond formaton and what is its amu?

A
  • Water is released!

- 18 amu (Sum of atomic masses)

238
Q

Which experimental condition is NOT necessary to achieve reliable data for Michaelis–Menten enzyme kinetics?
A. Initial velocity is measured under steady state conditions.
B. Solution pH remains constant at all substrate concentrations.
C. The concentration of enzyme is lower than that of substrate.
D. The reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium before measurements are taken.

A

D because once the reaction reaches equilibrium, measurement of Vo will be impossible and the kinetic data will look the same regardless of substrate concentration

239
Q

What is acetylation?

A

The addition of RC=O

240
Q

What is a ring substitutent?

A
  • It means the group on the ring not th ring itself
241
Q

How do you determine which atom is most likely involved in a coordination?

A
  • if + ions(cation) then you need a lewis base (- charged)

- if - ions (anion) then you need a lewis acid (+ charge)

242
Q

What does a porphyrin look like?

A
  • Basic pyrrole ring (5 sided heterocycle containing one nitrogen)
243
Q

What property of a wave remains unchanged as it passes between mediums?

A

Frequency!

244
Q

How do you relate speed of sound and wavelength?

A

wavelength = speed of sound/frequency

245
Q

What are the names of the groups in the periodic table?

A
Group 1 - Alkali metals
Group 2 - Alkaline earth metals
Group 3/d block - Transition metals 
Group 18- Noble gases
Metaolids - B,Si, Ge, As, Sb, Te
Other non metals
246
Q

How do you determine molar mass of a compound?

A

Molarity x 1/density

247
Q

What does the Ksp tell you about a substance and how can you use it to compare the solubility of things and how do you increase or decrease the value?

A
  • Solubility constant
  • If one Ksp is smaller than the other, then the substance (with smaller Ksp) will not precipitate
  • Only rseponds to temp changes! (decrease temp = decrease Ksp)
248
Q

How are molar solubility and Ksp related?

A

Ksp = (x)^y(x)^z depending on the compounds

249
Q

If the Ka for Ka for Acid A is greater than the Ka for Acid B, the pKb of Acid A’s conjugate base will be ______ compared to the pKb of Acid B’s conjugate.

A

Greater!
- If Acid A has a larger Ka than Acid B, Acid A must be more strongly acidic. A comparatively stronger acid will always have a comparatively weaker conjugate base, or one with a larger pKb.

250
Q

The higher the pKa value the ____ the acid and the ___ the Ka, and the ____ the Kb

A

The higher the pKa value the weaker the acid and the smaller the Ka and the larger the Kb

251
Q

How can you tell with a species is in its most protonated or deprotonated state based off of a titration curve?

A

Where ever the pH is lowest you have the fewest Hydrogen ions = most protonated

252
Q

List these four species in order of increasing pH, assuming that each is present in 0.10 M aqueous solution: H3PO4, H2PO4-, HClO4, PO43-.

A

HClO4 < H3PO4 < H2PO4- < PO43-

  • Don’t miss the inclusion of perchloric acid in the midst of three phosphorus-containing examples!
  • HClO4 is a strong acid and thus has the lowest pH in solution of all four choices (assuming, of course, that starting concentrations are equal).
  • Next, H3PO4 is a triprotic acid with a fairly stable conjugate base, although phosphoric acid certainly is not strong.
  • Subsequent deprotonation yields stronger and stronger conjugate bases, making PO43- the most basic of the listed species.
  • This tendency is very normal; intact polyprotic acids are always more acidic than their deprotonated conjugates.
253
Q

The auto-ionization of water is an endothermic process. With this in mind, if the temperature of a beaker of pure water is increased:

A. the water will become acidic.
B. the pH of the water will decrease.
C. Kw will remain unchanged.
D. the pOH of the water will increase.

A

B is correct. Think of auto-ionization in terms of equilibrium: heat + 2 H2O → H3O+ + OH-. The reaction will thus shift toward the product side in response to increased temperature. Interestingly, both [H+] and [OH-] will rise as a result, decreasing the pH and pOH to the same extent.

254
Q

What forms an ideal buffer?

A
  • Equimolar amounts of a weak acid and its conjugate
255
Q

What characteristic does NOT change when a ray of light moves from one medium to the other?

A

Frequency!
- frequency always remains constant. Remember, the energy of a photon is given by E = hf. Since no energy is lost as a direct result of the transition between media, the frequency of this wave must remain at its previous value.

256
Q

Sin and Cos are how many degrees out of phase with each other?

A

90!

257
Q

What does the doppler effect rely on to be detected/measured?

A
  • One object is moving relative to another, if something is being held (right angel) still then you block the ability to detect
258
Q

How do you find the distance of a constructive wavelength?

A

(period)(velocity of wave) = distance represents a 360 phase gap

259
Q

What is the equation for an open pipe?

A

λ = 2L/n, where n= harmonic #

260
Q

A normal conversation can be measured at around 50 dB. If I0 = 10-12 W/m2, the intensity of the sound coming from such a conversation is:

A. 10-12 W/m2.
B. 10-7 W/m2.
C. 10-5 W/m2.
D. 50 W/m2.

A

B is correct.
- Using the equation dB = 10 log(I/I0) , we can plug in the variables that are given
- This yields 50 dB = 10 log(1/10^-12W/m2) .
- Dividing both sides by 10 quickly simplifies this equation to 5 = log(1/10^-12W/m2) . or 10^5 = .
Multiplying both sides by I0 gives us I = 10^-7.

261
Q

How do you determine how loud something is perceived if they are moving in the same direction at different speeds?

A

f’ = f (vsound ∓ vreceiver / vsound ∓ vsource).

  • objects are moving CLOSER together overall, the perceived frequency of sound should increase
  • Can also do relative velocity + total/ total
262
Q

What is the difference between a longitudinal wave and a transverse wave?

A
  1. Longitudinal - oscillation is foward and backwards in amplitude while its overall direction of propagation is forward
    - the amplitude of oscillation is parallel to the direction of the wave’s motion
    - Looks liek a coil or spring or little black bars
  2. Transverse wave - amplitude perpendicular to its overall direction
    - Looks like normal sin wave
263
Q

How is light effected when it goes through a polarizing filter?

A
  • Typically unpolarized light intensity will be cut in half
  • if it goes through a second that is oriented the same way it does not change
  • if the second filter is turned 90degrees then it blocks 100% of the light and the new intensity is 0
264
Q

What is the ranking for light on the electromagnetic spectrum?

A
LOWEST E, LOWEST f, LONGEST wavelength
1. Radio wave
2. Microwaves
3. Infrared waves 
4. Visible light (ROYGBIV)
5. UV light
6. X rays
7. Gamma rays
HIGHEST E, HIGHEST f, SHORTEST wavelength
265
Q

When looking at bright regions on an optical screen, the difference between wavelengths from slits is determined by what?

