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Data all 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

High platlet count >400

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2
Q

What are 3 causes of thrombocytosis in in primary haematological disease?

A
  • Essential thrombocytopaenia and other mylkoproliferative disorders
  • Chronic myeloid leukaemia
  • myelodisplasia
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3
Q

name 3 causes of reactive thrombocytosis?

A
  • infection
  • inflammation
  • Malignancy
  • Bleeding
  • Pregnancy
  • Post slenectomy
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4
Q

Name 3 causes of thrombocytopaenia due to reduced platlet production as a result of bone marrow failure?

A
  • Infections
  • Drug induced - Penicillamine
  • Leukamia
  • Aplastic anaemia
  • Myelofibrosis
  • Bone marrow replacement
  • Myelodisplasia
  • megaloblastic anaemia
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5
Q

What is hesselbachs triangle?

A

Also called the inguinal triangle, it is a depression that sits medially to the ,superficial inguinal ring through which direct inguinal hernias protrude through the abdominal wall

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6
Q

What are the borders of the inguinal/hesselbachs triangle?

A
  • Medially - rectus abdominus
  • Laterally - the inderior epigastric artery and vein
  • inferiorly - The inguinal ligament
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7
Q

What type of hernia comes through the inguinal canal?

A

an indirect hernia

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8
Q

name 6 types of hearnia?

A
  • Inguinal hernia .
  • Femoral hernia.
  • Umbilical hernia.
  • Incisional hernia.
  • Epigastric hernia.
  • Hiatal hernia
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9
Q

Name 3 causes of increased intra-abdominal pressure?

A
  • Obesity
  • Pregnancy
  • Other organomegaly
  • COPD/chronic cough
  • Prostatism
  • Constipation
  • heavy lifting
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10
Q

If the hearnia is in the scrotum, what type of hearnia is it?

A

Indirect is commonly found. Rarely though, it may be a direct hearnia.

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11
Q

What does the following Hepatitis screen indicate?

HbsAG - Negative
Anti-HBc -Negative
Anti-HBs - Negative

A

It means that the individual is suceptable and needs to be vaccinated

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12
Q

What does the following Hepatitis screen indicate?

HbsAG - Negative
Anti-HBc -Positive
Anti-HBs - Positive

A

It means that they have a resolved hepatitis B infection

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13
Q

What does the following Hepatitis screen indicate?

HbsAG - Negative
Anti-HBc -Negative
Anti-HBs - Positive

A

It means that they have been vaccinated.

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14
Q

What does the following Hepatitis screen indicate?

HbsAG - positive
Anti-HBc -Positive
Anti-HBs - Negative

A

It means that they have an active chronic hepatitis B infection

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15
Q

What antibody is raised in primary biliary cirrohsis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibody

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16
Q

What are the 3 umbrella causes of acute kidney failure?

A
  • Prerenal - sudden drop in blood pressure or interupption to blood flow to kidneys
  • intrarenal - direct damage to the kidneys eg. toxins, medication, inflammation, infection
  • postrenal - sudden obstruction to urineflow eg. enlarged prostate, bladder stones, bladder cancer
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17
Q

What is a common electrolyte imbalance associated with sarcoidosis?

A

Hypercalcaemia

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18
Q

What does trismus mean?

A

Difficulty opening mouth due to irritation of the muscles of mastication

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19
Q

Where do you insert a canula for pneumothorax aspiration?

A

Between the 2nd and 3rd rib, mid clavicular line.

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20
Q

what part of the prostate gives rise to 70-80% of prostate cancer?

A

Peripheral zone

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21
Q

Name 6 complications of diabetes mellitus?

A
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • cerebro vascular disease
  • Retinopathy and blindness
  • Heart attack
  • permanent kidney damage
  • diabetic foot infections
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22
Q

What are ulcers in the mouth called?

A

aphthous ulcer

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23
Q

What are the features of an arterial ulcer?

A
  • Located on the lower legs and tops of the feet or toes
  • A tendency to be painful, particularly at night
  • A symmetrical shape with well-defined borders, often described as having a ‘punched-out appearance’
  • Minimal bleeding when touched or knocked
  • Cool, pale or bluish surrounding skin that appears shiny
  • Loss of leg hair
  • Faint or absent ankle pulses.
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24
Q

What are the features of a venous ulcer?

A
  • Being located on the lower legs, commonly the inner ankle or ‘gaiter’ region
  • Causing minimal pain
  • A tendency to be shallow, with lots of exudate.
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25
Q

What are cullens and grey-turners signs?

A

Abdominal haemorrhage associated with acute pancreatitis. Cullens-central, Grey-turners-lateral

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26
Q

What is paresis?

A

Partial parlysis

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27
Q

What is plegia?

A

Complete paralysis

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28
Q

What is hemiplegia?

A

Paralysis of half the body

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29
Q

What is tetraplegia?

A

Paralysis of all 4 limbs

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30
Q

What is the name given to the test where a patient puts a finger on their nose and then touches the clinicinans finger held at arms length?

A

Dysmetria

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31
Q

What is the name given to the test where a patient puts the theri hand upside down on their palm and then quickly flicks it back and forth between plam and dirsal aspect?

A

dysdiadochokinesia

32
Q

Name 3 features of cerebellar pathology?

DANISH

A
  • Dysdiadochokinesia/dysmetria
  • ataxia
  • nystagmus
  • Intention tremor
  • slurred speach
  • hypertonia
33
Q

What is the gait Where one foot is ‘swung’ out and around in an arc?

