Data Interpretation Flashcards

1
Q

Give 2 side effects of clozapine that require monitoring

A

Agranulocytosis

Neutropenia

(Pts require monthly blood tests to monitor)

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2
Q

Give 1 side effect of Carbimazole (antithyroid)

A

Neutropenia

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3
Q

What 4 causes of Hypokalaemia

A

DIRE

Drugs - Thiazide/Loop Diuretics

Inadequate intake/Intestinal loss (diarhoea/vomiting)

Renal tubular Acidosis

Endocrine - Cushing’s/Conn’s Syndrome

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4
Q

Give 5 causes of Hyperkalaemia

A

DREAD

Drugs - ACEi + Aldosterone Antagonists (K+ Sparing diuretics)

Renal Failure

Endocrine - Addison’s

Artefact - Clotted sample

DKA

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5
Q

Give 2 causes of a raised Urea

A

AKI

Upper GI bleed

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6
Q

A raised urea without an increase in creatinine indicates what?

A

A non-renal cause

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7
Q

Regarding AKI, if Urea rise is > than creatinine, what type of AKI is it?

A

Pre-renal AKI

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8
Q

Regarding AKI, if Urea rise is < than creatinine, what type of AKI is it?

A

Intrinsic or post-renal AKI

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9
Q

What issue usually causes pre-renal AKI?

A

Perfusion issue

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10
Q

What issues can cause intrinsic AKI? (5)

A

Ischaemia (causing acute tubular necrosis)

Nephrotoxic antibiotics (gentamicin, vancomycin, doxycycline)

Drugs - ACEi, NSAIDs

Radiological contrast

Injury - Rhabdomyolysis

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11
Q

What issue usually causes post-renal AKI?

A

Obstruction issue (i.e blocked catheter)

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12
Q

What biomarkers would be raised in pre-hepatic pathology?

A

Isolated raise in bilirubin

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13
Q

What biomarkers would be raised in intrahepatic pathology?

A

Increased Bilirubin

Increased ALT/AST

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14
Q

What biomarkers would be increased in post-hepatic pathology?

A

Increased bilirubin

Increased ALP/gGT

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15
Q

Thyroid Function Tests - High TSH and Low T4 indicates what?

A

Primary Hypothyroidism

(Hashimoto’s, Drug Induced)

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16
Q

Thyroid Function Tests - Low TSH and High T4 indicates what?

A

Primary Hyperthyroidism

(Grave’s, Toxic Multinodular Goitre, Drugs)

17
Q

Thyroid Function Tests - Low TSH and Low T4 indicates what?

A

Secondary hypothyroidism

(Pituitary Tumour/Damage)

18
Q

Thyroid Function Tests - High TSH and High T4 indicates what?

A

Secondary Hyperthyroidism

Pituitary Tumour

19
Q

Give 6 drugs with a narrow therapeutic range that require monitoring

A

Digoxin

Theophylline

Lithium

Phenytoin

Gentamicin

Vancomycin

20
Q

Drug monitoring - If an adequate therapeutic effect is achieved and serum concentration levels are high, what should be done to the dose?

A

Reduce dose

21
Q

Drug monitoring - If an adequate therapeutic effect is achieved and serum concentration levels are normal/low, what should be done to the dose?

A

No dose change

22
Q

Give 4 features of digoxin toxicity

A

Confusion

Nausea

Visual Halos

Arrhythmias

23
Q

Give 5 features of lithium toxicity

A

Tremor

Tiredness

Seizures

Coma

Diabetes Insipidus

24
Q

Give 5 features of Phenytoin Toxicity

A

Gum Hypertrophy

Ataxia

Nystagmus

Peripheral Neuropathy

Teratogenic

25
Q

Give 2 features of gentamicin/vancomycin toxicity

A

Ototoxicity

Nephrotoxicity

26
Q

What liver product is required for paracetamol metaboliosm?

A

Glutathione (antioxidant)

27
Q

What happens to Glutathione stores in paracetamol overdose? What effect does this have on the liver? (3)

A

Stores are quickly depleted.

Leads to accumulation of toxic metabolites - NAPQI

NAPQI causes acute liver damage

28
Q

What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose? How is this achieved?

A

N-Acetyl-Cysteine (NAC)

NAC replenishes stores of Glutathione, thus preventing further production of NAPQI and preventing further liver damage.

29
Q

Reversal of Warfarin - How should major bleeding be managed? (3)

A

Stop Warfarin

IV Vitamin K 5mg

Prothrombin Complex

30
Q

Reversal of Warfarin - How should minor bleeding be managed + INR >8 ? (2)

A

Stop Warfarin

IV Vitamin K 1-3mg

31
Q

Reversal of Warfarin - How should no bleeding but an INR >8 be managed? (2)

A

Stop Warfarin

Oral Vitamin K 1-5mg

32
Q

Reversal of Warfarin - How should minor bleeding + INR 5-8 be managed? (2)

A

Stop Warfarin

IV vitamin K 1-3mg

33
Q

Reversal of Warfarin - How should INR 3-5 + no bleeding be managed? (1)

A

Omit doses of Warfarin until INR <3

34
Q

What effect do macrolides (erythromycin/clarithromycin) have on Warfarin? What effect does this have on INR?

A

Macrolides are enzyme inhibitors so increase effects of Warfarin

(Increase INR)

35
Q

How can Carbamazepine cause hyponatraemia?

A

Inducing SIADH

36
Q

In a patient with Addison’s or who is on Long Term Steroids, what should be done during intercurrent illness?

A

Increase hydrocortisone

37
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for acute heart failure with signs of fluid overload? (Pulmonary oedema, Raised JVP, Peripheral Oedema)

A

40mg IV Furosemide

38
Q

What are the 2 first line drugs for rate control in fast AF? Give 2 contraindications to look out for

A

Betablockers and Diltiazem

BB - Asthma

CCB - Peripheral oedema/leg swelling

39
Q
A