A

Since the area described is a bright region on the optical screen, it must result from constructive interference. This tells you that the two waves involved must be completely in phase, or differ by exact multiples of a wavelength.

266
Q

When light travels from a medium of lower to higher index, how does this effect the angle of refraction and speed of the light?

A
  • Ray will bend towards the normal
  • Angle of refraction will be smaller
  • lower n = moves faster through that medium
267
Q

When does total internal reflection occur?

A
  1. Light traveling from HIGH n to LOW n

2. Angle of incidence must be relatively large

268
Q

For a lense, what constitutes a real image?

A

Image on opposite side of object

269
Q

To fix myopia what type of lens should you use?

A

Concave with a negative focal length

- This is nearsightedness

270
Q

Does a more negative # mean a better or worse oxidizing potential?

A

More negative oxidation potential = worst reducing agent = more likely to reduce

271
Q

When working with electrolytic cells, what type of reaction is nonspontaneous and which type is spontaneous?

A
  1. Nonspontaneous = (-) overall Ecell

2. Spontaneous = (+) overall Ecell

272
Q

What is the difference between an electrolytic cell and a galvanic cell?

A
  1. Electrolyic - Cell converts electrical energy into chemical energy
    - reduction takes place at the right electrode = cathode (-)
    - Oxidation takes place at the left electrode = anode (+)
  2. Galvanic - cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
    - reduction take place at the left electrode = cathode (+)
    - Oxidation takes place at the right electrode = anode (-)
273
Q

What does an ammeter measure and what does a voltmeter measure?

A
  1. Ammeter- measures currently directly

2. Voltmeter - measures potential (indirectly measures current)

274
Q

Where do electric field lines point from a positive ion?

A
  • Point away!
275
Q

Which visible light color has the lowest velocity?

A

Blue!

  • blue light is refracted the most
  • n = c/v,
276
Q

What is the equation for coulombs law?

A

F = k (Qq/r^2)

k = 1/4piE

277
Q

What is the definition of an eV?

A
  • Electron-volt

- Amount of energy needed to move one electron (or any particle with an elementary charge) through a one-volt potential.

278
Q

How do voltage and current act for resistors in parallel and in series?

A
  1. Parallel - voltage across is same, current is different if resistors are diff
  2. Series - current is same, voltage is different
279
Q

How much charge is held by an ion?

A

1.6x10^-19C/ion

280
Q

What must a particle posess in order to be affected by a magnetic field?

A
  1. Velocity

2. Charge

281
Q

How does the right hand rule change with (-) charges?

A
  • Typically you just have fingers as force, but must switch final direction for negative charges (ie; if ts pointing into the page it would have to point out)
282
Q

What is the equation for force of magnetic field?

A

F=qvB

283
Q

A circular segment of gold wire is positioned in an external magnetic field of strength B that points out of the page. If the strength of the field is increased to 2B, what will happen to the wire?

A. It will experience a clockwise current.
B. It will experience a counterclockwise current.
C. It will generate a magnetic field that also points out of the page.
D. It will remain unchanged.

A

A is correct. This scenario relates to electromagnetic induction and to Lenz’s law. This law, which brings to mind conservation of energy and even Le Châtelier’s principle, states that a change to a magnetic field will always generate a current that counteracts that change. Here, the external field is becoming stronger, or more heavily positioned out of the page. To resist this change, it will induce a current that promotes a field pointing the opposite direction, into the page. The right-hand rule tells us that this current must travel clockwise.

284
Q

How do you transfer heat from a cold to a hot solution?

A
  • Work done TO the system will allow heat transfer (typically only hot to cold, but work allows you to go backwards)
  • Like rolling ball up a hill
285
Q

What is the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at -273C?

A

According to the third law of thermodynamics, the entropy of a pure, crystalline substance at 0 K is zero. This is known as absolute zero.

286
Q

How do you measure catalytic efficiency?

A

Kcat/Km so highest for the smallest Km and largest Kcat

287
Q

What is the structure of galactose?

A

5 carbon - 6 member ring (switched orientation of glucose)

288
Q

When NADH is converted to NAD+ is it oxidized or reduced?

A

Oxidized!

289
Q

What happens to pulmonary surfactant in the alveolar interface and when there is an underproduction of pumonary surfactant in IRDS and how does that effect cause decreased compliance in the airway?

A

Its adsorption to the water-alveolar interface decreases surface tension, decreasing the pressure difference required to inflate the airway.

290
Q

if a hydrophobic solute-solute interaction is spontaneous, and that ΔH and ΔG have opposite signs. Which of the following must be true for this interaction when temperature is a positive value?

A

v”I. ΔH > ΔG

II. 0 < ΔS”

291
Q

The high-energy radiation produced by the γ rays has sufficient energy to do what?

A

“I. generate free radicals.
II. excite electrons to higher energy levels.
III. eject electrons from molecular orbitals.”

292
Q

Free radicals from ionizing radiation are highly unstable and have carcinogenic effects. These effects are most likely result from damage to what structure?

A

Nucleic acids

293
Q

The _____ an electron is to the nucleus the ____ it is to eject. This orbital contains the electrons that are hardest to eject _____.

A

The closer an electron is to the nucleus, the harder it is to eject. Because sp-hybridized orbitals have the most s character of all of the answer choices, they contain the electrons that are hardest to eject.

294
Q

“A person pushes horizontally on a 50-kg crate, causing it to accelerate from rest and slide across the surface. If the push causes the crate to accelerate at 2.0 m/s2, what is the velocity of the crate after the person has pushed the crate a distance of 6 meters?

A. 1 m/s
B. 2 m/s
C. 3 m/s
D. 5 m/s”

A

“D is correct. Since the crate is initially at rest, the Vi = 0 m/s, the acceleration a = 2.0 m/s2, and the displacement = 6 m. The appropriate kinematic equation is vf2 = vi2 + 2ad. Substituting the variables gives:

vf2 = 02 + 2(2)(6)
vf2 = 24
vf = ~5 m/s"
295
Q
"What is the approximate mass of:
A. Alpha particle
B. Beta Particle
C. Positron
D. Gamma Particle "
A

“A: An alpha particle consists of two protons and two neutrons, having a mass of 4 amu.
B: A beta particle is the nuclear equivalent of an electron, which has a mass of approximately 1/1800 of a proton.
C: A positron is the antiparticle of an electron and has its same mass
D: A gamma particle is a photon of electromagnetic energy, which does not have mass.”

296
Q

What type of compound is likely to undergo an SN1 reaction?

A

“1. Reaction is sterically hindered (3)

  1. Has two steps and wants good leaving group bc it leaves behind an unstable crbocation
  2. carbocation is planar and lacks stereochemistry so you get a racemic mix “
297
Q

In order to emit a photon an electron must go from a ____ to a ____ energy level

A

Higher to lower

298
Q

What does phosphorous acid vs phosphoric acid look like?

A

”- H3PO3

- H3PO4”

299
Q

When does hydration or solvation occur?