What causes it?

A
  • Hemiplegic gait

* stroke

34
Q

What is a parkinsonian gait called?

A

a festinating gait

35
Q

What is an unsteady ‘alcoholic’ gait called?

A

ataxic gait

36
Q

What kind of gait is foot drop called?

A

a neuropathatic gait

37
Q

What causes a neuropathic gait?

A
  • Loss of dorsiflexion

* Common peroneal nerve palsy

38
Q

What is the gait called where feet are heavily planted ‘stomped’ called?

A

sensory ataxia

39
Q

What causes sensory ataxia?

A
  • Diabetes
  • Subacute degeneration of spinal cord
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • Alcohol
  • Drugs
40
Q

Were is a chest drain inserted in a tension pneumothorax?

A

Mid axillary line in a trinagle formed by the border of pectoralis major, latisimus dorsi, 5th intercostal space

41
Q

What kind of scar runs down the front of the chest?

What kind of surgery does it indicate?

A
  • A median sternotomy scar.

* CABG, valve replacment

42
Q

A long scar down the indside of the calf, what vein has been harvested and what surgery has it been used in?

A
  • Great saphenoous vein

* CABG

43
Q

Name 3 causes of Type 1 respiratory failure (hypoxic)?

A
  • pneumonia
  • ARDS
  • Asthma
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • COPD
  • Pneumothorax
  • PE
  • Obesity
44
Q

Name 3 causes of Type 2 respiratory failure (hypercapnic)?

A
  • COPD/Asthma
  • Drug overdose - Benzo’s/opiates
  • CNS injury - cerebrovascular event/spinal cord injury
  • Primary muscle disorders - duchens
  • Neuromuscular junction disorders- MSG
45
Q

What hormone changes take place during the perimenopause?

A

• Decreased production of oestrogen and progesterone

46
Q

What test is used to assess the viability of arteries to the hands during an ABG?

A

Allens test

47
Q

What murmur is associated with the collapsing pulse test?

A

Aortic regurgitation

48
Q

Which artery is associated with acute cranial nerve 3 palsy?

A

Posterior communicating artery

49
Q

What are 3 signs of base of skull fracture?

A
  • Raccon eyes
  • Battles sign - bruise behind the ear
  • Haemotympanum - blood behing the tympanic membrane
50
Q

Name the 3 ear bones?

A

• Malleus, incus, stapes

51
Q

What causses dendritic corneal ulcers?

A

• Herpes simplex

52
Q

What are holes in the urethra called?

A

Hypospadias

53
Q

What is it called when the foreskin cant be retracted?

A

Phimosis

54
Q

What is the emergency where a foreskin cant be retracted and it swells blocking the urethra?

A

Para phimosis

55
Q

What are the symptoms of heartblock?

A
  • Fainting.
  • Dizziness or light-headedness.
  • Fatigue (tiredness)
  • Shortness of breath.
  • Chest pain.
56
Q

What is the medical managment of Heartblock bradycardias?

A

Atropine .5mg upto 3mg then subcutaneous pacing or adrenaline

57
Q

What is the medical managment of ventircular fibrulation?

A
  • VF is a shockable rhythm

* If unresponsive commence CPR, followed by AED and shock.

58
Q

what are 2 differential diagnosis for a low MCV?

A
  • Iron deficient Anaemia

* Beta thassalaemia

59
Q

what are 2 differential diagnosis for a normal MCV?

A
  • acute blood loss

* Anaemia of chronic disease

60
Q

what are 2 differential diagnosis for a high MCV?

A

• B12 or folate

61
Q

What are 2 drug causes of hyperkalaemia?

A
  • Spironalactone

* Digoxin

62
Q

What are 2 causes of hyperkalaemia related to excretion of potassium?

A
  • Acute/chronic renal failure

* Adrenocortical insufficiency - addisons

63
Q

What are 2 causes of hyperkalaemia related to compartmental shifts?

A
  • Burns
  • Trauma
  • Acidosis
64
Q

what is the treatment of hyperkalaemia?

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • protect the cardiac membrane - calcium gluconate
  • Shift potassium into the cells - insulin/glucose infusion
  • Nebulised salbutamol
  • dialysis
65
Q

name 3 key ECG changes associated with Hyperkalaemia?

A
  • Peaked T waves
  • Prolonged PR interval
  • Widened QRS
  • Loss of P wave
  • Loss of R wave amplitude
  • Sine wave pattern
  • Asystole
66
Q

What does addisons disease do to your electrolytes?

A

Na↓ K↑ Ca↑

67
Q

What does conns syndrome do to your electrolytes?

A

Na ↑ ↔ K↓

68
Q

What does Cushings syndrome do to your electrolytes?

A

Na↑ K↓ Ca↓

69
Q

What is Conns syndrome?

A

Hyperaldosteronism - high lvls of aldosterone and low renin- high blood pressure

70
Q

What is the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis

A
  1. give fluids
  2. insulin therapy
  3. ketone normalisation
  4. stablise glucose
71
Q

Which structure controls heart rate?

A

Sino atrial node

72
Q

What drug can be used on a supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Adenosine

73
Q

What happens to the leg in a neck of fermur fracture?

A

Shortened, Abducted and externally rotated

74
Q

What arteries supply blood to the head of the humerus?

A

Anterior and posterior humeral circumflex arteries

75
Q

What arteries supply blood to the head of the femur?

A

medial and lateral femoral circumflex arteries

data questions (10 decks)

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