A
  • When attractive forces of an ion molecule causes a thin shell of water molecules to surround it
300
Q

If one substances Ksp is very large compared to another what does that tell you?

A

Then the larger Ksp indicates that it is more soluble

301
Q

“A 60-kg runner raises his center of mass approximately 0.5 m with each step. Although his leg muscles act as a spring, recapturing the energy each time his feet touch down, there’s an average 10% loss with each compression. What must the runner’s additional power output be to account for just this loss, if he averages 0.8 s per stride?

A. 0 W
B. 37 W
C. 46 W
D. 331 W
"
A

“B is correct. This is a multi-step question, though each step is relatively straightforward. The gravitational potential energy at the runner’s height is:

PE = (60 kg)(10 m/s2)(0.5 m) = 300 J

Most of this energy is conserved as the runner hits the ground and his muscles capture the energy as spring potential energy, so the question only asks about the lost energy, amounting to 10%, or 30 J. Don’t worry about the mechanics of which foot lands first and how much of the kinetic energy each one absorbs. The question stem doesn’t give that kind of information, so there’s nothing for it anyway.

So, an additional 30 J is needed per stride, and a stride occurs every 0.8 s. Thus:
P = (30 J)/(0.8 s) = 40 W

This is between answer choices B and C. So is it really 40 W? Well, no, 8 goes into 30 less than 4 times, so the answer should be lower. Also, g is closer to 9.8 than 10, so that also caused the value of energy, used in the power calculation, to be overestimated. 37 W, then, must be the match.”

302
Q

What is the equation for spring constant?

A

PE or KE= (1/2)kx^2

303
Q

What is charles law?

A

V/T = V/T

304
Q

Why is arginine more basic than lysine?

A

The electron-donating groups around the basic nitrogen on arginine make its conjugate acid more stable.

305
Q

“If a flat Petri dish containing a single layer of cells suspended in viscous culture medium is tapped, some cells will collide into each other. If cell 1 collides into cell 2 on such a plate, which of the following describes what happens to cell 2 after the collision, assuming an elastic collision and non-zero drag from the medium?

I. Cell 2 continuously accelerates.
II. Cell 2 moves with decreasing speed.
III. Cell 2 moves with constant speed.
IV. Cell 2 decelerates until it reaches a velocity of 0 m/s.

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and IV only”

A

D is correct. Cell 2 can only accelerate while it is being pushed/in contact with cell 1, so statement I is false. Since the cells experience drag from the medium, cell 2 will decelerate after the collision, making statement II correct and statement III incorrect. The drag will cause cell 2 to continuously decelerate until it comes to rest.

306
Q

What does the focal length of the mirror depend on?

A

The radius of the curvature

307
Q

The radius of the curvature

A

Each light ray will refract at each surface of the lens and will increasingly diverge from the others because of the shape of each surface, so only diverging rays can result

308
Q

Why does visible light travel more slowly through an optically dense medium than through a vacuum?

A

is absorbed and re-emitted by the atomic structure of the optically dense medium.

309
Q

When the index of refraction changes how does that effect the image? How does changing the distance and hole size effect the image?

A

“1. shifts its location

  1. Distance = smaller (closer) or larger (further) dot (more fuzzy if further)
  2. Pin hole size = clarity = smaller = sharper = changes focal length”
310
Q
"What is the approximate number of wavelengths of light that can travel in 1 direction within a retroreflecting bead that has a diameter of 5 × 10–5 m? (Note: The speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s, and its frequency is approximately 1015Hz.) 
A. 0.6 
B. 1.7 × 102 
C. 1.5 × 104 
D. 3.3 × 106"
A

”- must determine how many wavelengths will fit within the width of a bead, because there is one wavelength, λ of spatial length per wave.

  • The item gives the speed of light to be v = 3.0 × 108 m/s and the frequency to be f = 1015 Hz.
  • The wavelength λ of the light may be found from the relationship for wave speed v = λf, thus, λ= v/f = (3.0 × 108 m/s)/( 1015 Hz) = 3.0 × 10–7 m.
  • The number of waves that will fit along a diameter is found by dividing this wavelength into the diameter D = 5.0 × 10–5 m, so the number of waves is D/λ =(5.0 × 10–5 m)/( 3.0 × 10-7 m) = 1.7 × 102. Thus, B is the best answer”
311
Q

Salts increase the melting temperature of DNA due to the presence of positive ions in solution. Which is the most likely mechanism by which this stabilization occurs?

A

Interaction with phosphate groups

312
Q

What is an ionic bond and what is a covalent bond between?

A

“1. ionic bond is a type of chemical bond formed through an electrostatic attraction between two oppositely charged ions. Ionic bonds are formed between a cation, which is usually a metal, and an anion, which is usually a nonmetal.
2. A covalent bond involves a pair of electrons being shared between atoms.”

313
Q

When two hydrogen atoms are moved closer together how does this effect their PE?

A

”- Initially at baseline

  • Drops as they reach minimum at ideal bond length
  • Continue to move closer = repel each other and bring PE back above baseline “
314
Q

What is an sp3 hybridized carbon?

A
  • Carbon that is bound to four substituents with no double bonds
315
Q

What type of molecular geometry does SO4^2- have?

A

“Tetrahedral!

- sulfur has four bonding groups and no lone pairs “

316
Q

What is the difference between trigonal planar and trigonal pyramidal?

A

“1. Trigonal planar - Tertiary carbon has three bonding groups and no lone pairs
2.Trigonal pyramidal has three substituents and a lone pair “

317
Q

What are the three forms of hydrogen?

A

“1. Protium
2. Deuterium
3 Tritium “

318
Q

What does the bohr model of an atom describe?

A
  • Atom contains a positively charged nucleus surrounded by electrons that orbit the nucleus in defined paths, similar to planetary bodies that circle the sun
319
Q

How do you find quantum numbers for an element (use nitrogen as example)

A

”- First find n = principle energy shell

  • Find l = (s=1,p=2,d=3, f=4)
  • Find m (can vary) “
320
Q

What is the difference between diamagnetic and paramagnetic?

A

“1. Diamagnetic - Contains no unpaired electrons (fully filled orbitals)
2. Paramagnetic - Contain at least one unpaired electorn “

321
Q

How do you find the effective nuclear charge of an element?

A

effective nuclear charge = # of protons (aka nuclear charge) - # of electrons in all shells preceeding the one in question

322
Q

What are the ground states (ie: ending states) for ultraviolet light( Lyman series), visible rays (Balmer series), and infrared light (Paschen series)?

A

“1. ultraviolet –> n = 1

  1. Visible –> n = 2
  2. Infrared –> n = 3”
323
Q

What is the effective nuclear charge of selenium if it only has 4 electrons in its outter most shell (n=4)?

A

“6!

  • Selenium has an atomic number of 42, the atom is oxidized so it would have 6 electrons but instead has 4
  • The diagram includes 32 electrons because (2,8,18,4) for each of the shells. Since they are asking for n=4 then 34-28= 6”
324
Q

How many molecules of product form when 5 molecules of barium nitrate completely react with 5 molecules of sulfuric acid? Ba(NO3)2 + H2SO4 –> BaSO4 + HNO3

A

”- MUST BALANCE: Ba(NO3)2 + H2SO4 –> BaSO4 + 2HNO3

- so for every mole of Ba(NO3)2 you get 3 total moles of product and so you have 15 moles of product “

325
Q

An unknown organic compound weighing 1980 mg is fully combusted at high pressure, yielding 900 mh of carbon dioxide and 360 mg of water. What is the empirical formula?

A

“1. Find the equation for combustion
2. Find moles - 900/44 mg/mmol = 18 mmol
3. Need to get hydrogen from hydrocarbon 360/18 = 20 mmol
- dont need limiting because were looking at reactants not products
4. take mmol # and multiply by the number of atoms there for each substance
C:18:36, H=40 and O = 20
5. put ratio in least terms (CHO = 18, 40, 36)
- always small error bc burning isnt perfect 20:40:60 ~100 but you dont have to do oxygen always –> see if it eliminates the other answers! “

326
Q

How do you find % composition of an element?

A

”- take mole fraction and multiply it by 100 moles (assume total bc its easiest unless given)

  • Find the mass of each by multiplying the moles by the respective molar masses
  • Use masses to find total mass and divide mass of individual piece by total”
327
Q

What is the % composition by mass of nitrogen in glutamine (C5H10N2O3)?

A

mass of nitrogen/ mass of glutamine (28/146)x100 ~19%

328
Q

What does a negative flat velocity tell you?

A

Tells us that the object is moving backwards and the flat slope means that it is not accerlerating

329
Q

A planet is orbiting a distant sun with a belocity of 200m/s. if the orbit has a radius of 160 km, after how many minutes will the planet be in the same position in which it started?

A

“83 Minutes!

  • Orbits radius = 160 so diameter = 320pi ~1000
  • 200m/s can be coverted to 0.2km/s
  • 1000/0.2 = 5000 seconds, which is about 83 minutes”
330
Q

A 7.5 kg box starts at rest and is pushed along the ground with a constant force of 150N. Assuming that no friction is present, how far has it traveled when its velocity reaches 40m/s?

A
"40m! 
F=ma to find acceleration (150N =(7.5)a) = 20
- Then plug in to v^2 = v^2 + 2ad 
40 = 0 + 2(20)(d)
d = 40m"
331
Q

A lemming runs directly off a 20m cliff at 10m/s. How far from the base of the cliff will he land?

A

“20m!

  • Vi = 10m/s but that is horizontal, Vi vertical = 0
  • So acceleration = 10
  • Use x = vt + 1/2at^2 –> 20 = 0 + (1/2)(10)(t^2)
  • t = 2
  • Then 10m/s*2 = 20 m”
332
Q

Jake throws a baseball horizontally at 10m/s off of a 30m platform. Phil simultaneously drops a different baseball from 60 m platform on the other side of a field. How far will phil’s ball have fallen at teh instant when jakes ball hits the ground?

A

30 meters because the horixontal component of velocity does not matter so jake and phils baseball will fall at teh same rate. When jakes hits it has fallen 30 so so much phils

333
Q

An object is in a uniform gravitational field. Which type of energy is conserved as the object falls? (ignore friction and air resistance)

A

total energy! (not KE, or PE, or momentum)

334
Q

what is the equation for the force of gravity?

A

Fgrav = Gm1m2/r^2

335
Q

What is the equation for friction?

A

Ff=umgL

336
Q

In order to keep something in place on a rank what must be true about the coefficient of friction? and what kind does it have to be?

A

Static! must be at least the the minimum of Fs = usFn

337
Q

At what point during a perfectly circular rollarcoaster descent is the force of the kinectic friction greatest?

A

“Kinetic friction is dependent only on the coefficient of friction and the normal force and does not take belocity into account

  • The normal force is constant throughout the descent, foas the path of the coaster is linear
  • Force of friction remains constant throughout “
338
Q

What are the units for impulse and what is the impulse equation?

A

“kg*m/s

J = force x Time”

339
Q

A cart of mass m must travel along a looped circular track without falling off at the top of the loop. In order for this condition to be met, what must be the minimum centripetal and normal forces just as the cart passes along the top of the loop?

A

“Fc = mg and Fn = 0
- When the cart reaches the top fo the loop, it must have a centripetal force pushing radially outward with a magnitude equal to the force of gravity to keep it from falling. at this point eh cart will not be pushing against the track. therefore, the centripetal force will equal the gravitational force (mg) while the normal force will be 0 “

340
Q

What is the equation for centripetal force?

A

Fc=mv/r^2

341
Q

A molecular motor is capable of generating a torque of 40 pN-nm. if the amount of energy contained in 1 ATP molecule is 100 pN-nm, how many revolutions could the motor make using 4 ATP.

A

“E=torquexangle

  • 400pN-nm equal to the torque (40) multiplied by the angle (which we are looking for)
  • get 3radians but it takes 2radians to make it around the circle,
  • Thus 1.5 revolutions is our answer! “
342
Q

The motor driving the rotation of a large metal hoop (R = 1m) in a machine produces 100Nm of torque. If the hoop accelerates at a rate of 2.5 rad/sec how heavy must it be?

A

“torque = Ia

  • Moment of intertial for a ring is MR^2
  • 100/2.5 = M = 40 kg”
343
Q

A car enters a turn with a radius of r on an icy road at velocity v. What angle is required to ensure that the car does not slide off the road? Sintheta=?

A

sin theta = v^2/rg found by setting mv^2/r = mgsin theta

344
Q

how do you find the weight of a pilot at the bottom of a loop

A

“To find the pilots weight at the bottom of the loop add gravitation force and centripetal force
- mg + mv^2/r = 6800”

345
Q

What is a conservative force?

A

“1. Gravity

  1. Elastic force
  2. Electric “
346
Q

What does mechanical energy consist of?

A

Sum of KE and PE

347
Q

What is the equation for energy lost during expansion?

A

W = PdeltaV

348
Q

A cylinder fitted with a piston exists in a high pressure chamber (3 atm) witih an initial volume of 1 L. If a quantity of a hydrocarbon material is combusted inside the cylinder to produce 1 kJ of energy, and if only 30% of this energy is lost to friction, what is the volume change of the gas inside the cylinder? (note: 1L atm =101.3J)

A

“2.33L!

  • Energy used for expansion must come from the energy of combustion minus the amount lost to friction. SInce the burning of hydrocarbons produces 1 kJ but lost 300J, 700J of energy contributes tot he expansion mentioned in the question.
  • Using conversion factor we see that this value ~7 L*atm. This can equal PdeltaV and then divide by P (which is 3 atm not 1) and you get 2.33 as the change in volume “
349
Q

How is a system effected when you have a pulley with mass instead of a massless one?

A

”- Must consider energy from rotation of pulley

  • so total energy = mgh + rotational KE
  • Overall decreases the height or distance something can be pulled “
350
Q

“Suppose that a moderately hard surface such as the hard-packed earth described in the passage is found to decelerate a person making a feet-first landing to a stop in an average of 0.09 seconds. What is the person’s deceleration in terms of g (where 1 g = 9.81 m/s2) when falling from a height of two meters?

A. 1g
B. 2g
C. 7g
D. 22g”

A

“C is correct. Whew, this is a fairly heavy question! It might be one to skip over, mark, and save for later.

To find the magnitude of this acceleration, we need to know the velocity at impact. For this, we can use vf2 = vi2 + 2ad. Initial velocity is 0 m/s, distance is 2 m, and acceleration is g, or 9.81 m/s2.

vf2 = (0 m/s)2 + 2(10 m/s2)(2 m)
vf2 = 40 m2/s2 

We know that 62 = 36 and 72 = 49, so √40 must fall between 6 and 7. Let’s call it 6.4. Now, acceleration = (final velocity - initial velocity) / time.

a = (0 m/s - 6.4 m/s) / 0.09 s

We get a negative value in the numerator, but all of our answer choices are positive, and the question asks for the person’s deceleration. Since the negative sign simply denotes that he is decelerating, we can ignore it going forward. We can also round 0.09 s to 0.1 s.

a = 6.4 m/s / 0.1 s
a = 64 m/s2

Finally, note that our answer must be written in terms of g. Estimating g as 10 m/s2, 64 m/s2 is equal to 6.4g. However, the value of g is actually lower, so our real answer should be slightly higher than 6.4g. Choice C, 7g, is closest.”

351
Q

“While playing, a 40-kg child is accidentally pushed directly forward off a ledge, causing him to fall and hit the ground at a 60° angle. If the child has 720 J of kinetic energy at the instant before impact, at what velocity was he pushed? Assume negligible air resistance.

A. 3.0 m/s
B. 4.2 m/s
C. 5.2 m/s
D. 6.0 m/s “

A

“A is correct. Let’s begin with the information that we have, most notably the kinetic energy value. Remember, KE = ½ mv2, so we can use this value to calculate the child’s total velocity immediately before impact.

720 J = ½ (40 kg)(v2)
720 J = 20 kg (v2)
36 = v2
v = 6 m/s

Note that this is the child’s total final velocity, so it includes both a horizontal and a vertical component. Since air resistance is negligible and gravity acts only in the vertical direction, the child’s final horizontal velocity is the same as his horizontal velocity at the moment of the push. This value can be found using the cosine of the given angle (if in doubt, draw out the situation)!

vhorizontal = vtotal cos(60°)
vhorizontal = 0.5vtotal = 0.5 (6 m/s) = 3 m/s"
352
Q

“A student ran a thin-layer chromatography (TLC) plate and obtained a lengthy streak for one of the samples. Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to have caused the TLC plate to streak?

A. The student overloaded the spot for that sample.
B. The sample was over-concentrated.
C. There were many components in the sample.
D. The sample was highly polar.”

A

“D is correct. The polarity of a sample affects its retention time, but it has no effect on streaking.

A, B: In TLC, streaking can be caused by overloading the spot with sample or by using a sample that is too concentrated.

C: If a TLC sample is impure, its multiple components will travel different distances along the plate, which could lead to a streaked appearance.”

353
Q

How much does the rate of effusion of dichloromethane at 200 K change when the temperature is changed to 800 K? Assume all other conditions are identical.

A

“Rate of effusion depends on root-mean-square speed, which is calculated using the formula vrms = √(3RT)/M. Here, T is temperature and M is molar mass. Since the identity of the gas is constant, the only factor changing is T. Therefore, for two samples of the same gas with identical pressures but different temperatures, the following relationship holds:
rate1/rate2 = √(T1/T2)
rate2/rate1 = √(800/200) = 2
This means that the new rate is twice as large, or 100% larger than the original rate.”

354
Q

What are the 4 amino acids that undergo phosphorylation?

A

“1. Serine (S)

  1. Threonine (T)
  2. Tyrosine (Y)
  3. Histidine (H)”
355
Q

“Tissue engineers have been developing a synthetic mineral apatite to use in prosthetics that is comprised of repeating molybdenum hexacarbonyl [Mo(CO)6] subunits. This bonding is likely to involve which of the following orbitals?

A. sp3
B. sp3d2
C. d2sp3
D. dsp3 “

A

“C is correct. Here, the central molybdenum atom is bound to six substituents. In such a configuration, the molecule takes the shape of an octahedron. The number of substituents, or bonding regions, around the atom is equal to the number of orbitals that hybridize: here, there are two 4d, one 5s, and three 5p atomic orbitals, for an overall hybridization of d2sp3.

A: sp3 hybridization would be expected in a tetrahedral molecule, like CH4.

B: This is very close to the correct answer, with one distinction! In sp3d2 hybridization, all of the orbitals have the same principal quantum number. In d2sp3 hybridization, the principal quantum number of the d orbitals is one less than the principal quantum numbers of the s and p orbitals, as is the case here. We see d2sp3 hybridization in the transition metals and sp3d2 hybridization in the nonmetals.

D: dsp3 hybridization would be expected if the central atom had only 5 attached substituents. This would yield a trigonal bipyramidal rather than an octahedral geometry.”

356
Q

What type of lens corrects myopia and what is different about the eye?

A

”- Need diverging lens!

  • Eyes near point is smaller than that of a healthy eye
  • Focal point is closer in than the retina “
357
Q

“For a converging and diverging lens or concave and convex mirror, what images are produced when the object is:
do > 2f
2f > do > f
do < f”

A
"Converging lens/ concave mirror
1. do > 2f - RIS
2. 2f > do > f - RIL
3. do < f - VUL
 Diverging lens/ convex mirror 
VUS for all "
358
Q

For a real image and a virtural image for a mirror and lens where is the image formed and what is the sign of i?

A

“1. Real image = +i

  • Mirror = image on same side
  • Lens = Image on opposite
    2. Virtual image = -i
  • Mirror = image opposite side
  • Lens = image same side “
359
Q

“Define: stereoisomers

  1. Enantiomers
  2. Diastereomers
  3. Epimers”
A

”- Stereoisomers - same atomic connectivity, but diff rotation

  1. Enantiomers - nonsuperimposable image
    - Each has opp config at ALL chiral centers
    - Optical rotation of equal mag BUT opp sign
    - Racemic mixture = 50:50 mix = achiral = no optical activity
    - Everything else identical
    - Separate using resolution!
  2. Diastereomers - nonsuperimposable NON mirror images
    - Opp config for AT LEAST ONE but NOT all
    - unrelated to optical activity
    - Diff chem/phys props
    - Has cis/trans
    - Physically separate
  3. Epimers - diasteromers that differ in config at ONLY one chiral center
    - all epimers are diasteromers but not all diastereomers are epimers”
360
Q

“A student is conducting an experiment in which he collects gaseous CO2 produced during a particular reaction. Under which conditions would the student’s CO2 samples behave most ideally?

A. T = 285 K and P = 0.05 atm
B. T = 10 K and P = 50 atm
C. T = 273°C and P = 50 Pa
D. T = 273°C and P = 50 kPa”

A

C is correct. Gases behave most ideally under high temperatures and low pressures. The tricky part of this question is noticing that not all answer choices are given in the same units. Of the temperatures listed, the highest is 273°C (approximately 546 K). For the pressure values, remember that 1 atm is roughly equal to 101,500 Pa. 50 Pa (1 atm / 1.01 x 105 Pa) yields a value on the order of 10-4 atmospheres, so 50 Pa is the lowest pressure given as part of an answer choice as well.

361
Q

“Hydrogen bonds vary in strength depending upon the donor and acceptor atoms. Which of the following hydrogen bonds has the lowest bond dissociation enthalpy? (A dashed line indicates the hydrogen bond in question.)

A. F-H - - - :F
B. F-H - - - :O
C. O-H - - - :O
D. N-H - - - :O “

A

“Want to find weakest bond

  • EN donor atom pulls electron density away from a hydrogen atom, causing it to take on a partial positive character. Another electronegative atom with a lone pair acts as a hydrogen bond acceptor.
  • The greater the electronegativity of the donor atom, the stronger the positive charge that accumulates on the hydrogen.
  • Thus, A is the most EN atom will have the strongest bond
  • Since the acceptor atom is oxygen in the remaining three choices (B, C, and D), we need only consider the effect of the electronegativity of the donor atom on the strength of the bond. Fluorine is the most electronegative atom on the list, followed by oxygen, then nitrogen. Therefore, choice D, which contains nitrogen, has the weakest bond. “
362
Q

What is oxidation reaction?

A

”- The gain of bonds to oxygen (or other EN substituents) or the loss of bonds to hydrogen

(1) loss of an electron
(2) increased oxidation state
(3) loss of a C–H bond (e.g. alkane → alkene)
(4) gain of a C–O or C–N bond (or any bond between carbon and a highly electronegative atom). “

363
Q

How do you determine the number of stereoisomers something will have?

A

“n = number of chiral centers
2^n
- excluding meso compounds “

364
Q

What is associated with a reduction reaction?

A

“(1) gain of an electron

(2) decreased oxidation state
(3) formation of a C–H bond (e.g. alkene → alkane)
(4) loss of a C–O or C–N bond (or any bond between carbon and an electronegative atom).”

365
Q

What is the equation to calculate partial pressure of oxygen?

A

PO2 = mole fraction of O2 x Ptotal

366
Q

When is work equal to 0?

A

“Case 1: Work equals zero when the displacement of an obect equals zero. (W=0 if d=0)
Case 2: Work is zero if the applied force is zero, like a frictionless surface (W=0 if F=0)
Case 3: Work equals zero if force is perpendicular to the motion. W= 0 if F x d x cos90º”

367
Q

“Radiation oncologists use machines called gamma knives to perform radiosurgery. Lead vests are used to protect non-cancerous areas and medical personnel from radiation exposure. A typical gamma knife uses a photon beam with a frequency of 1.6 x 1019 Hz. Suppose a stray photon hits a lead atom and ejects an electron and a lower-frequency photon of 1.599 x 1019 Hz. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electron? (Lead has a work function of 4.14 eV, Planck’s constant is 6.626 x 10-34 J∙s, and 1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J.)

A. 6.0 x 10-18 J
B. 6.6 x 10-18 J
C. 1.0 x 10-14 J
D. 0 J “

A

“A is correct. Because of the law of conservation of energy, the energy of the initial photon must equal the sum of the energies of the emitted photon and the electron. However, we are given only frequencies. Since frequency and energy are directly proportional, we can use E = hf to find the energies required to solve. First, though, we must find the frequency of the electron, which is equal to the difference between the two photon frequencies.

1.6 x 1019 Hz - 1.599 x 1019 Hz = 1016 Hz
E = hf = (6.6 x 10-34 J∙s)(10 16 Hz) = 6.6 x 10-18 J

This quantity is NOT equal to the kinetic energy of the electron. The work function represents this amount of energy. We must first convert lead’s work function to joules, then subtract the work function from our calculated energy to get the kinetic energy. To make this calculation easier, use 4 instead of 4.14:

WPb = (4 eV)(1.6 x 10-19 J) = 6.4 x 10-19 J
KE = Etotal - WPb = 6.6 x 10-18 J - 6.4 x 10-19 J = 6 x 10-18 J"
368
Q

p-Nitrophenol has a pKa of 7.16. Which of the following most accurately approximates the ratio of the conjugate base to p-nitrophenol in the pH 11 stop solution?

A

“Use HH equation to find ration of conj base/ acid
- According to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, then, log ([conjugate base]/[acid]) is about 4. This corresponds to a conjugate base-to-acid ratio of approximately 104, or 10,000, to 1.”

369
Q

“Given a 5.0-ampere current running for a total of four hours and ten minutes, what will be the amount of hydrogen gas produced in an electrolysis reaction? (Faraday’s constant = 96,485 C per mole of electrons). Cathode (reduction): 2 H+ (aq) + 2e- → H2 (g) E°red = 0.00 V

A. 0.19 moles 
B. 0.39 moles 
C. 0.78 moles 
D. 1.6 moles 
"
A

“B is correct. For questions like these, begin with the information given. We know that the current is 5.0 A, or 5.0 coulombs/s. To find coulombs, we simply need to multiply by seconds. Four hours and ten minutes is equal to 250 minutes, or 15,000 seconds.

(5 C/s)(15,000 s) = 75,000 C of charge transmitted
(75,000 C) / (96,485 C/mol) ~ 0.8 moles of electrons transferred (as 75/96 is slightly larger than 75/100, or 0.75)

According to the reduction half-reaction, only one molecule of H2 is created for every two electrons. Thus, the amount of hydrogen gas produced must be approximately 0.4 moles.”

370
Q

In a electrolytic cell where do the electrons flow from?

A

“An Ox RED cat

- Flow from anode (+) to cathode (-) since electrons are necessary for reduction “

371
Q

how do sound waves propagate?

A

Like other longitudinal waves, sound waves propagate due to vibratory changes in pressure or collision of adjacent particles within an elastic medium.

372
Q

What is the KE of a sample of gas?

A

“KE = (3/2)KBT, where KB is the Boltzmann constant.

- Thus only temp effects the KE”

373
Q

“During the synthesis of bile, cholesterol is conjugated by the addition of a carboxylic acid residue. Bile salts are thus able to solubilize lipids in aqueous digestive secretions because bile salts:

A. are exclusively polar and thus dissolve completely in digestive secretions.
B. are exclusively polar and fully dissolve dietary lipids.
C. have a polar region and a nonpolar region, thus increasing the water-solubility of lipids.
D. have a polar region and a nonpolar region, and are thus able to neutralize other organic acids. “

A

C is correct. Bile salts contain both polar elements and a hydrophobic cholesterol core. Because of this amphipathic structure, they contain both polar and nonpolar regions, acting as a detergent and solubilizing lipids in aqueous digestive contents by interacting with both hydrophobic (lipid) and aqueous phases

374
Q

The wavelength of emitted radiation depends on what?

A

“I. the wavelength of excitatory radiation.

II. the electronic structure of the molecule being analyzed.”

375
Q

What type of solvent is hexane?

A
  • Nonpolar hydrophobic
376
Q

“If a high school athlete throws an average pitch of 30 m/s from the mound completely horizontally, and it leaves his arms 2 meters above the ground, how high will the ball be when it crosses home plate, which is 18 m away from the mound?

A. The ball will not make it to home plate.
B. 0.2 m
C. 0.5 m
D. 1.2 m”

A

“To solve for height, we can use:
Δy = v0yt + ½ at2, where v0y = 0 and a = -10 m/s2.
Δy = ½ (-10 m/s2)(t2)

Unfortunately, we do not know the time, but we can solve fairly easily using the formula Δx = vxt. (This simple formula works because the ball does not experience acceleration in the horizontal direction.) We must rearrange to get t = Δx/v x, or t = (18 m) / (30 m/s) = 3/5 s = 0.6 seconds.

Plugging into the first equation yields Δy = ½ (-10)(0.6)2 = -1.8 m. Thus, the ball will end up exactly 2 - 1.8 = 0.2 m above the ground.”

377
Q

When a gas does not behave as an ideal gas, how does this change PV=nRT?

A

“According to PV = nRT, volume would approach zero. However, at a certain point, volume will not be able to decrease, because the particle volume cannot be compressed. As a result, the higher the pressure, the more Vreal will deviate from Videal, or Vpredicted.)

If Vreal is significantly higher than expected, the PV term in PV/nRT will also be especially high, and PV/nRT will exceed 1.”

378
Q

“Absorption of radiation corresponding to what portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is most likely to excite Aequorea fluorophore, a green fluorescent protein used in biological experiments?

A. Ultraviolet
B. Infrared
C. Orange
D. Microwave “

A

”- A is correct. Fluorescence is the emission of a lower-energy photon from a fluorophore excited by the prior absorption of a higher-energy photon. With this in mind, the Aequorea fluorophore must be excited by the absorption of a photon of higher energy (and frequency) than that associated with green visible light. Of the choices listed, only ultraviolet light, choice A, is of higher energy than green light.
- Even if we were not considering the green fluorescence of this organism, we could simply choose the highest-energy radiation as that which is most likely to promote fluorescence in general.”

379
Q

How do you find the index of refraction?

A

“n = c/v where c = speed of light and v = velocity of light through that medium
- NOTE: frequency does not change “

380
Q

What kind of charge do phosphate groups of ATP have?

A

Negatively charged!

381
Q

How do you produce the highest positive voltage in a redox reaction?

A

Decreasing the concentration of the Mg2+ solution and increasing the concentration of the Cu2+ solution

382
Q

What is the equation for electrical power?

A

P = IV

383
Q

“Methane gas is nonpolar. What are the possible implications of this?

A. It depends on whether a carbon atom is present, which, if so, will cause hydrogen bonding.
B. It depends on whether a bromide atom is present, which, if so, will cause dipole-dipole bonding.
C. Being nonpolar, dipole-dipole forces will not be present.
D. Being nonpolar, Van der Waals’ forces will not be present. “

A

“C is correct. Dipole-dipole forces are present only between polar molecules, and methane is nonpolar.

A: Carbon atoms cannot cause hydrogen bonding.

B: Whether dipole-dipole forces are present depends only on whether the entire molecule is polar or nonpolar, not on whether the molecule contains particular atoms. (Hydrogen bonding, a subcategory of dipole-dipole interactions, is the one possible exception. However, hydrogen bonding has nothing to do with Br atoms.)

D: Van der Waals’ forces include London dispersion forces, which are always present.”

384
Q

What is an induced dipole vs dipole dipole vs hydrogen bonding?

A

“1. Induced dipole - occurs only when a polar molecule induces a nonpolar molecule to become temporarily polar.

  1. Dipole-dipole forces - are attractive forces between the positive end of one polar molecule and the negative end of another polar molecule.
  2. Hydrogen bonding - is a special type of dipole-dipole attraction between molecules, not a covalent bond to a hydrogen atom. It results from the attractive force between a hydrogen atom covalently bonded to a very electronegative atom such as a N, O, or F atom and another very electronegative atom.”
385
Q

How do you find pH and pKa from Ka?

A
"pH = logsquareroot (ka*HA)
pKa = -log(ka) when concentrations are equal"
386
Q

What type of enzyme is lactose dehydrogenase?

A

oxioreducatase

387
Q

What is the rate lw for a one step reaction and a bimolecular reaction and a multistep reaction?

A

“1. One step = based on how many items are there

  1. Bimolecular = reaction order of 2
  2. Multistep - find the rate limiting step (aka slow step) “
388
Q

If the Kp = 10 and the partial pressure of A6 is 0.1 atm at equilibrium, what is the mole fraction of A3 at equilibrium? 2A3 A6

A
"10= A6/[A3]^2 
10 = 0.1/ X^2 = 0.5"
389
Q

What is the functional group that forms during peptide bond formation?

A

Amide!

390
Q

What compound will elute first in a gas chromatography analysis?

A
  • Lowest molecular weight and weakest intermolecular forces
391
Q
"A person, whose eye has a lens-to-retina distance of 2.0 cm, can only clearly see objects that are closer than 1.0 m away. What is the strength S of the person’s eye lens? (Note: Use the thin lens formula 1/O+1/I=S.) 
A.–50 D 
B.–10 D 
C.51 D 
D.55 D"
A

Its numerical value is given by (1 m)-1+(0.02 m)-1=1 D+50 D=51 D

392
Q

What is the function of a lipase?

A

Hydrolyze fatty acids

393
Q

By what factor does the proton concentration change between pH 7 and pH 4

A

“1. Each drop down in pH = 10 fold increase

  1. Each level up = 1/10 increase
    - so 3 different = 1000”
394
Q

What type of bond is in a straight chain vs branches in glycogen?

A

“1, 4 glycosidic bond = straight chain
1,6 glycosidic bond = branched
- all alpha –> cant break down beta bonds in carbohydrates “

395
Q

What is the value of E knot when a reaction is spontaneous?

A

Must be +!

396
Q

“Absorption of ultraviolet light by organic molecules always results in what process?

A.Bond breaking
B.Excitation of bound electrons
C.Vibration of atoms in polar bonds
D.Ejection of bound electrons”

A

B. The absorption of ultraviolet light by organic molecules always results in electronic excitation. Bond breaking can subsequently result, as can ionization or bond vibration, but none of these processes are guaranteed to result from the absorption of ultraviolet light.

397
Q

Does an aromatic side chain or a peptide bond have an electronic excited state that is closer in energy to the ground state?

A

Aromatic side chain because it absorbs near the UV region = longer wavelengths = longer energy

398
Q

When you phosphorylate something how does this effect charge?

A

Makes it more negative!

399
Q

What are the side chains fo Ser and Thr?

A

“hydroxyl!

- note: Tyrosine possesses a hydroxyl group in the aromatic ring, making it a phenol derivative”

400
Q

What are the 3 electron rules?

A

“1. Pauli principle - carrying capacity in an orbital
- No two electrons can be identical (spin up/down)
2. Aufbau principle - how electrons are added or removed from orbitals with diff energy
- Electrons are added from lowest to highest energy
- Valence e are in the highest shell and removed highest from lowest
4s removed before 3d
3. Hunds rule - How electrons are added or removed from orbitals with same energy
- Electrons fill degenerate orbitals before pairing
- Paramagnetic = 1 impaired e
- Diamagnetic = all electrons are paired”

401
Q

When the equilibrium constant is > 1 what does this mean about deltaG?

A

It is negative and the reaction is spontaneous

402
Q

What is the ranking for strong nuclear bonding?

A

“1. Nonpolar covalent - same EN (equal sharing)

  1. Polar covalent - Diff EN (unequal sharing)
  2. Metallic covalent - Metal + metal
  3. Coordinate covalent - Ligand + metal”
403
Q

In [Cu(NH3)4]2+, the subscript 4 indicates what?

A

The coordination number of Cu2+, Because ammonia is neutral, the number 4 reflects only the number of ammonia molecules that bind to the central Cu2+ cation and does not indicate anything about its oxidation number.

404
Q

“What is the concentration of Ca2+(aq) in a saturated solution of CaCO3? (Note: The solubility product constant Ksp for CaCO3 is 4.9 × 10–9.)

A.2.4 × 10–4 M
B.4.9 × 10–5 M
C.7.0 × 10–5 M
D.4.9 × 10–9 M”

A

“C. The solubility product constant expression for CaCO3 is Ksp = [Ca2+][CO32–]. Since equal quantities of Ca2+(aq) and CO32–(aq) are produced when CaCO3 dissolves, this expression reduces to 4.9 × 10–9 = x2, or 49 × 10–10 = x2.
- Take the square root of both sides “

405
Q

“A glass rod is rubbed with a silk scarf producing a charge of +3.2 × 10–9 C on the rod. (Recall that the magnitude of the proton and electron charges is 1.6 × 10–19 C.) The glass rod has:

A.5.1 × 1011 protons added to it.
B.5.1 × 1011 electrons removed from it.
C.2.0 × 1010 protons added to it.
D.2.0 × 1010 electrons removed from it.”

A

D because the number of charges in excess can be computed as +3.2 × 10 –9 C/1.6 × 10 –19 C = +2.0 × 10 10. This means that the rod has an excess of positive charge, created by removing a number of +2.0 × 10 10 electrons from the material, as it is not possible to add protons in a manner described in this question.

406
Q

What is the equation for elastic PE?

A

PE = 1/2kx^2

407
Q

What is the equation for dB?

A

dB = 10log(I/I0)

408
Q

For a diverging lens or convex mirror, what type of image is formed?

A

always VUS

409
Q

“Which of the following energy conversions best describes what takes place in a battery-powered resistive circuit when the current is flowing?

A.Electric to thermal to chemical
B.Chemical to thermal to electric
C.Electric to chemical to thermal
D.Chemical to electric to thermal”

A

D because the chemical energy of the battery elements is used as electrical energy to set the charge carriers in motion through the resistor, where they experience drag from the crystal lattice of the resistive conductor and dissipate their energy as heat from the resistor

410
Q

What is the equation for magnification of a lens?

A

“m = -i/o

- virual images always upright “

411
Q

What is a reducing agent?

A

Reducing agent donates electrons and is thus oxidized

412
Q

When various anions and cations are mixed, what causes a precipitate to form?

A

The amount of a substance that will dissolve in water is described by the Ksp. The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. If the amount of the compound present is in excess of the Ksp, then a precipitate would form to maintain the Ksp.

413
Q

What does a low Ksp mean?

A
  • Lower the value of Ksp = the lower the concentration of the cation and anions in aqueous solution
414
Q

What is equivalent mass?

A

Equivalent mass (or equivalent weight) is the mass of an acid that yields one mole of hydrogen ions or the mass of a base that reacts with one mole of hydrogen ions.

415
Q

When do substances precipitate?

A

When they exceed their Ksp

416
Q

What information about an axon is required to calculate the current?

A

“Potential, resistance per unit length, and length

- Ohm’s Law, I = V/R. To determine R, the resistance per unit length, the length, and the potential V are needed”

417
Q

How does a basic anion dissolve in water and acid?

A

”- Wont dissolve in water

- WIll dissolve in acid (if it dissolved in water too it would be an oxyacid)”

418
Q

“What is the concentration of Cl– ions in a 0.1 M solution of calcium chloride?

A.0.02 M
B.0.05 M
C.0.10 M
D.0.20 M”

A

D because the formula for calcium chloride is CaCl2 and it produces twice as many Cl– ions as Ca2+ ions in solution when it dissolves.

419
Q

“An ultrasound examination could show the motion of a fetus. In order to image this motion, the ultrasound examination devices requires what minimal information?

A.The speeds of the sound and of the moving object.
B.The speed of the sound, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed.
C.The speeds of the sound and of the moving object, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed.
D.The speeds of the sound and of the moving object, and the frequencies and wavelengths of the sound waves emitted and observed.”

A

B because the Doppler effect is used with ultrasound waves to provide fetal images. The Doppler effect relates the frequency of the ultrasound wave as detected by a moving detector to the frequency of the wave when the source is stationary, the speed of the source, and the speed of the detector.

420
Q

What does the principal quantum number represent?

A

Approximate radial size of an electorn cloud

421
Q

if you have two achiral reactants, how can you get a chiral product?

A

if the enzyme (catalyst) is chiral then you can get a chiral product

422
Q

“One method of isolating polypeptides and proteins from aqueous extracts is freeze drying. The aqueous solution of the polypeptide or protein is frozen. What procedure can be used to remove the water from the frozen sample?

A.Sublimation under reduced pressure
B.Distillation using steam
C.Extraction with organic solvent
D.Addition of magnesium sulfate”

A

The answer to this question is A because only sublimation of the water under reduced pressure will keep the mixture cold and will maintain the protein in its native state.